#non-sequential chapter 29

[invisibleanonymousmonsters]

Non-Sequential [Ch. 29]

Pairing: Pre-Serum Steve Rogers/Steve Rogers x Reader

One night, Steve Rogers met a beautiful dame named Y/N. He hadn’t intended on letting her get away. But fate had other ideas. Y/N appeared and disappeared in his life so hauntingly that Steve started to wonder if she was an angel meant to watch over him.

Word Count: 2,500

Chapter 28

The next 5 years simultaneously felt like they were moving too fast and too slowly.

Steve wondered if there would be limited visits from Y/N or if this was the rest of his life: just holding onto the past and praying that the next time she would stay for good.

But he knew that would never happen.

She would always leave.

Steve felt like he had returned to his teenage years when Y/N had first started visiting him. But watching her go now hurt a 100 times worse than back then. During that time, he hadn’t acknowledged that he loved her. He didn’t know what it was like to fully have her. 

What he would give to regain that naivety. He didn’t know how much longer he could handle such torture.

When Y/N did visit the present, Steve tried to seize it as much as he could. He tried to act normal, wait for Y/N to ask the questions so he could figure out what she knew and what she didn’t. By some miracle, she always knew about the snap.

Steve felt lucky, he wouldn’t know how to handle her naivety to how she would die. Nat always told him he was a terrible liar. He could only assume lying to the woman he loved would be even worse.

Steve was sitting at his window, staring out at Brooklyn. There was a steaming cup of coffee in his hand and he was waiting for it to cool down. The sun had just rose past the horizon. Most of the city was still sleeping. He started to enjoy watching it slowly wake up. It was one of the very few joys he found these days.

“Steve?” Her voice whispered from behind him.

He jumped at the sound, shooting to his feet and turning around.

In the process, he spilled some of the coffee on his hand and bare feet.

He hissed at the burn.

“Oh, shit. I’m so sorry!” Y/N rushed forward.

Steve was both so surprised to see her and feel the boiling liquid on his skin that he didn’t realize Y/N was still completely naked.

“I’m fine. It’s OK.” He tried to tell her, only looking into her eyes.

One time Sam asked about the binding nudity that came with Y/N’s time traveling. He asked about it in a way that wasn’t really a question, but like he clearly wanted Steve to comment on it.

“Just so we’re clear, you’re asking what I think about my girlfriend being forced to be naked when she’s also forced to time travel at any given moment to a place she doesn’t know? Did I get that right?” He’d said it with the classic Steve Rogers sass.

But Sam got the point and never brought it up again.

Y/N’s nudity wasn’t something sexualized by Steve. He’d grown used to it. He assumed most people saw their naked wives and girlfriends, and only linked it to sex. But all it did for Steve was remind him of Y/N’s vulnerability.

Her skin was unprotected from the elements. That’s why she had almost frozen to death during the first time she ever traveled.

Her skin attracted unwanted attention. Steve would never forget when Y/N appeared at his military camp, standing innocently in front of an army that hadn’t felt a woman’s touch or seen a female body in months. He didn’t like to think what could’ve happened if Bucky hadn’t been there to look out for her.

Her skin reminded Steve that even though she didn’t don a uniform, there was still something about her that forced her to be different from the world – just like him.

Now her skin told Steve that she was much younger. 

There was no scar from getting shot during the Battle at the Triskelion, a scar on her abdomen from the medical team at the compound digging out a bullet. Then there were the scars that should’ve been scattered across her skin from when she was tortured by Hydra. Thanks to Wakandan medicine, they were almost invisible. But Steve was familiar enough with Y/N’s body that he could still just barely point them out. Those were nowhere to be seen either.

Which meant that the Y/N standing in front of Steve was from a much younger time.

“Did we…did we break up?” Y/N’s lip trembled as her eyes filled with tears.

Steve stepped forward. “What? Why would you think that?”

Her eyes looked around the room. “None of my stuff is here. It doesn’t even look like I live here.”

But it was true. There was hardly any personality to his Brooklyn apartment. Anyone that knew Y/N would expect her apartment to be filled with warmth, and the perfect lighting, and everything that made a home intimate and charming.

“Steve, did we break up?” Y/N’s voice shook as she repeated the question.

Tears were streaming down her cheeks and Steve couldn’t handle it anymore.

He closed the distance between them and pulled her into his body.

“Hey, hey, hey,” he muttered. “It’s OK. We didn’t break up.”

At least he didn’t technically have to lie about that.

She pulled away from being tucked into his body to look at his face. “What is this place?” It was still obvious she didn’t exist in this space.

“We just bought it,” Steve was quick on his feet. “It came furnished and we haven’t moved all of our stuff in yet.”

Y/N seemed to believe him. “Where am I?”

“You’re away on a freelance job.”

She nodded, processing the new information.

“Would you like some clothes?” He asked her gently.

Y/N laughed lightly, apparently having forgotten that she was fully naked. 

She sniffled, trying to clear her nose and nodded.

A few minutes later, Y/N was in Steve’s sweats, sitting at his kitchen island with her own coffee cupped between her palms.

“I’m sorry – again – that I scared you into spilling coffee on yourself,” she winced.

Steve chuckled. “Y/N, believe it or not, I’ve suffered much worse injuries than hot coffee burns.”

“Right,” she smiled. “You’ve just casually been shot a few times and survived a plan crash.”

He quirked an eyebrow. “Amongst other things.”

“Amongst other things,” Y/N agreed and repeated back.

A peaceful silence settled between them.

Y/N’s eyes narrowed. “You know, I don’t believe you.”

“About the hot coffee?”

“About us not being broken up,” Y/N confirmed.

Steve just tightened his jaw. He didn’t know how much more he could lie to her.

Y/N slowly stood up and closed the distance between them. When she was in his space, she carefully reached up to brush his cheek with her thumb.

“Your eyes… they’re so sad. And they get even sadder every time you look at me.”

“We’re on a break,” Steve quickly told her. He hoped a half lie would save him.

Y/N nodded. And he knew that she believed that one.

She opened her mouth to ask more.

“Please, don’t ask me to say more about it,” Steve begged.

Y/N just nodded.

But then she stepped even closer to him. “Do you miss me?” She whispered as her gaze flickered down to his lips.

Steve’s chest hurt from the question alone. Present and future Y/N had never prepared him for having interactions like this.

He just nodded his head, knowing that if he tried to say actual words then he’d just let out some pathetic whimper.

Y/N leaned even closer. Her gaze flickered to his, silently asking him if he wanted her to stop.

But Steve didn’t have that sort of self control.

So Y/N kissed him.

And he felt her surprise when he responded with a hunger she didn’t expect.

Without hesitation, he pulled her closer. But it still wasn’t enough. Then his hands slid down the outside of her thighs and then gripped the back of them. He scooped her up and pulled her hips to his waist, holding her there until she realized she needed to wrap her legs around him. But it still wasn’t enough.

He pulled away from the kiss. “Do you want me to stop?” His words struggled while he also tried to catch his breath.

Y/N gave him a shy smile and shook her head before giving him a sweet and precise peck on the lips.

“No, I don’t.” Then she laughed, “But maybe we could move this to the bedroom.”

Even if she wasn’t his in this time period, Y/N still knew what Steve needed. And she was more than willing to give it to him. 

——————————

Steve always got this guilty feeling after sleeping with a version of Y/N that wasn’t her present self. No matter how many times Y/N told him it wasn’t, Steve could always convince a part of his mind to believe he had cheated.

Y/N had fallen asleep so quickly. It didn’t matter that she was out of her time. She always felt safe with Steve.

Meanwhile, Steve wouldn’t allow himself a second of sleep. He wasn’t going to waste a moment with Y/N by not being awake. How could he?

Instead he held her naked body against his chest. He switched back and forth between tracing the line of her spine to thumbing circles on her shoulder.

The more time he spent without Y/N in his present, the harder it was to watch her other selves leave him.

He glanced at the clock on his nightstand and sighed. He had to go to his group therapy in a few hours.

If Y/N was still here by then, he’d skip it. Lie and tell them he was sick. 

Those sessions made him feel like a mockery anyway. At least once a week, he sat in a circle and told people they needed to move on with their lives. Meanwhile, he was still in a relationship with his dead girlfriend. She was a ghost that haunted him. He lectured other people how to live their lives in a post-snap world when he couldn’t go a minute without hoping a future or past Y/N would visit him soon.

Steve was taken out of his thoughts when Y/N stirred next to him.

She wasn’t waking up; she was leaving. 

He saw her body start to fade.

There was nothing he hated seeing more than watching Y/N travel.

Was she going back to her own present? Was she going somewhere else? Would she be safe? Would this be one of her trips where she got hurt or almost killed?

And then, just like that, Y/N was gone. And Steve was alone once again.

Steve hoped his sheets would smell like her for longer than they did last time.

He should probably shower before he went to group, but he didn’t want to lose the feeling of her on his skin. He just wanted it to linger, if that was even possible.

That’s when he decided he needed more than a talk with a group of strangers. He needed a friend – a real friend – who knew what he was actually going through.

——————-

Steve hated going to the compound since the snap.

It was like going to a haunted house.

He never knew what memories would be resurrected when he visited.

Sometimes it was just the way the sun lit the room for a second or he’d catch a certain smell, then he was suddenly thrust into a memory linked to Y/N.

Steve found Nat in tears. 

It was subtle, but it still broke his heart to see her upset. She was the strongest of them all. If she couldn’t hold it together, that’s when the rest of them truly knew how bad things really were.

“Ya know, I’d offer to cook you dinner, but you seem pretty miserable already.”

“You here to do your laundry?” She teased, trying to hide that she’d lost her composure for even a second.

“And to see a friend,” he added.

“Clearly your friend is fine.”

“What if your friend is the one that’s not?” He offered.

Her forced smirk faltered. “She show up today?”

Steve sighed and nodded. “She thought we broke up. It took one look around my apartment to know she didn’t live there.”

“You’re a terrible liar, so I could only imagine how that went.”

“Well, I eventually got her to believe we were just on a break, instead of telling her that she was…”

“Dead?” Nat offered.

Steve’s jaw just tightened at the word. He moved to sit across from her.

“It’s the first time she didn’t know about it. And now I’m wondering if I prefer the version of her that doesn’t know what's going to happen to her.”

Nat just hummed, understanding what he meant.

Steve’s eyes glazed over as he thought about it. “How was she able to just live every day knowing what was going to happen?”

“She had to learn to accept what she couldn’t control awhile ago, Steve. She didn’t have any other choice.”

“Why couldn’t she tell me?” He thought aloud, frustration clear in his voice.

“Because she knew you.”

“What’s that supposed to mean?”

“You would’ve made yourself crazy trying to stop what you couldn’t. Nothing else would’ve mattered...including her.” Nat sighed. “Maybe she just wanted to embrace what little time she had with you. She can ignore the ticking of a time bomb, but not you.”

Steve knew Nat was right.

Suddenly, there was a ping and a hologram appeared in front of Nat.

She pressed a few buttons in the air and a video played out.

Next thing they knew, Scott Lang was fumbling his words at the front gate’s security camera.

Steve slowly stood up. Scott Lang was meant to be dead. “Is this an old message?”

“It’s the front gate,” Nat told him.

An hour later, Scott had stopped his pacing and explained his time travel theory.

Steve looked at Nat and immediately knew that she didn’t find Scott as crazy as he did.

But Nat had been searching for hope these past 5 years, while Steve refused to let it into his life.

“Tomorrow we’ll go see Tony,” Steve confirmed. “For now, you should get some rest, Scott.” Then he looked at Nat. “We all should.”

That was code for, ‘Don’t get excited.’

She clearly got the underlying message, but refused to ignore the hope.

—————————

Steve walked into his old room at the compound. He was only ever there when he visited Nat, which wasn’t often at all. He only kept some things there because he saw the hurt in Nat’s eyes when he had once suggested he completely clean it out.

When he turned on the light, he immediately noticed an envelope on the nightstand.

It was a letter addressed to him at the compound.

But Steve’s heart raced when he recognized the writing as Y/N’s.

“FRIDAY, where did this letter come from?” He asked the AI.

“It arrived in the mail today, Captain Rogers.”

He ripped it open instantly, his hands shaking in the process.

But there were only three words for him to read:

Listen to Scott.

Steve felt his heart beat faster.

And for the first time in 5 years, he felt hope.

-------------------------

Ya’ll, I can see the light at the end of the tunnel. 

[banyaro-eng]

[Event & Scenario] “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” START

Chapter 2 of Season 1.5! Fairy April is focusing on producing new songs after joining Avalon. Suddenly, there's some news about Crystal Cross and Judas Kiss...? Join Fairy April and save Crystal Cross from this crisis!

Details

▼ Release Date: 2018/01/15 (Mon) 17:00JST ~ onwards

Part 1.5 of the “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” will start! Chapter 2 will focus on Fairy April.

▼ Access Condition

Must clear the final chapter in “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World.”

How To Participate

You can access Part 1.5 from the banner on the home screen as long as the condition of clearing the final chapter in “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World” has been satisfied.

※ Although there is no deadline, you may only receive the Clear Reward once.

How To Play

Get “Crystals” by playing songs from different Areas listed in the Event Page. Choose the Area you want to play in and either clear the story and/or win the Duel Gig of each stage to proceed to the next stage.

You can exchange the “Crystals” for the limited edition reward card via the Shop’s “Item Exchange” section. [more info.]

You can access the event scenarios via the new section, “Episode Of Avalon” from the Stories Tab.

Event Stage Schedule

The Area Stages for “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” will be released sequentially from 2017/12/30(Sat) 00:00  JST. The new stages will be released at a schedule:

01/15(Mon) 17:00~・Shattered Crystal 01/17(Wed) 00:00~・Reason 01/19(Fri) 00:00~・Brothers 01/21(Sun) 00:00~・Regret 01/23(Tue) 00:00~・Lost Dream 01/25(Thu) 00:00~・Before the Storm 01/27(Sat) 00:00~・Truth 01/29(Mon) 00:00~・Epilogue

Past Event Scenario Limited Time Rerun

Scenarios of the events leading up to the scenario for Part 1.5 will have a re-run for a limited time only. Unopened scenarios will be available for reading during the following period:

▼ Duration: 2018/01/15 (Mon) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/30 (Mon) 12:59 JST

※ You can access the event scenarios from the “Story” tab → “Event Scenario” but will not be able to receive any reward upon clearing.

The target Event Scenario are as follows:

Advent of the Quattro Virtuoso GIGS ー Dante of the Purgatory

Anniversary GIGS ー Dreamin’ (untranslated)

On Board The Merry Christmas GIGS ー Dante is Coming To Town!

Event Reward Card

SR: Misato Toudou [The State of Loneliness]

Event Strategy

Using Fairy April members’ cards in Bands to use for LIVEs will improve overall performance.

“Shattered Twin Crystals” Limited Rare Gacha (Daily Rotation)

Duration: 2018/01/15(Mon) 17:00JST ~ 2018/01/31(Wed) 12:59JST

Line-up: EXR Yuu, EXR Show, SR Makoto Kurusu, SR Yukiho

※ SR Kurusu Makoto and SR Yukiho will be available throughout the duration of the gacha.

→ See here to read more on EXR Rarity

The gacha can use both Free and Paid Medals

It is possible to pull regular cards other than the Event limited gacha cards.

At least 1 SR or above card is guaranteed for every 10-pull

Signed cards will be discharged at a certain probability. Signs will only appear for SR cards and above and will be treated the same as non-signed, having the same stat and effects. You can admire the sign in various places.

Event limited cards might reappear during future events/campaigns.

“Shattered Twin Crystals”Rare Gacha Schedule

YUU ・1/15, 1/17, 1/19, 1/21, 1/23, 1/25, 1/27, 1/29, 1/31 SHOW ・1/16, 1/18, 1/20, 1/22, 1/24, 1/26, 1/28, 1/30

※ Please take note that the pick-up date will change at a daily basis

Featured New Cards

SSR Yuu [Create A World] Leader Skill: [Cross Drive α] Boosting all Member’s BEAT by 45% and LIFE by 15%. Additional 10% COMBO BONUS if a Show card is in the band. Main Skill: [A Ship About To Set Sail] 50% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, increasing score by 5% for each BEAT card included in the band for 6 seconds.

“Forever You” Vocals: Tsubasa Yonaga (Yuu) Lyrics, Composition, Arrangement: Eiji Kawai

SSR Show [One Step Forward] Leader Skill: [Cross Drive Ω] Boosting COMBO BONUS by 45% and All member’s LIFE by 15%. Boosting all member’s BEAT by 20% if a Yuu card is in the band. Main Skill: [Wavering Heart] 50% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, increasing score by 5% for each BEAT card included in the band for 6 seconds.

“Forever You” Vocals: Ayumu Murase (Show) Lyrics: Masamichi Nagai Composition, Arrangement: Kazuya Nishioka

SR Makoto Kurusu [Winter Gust] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP] All Member’s BEAT boosted by 30% Main Skill: [A Certain Winter’s Incident] 20% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting combo bonus by 16% for 4 seconds.

SR Yukiho [Snowflakes] Leader Skill: [ALL UP] All Member’s GROOVE/BEAT/MELODY boosted by 25% Main Skill: [救愛救愛Classics*] 20% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting combo bonus by 16% for 4 seconds.

※ Cards from this gacha are will have a max level of 90 for SSR and 75 for SR once Break.

You can check the in-game gacha/event page for more info.

*Yukiho’s card skill shall be amended as soon as I figure out what it means (rofl) If you have ideas, throw them at me.

[earthshakers1]

30 Lessons Drawn from the Miracles of Jesus - #7

#7. God is never early or late. He is always right on time. - God’s Modus Operandi

Photo by Djim Loic on Unsplash Action item: Please read the story in each section (or at least, be familiar with it), before you read the discussion under it. First of all, no one can claim to have a complete understanding of God's mode of operation. Having said that, this miracle lesson will only seek to provide some insight into God’s MO. And, hopefully, after you’re done reading, you will begin to understand why some of your prayers seem like they have not been answered. Our topic of discussion has it that God is never early or late. Now, let us define the terms, ‘early’ and ‘late,’ in the context implied here. Let me define what I mean by 'early' and 'late.' When something is done early, it is done before the time it should have been done. And when something is done late, it is done after the time it should have been done. God does not operate that way. You see, God does not keep or measure time the way we do. He will not arrive to your aid earlier or later than He intended to. The Bible tells us that with God, one day equals one thousand years, and one thousand years equals one day (2 Peter 3:8). Confusing, huh? That simply drives home the point: God's way of time measurement is not linear (that is, progressing from one stage to another), but rather non-sequential (that is, not following an obvious sequence). No one can claim to have a complete understanding of God's mode of operation; He is God, after all. However, there are numerous examples from Scripture designed by God to give us some insight into this very knowledge. And today's miracle lesson will focus on those miracles of Jesus from which we can glean this vital life lesson. The Healing of Jairus' Daughter (Mark 5:21-43) Here, we have Jesus knowing fully well that by the time He got to Jairus' house, his daughter would have died, still He took His time in the crowd, looking around, searching for the one woman whose condition was past a life-threatening stage. I mean, this woman was already healed, so she was far from being in danger of dying. Jesus couldn't find her, yet He was unwilling to continue on His journey until the woman came forward, frightened and trembling (Mark 5:32-33). He took His time to minister to this one, poor, lonely soul; never in a hurry to win one more soul over to the Kingdom. Her physical affliction was over, but her spiritual condition needed a revival. He spoke kindly to her, not like her physicians used to, but like she remembered her father used to (Mark 5:34). All this He took His time doing, knowing that the messenger who had been dispatched from the synagogue ruler's house with the sad news was already in the throng, trying to make his way to his master. Or, perhaps the messenger had arrived even before the incident with the woman, and was among those who denied touching Him (Luke 8:45). He was probably wrapped up in fascination at the way Jesus spoke tenderly to the woman, and briefly entertained the thought of becoming a student of Jesus, for he referred to Jesus as 'Teacher,' and not, 'Master,' or 'Lord' (Mark 5:35; Luke 8:49). Anyway, that was just a side dish, let's continue on to the main course. 😋 Don't get this wrong, it wasn't that Jesus was so cruel and insensitive as to allow the family of Jairus to first go through the pain of losing a daughter and a sister, just so He could show off His power over death. Nah! Rather, Jesus had a more pressing need of having a personal encounter with a lost soul. Here, we see how God prioritizes having a personal encounter/relationship with Him over receiving healing from Him. The woman had been healed even without meeting Jesus on a personal level. But Jesus knew that she needed something even more important than the healing she sought - a personal introduction to His gentle and Fatherly personality, and a hope of a new relationship with Him. Note that He told her to go, but there are a few places in Scripture which suggest that Jesus might have only been testing to see whether she would go or stay and become His disciple (Matthew 19:21-22; Luke 24:28-29). The interruption from Jairus' messenger probably caught the fancy of the writers of the Gospels that they did not specifically tell us what became of that woman in particular. Or, Luke probably did not bother including it in his Gospel account, since he had already earlier mentioned, in the beginning of the chapter, that among the women who followed Jesus were those whom He had cured of evil spirits and diseases (Luke 8:1-2). You see, as sons and daughters of the Most High, we must endeavour to be led by the Spirit of God at all times. We must always bear in mind that God is never early or late. He leads us to do things at the right timing, according to His time, and not what we perceive the right time should be. Had Jesus hurried past the woman with the issue of blood, and not stopped to attend to her so that others could hear about her sufferings at the hands of physicians, and minister to her, He would have lost an important opportunity in God's timeline. The woman would have been healed, but been too afraid to testify to how her healing came about so that others in a similar condition could hear or read about it across all ages and times, and be encouraged to have faith in God. God already approved the resurrection of Jairus' daughter, regardless of how fast or how long it took Jesus to get there. If Jesus had by-passed the woman, he would have reached Jairus' house early enough to heal his daughter, but would have missed the better miracle - raising her from the dead; one which drew more followers to God. When we are in tandem with the Holy Ghost, having Him in front and full view of us at all times, then we will never have a late or early miracle, which can be disastrous, either way. The Raising of Lazarus from the Dead (John 11:1-45) Here is another account where it seemed at first that the Lord Jesus had arrived late. Martha and Mary, the sisters of Lazarus, had first sent a message to Jesus to come to his aid while he was still alive but deathly sick - John 11:3. It appeared as though Jesus stalled (John 11:6); however, He was waiting to be led by the Spirit of God to go. It must have been the same Spirit who revealed to Him that Lazarus was dead, as no further news was sent to Him by Lazarus' sisters, yet He knew that Lazarus was gone - John 11:14. When Jesus arrived, Martha and Mary reacted the natural way for humans to react when all hope is lost; they thought that He was late - too late. Each of them said to Jesus, "Lord, if only You had been here, my brother would not have died." These were people who strongly believed in the power of God to heal through Christ. They were what we would consider staunch Christians are today - trusting completely, hoping continually, yielding unreservedly. Martha even said, "But even now I know that God will give You whatever You ask Him.” She was hoping that Jesus would ask the Father to grant her brother, Lazarus, "resurrection at the last day" (John 11:24). She did not expect what happened next - John 11:43-44 . We must endeavour to throw our all into this "faith thing," withholding nothing, trusting completely, hoping continually, yielding unreservedly. We may not know the perfect will of God concerning every single circumstance we encounter in life., still, one thing we must not do is stop praying for healing whenever we or our loved ones fall sick. It may be the will of God at that moment to call us (or them) home, yet, that is not for us to decide or try to determine. When Jesus' disciples once asked Him something regarding God's timing, He responded by saying, “You don’t get to know the time. Timing is the Father’s business. What you’ll get is the Holy Spirit. And when the Holy Spirit comes on you, you will be able to be my witnesses in Jerusalem, all over Judea and Samaria, even to the ends of the world” - Acts 1:7-8. When we become completely yielded to the Holy Spirit, by the things we do and by our devotion to Him, we would be amazed the great good and witnessing He can accomplish through our healing, death, or even physical resurrection of us or our loved ones. In the end, let us be able to say like Jesus, "Father, I thank You that You have heard Me" (John 11:41); like Job, "Though he slay me, yet will I trust in him: I will maintain my own ways before Him" (JOB 13:15, KJV); like Jeremiah, "It is good that one should both hope and quietly wait for the salvation (deliverance) of the LORD" (Lamentations 3:26). May the peace of God, which surpasses human understanding, keep our hearts and minds until the Day of our Lord Jesus Christ. Amen! Do you hear God speaking to you today through this lesson? Please, leave a comment or question; your comment/question might be a blessing to someone. You could also contact us through our contact page. Go to lessons: Intro #1 #2 #3 #4 #5 #6 Read the full article

[itswallstreetpr]

Five Cannabis Stocks for the Win (CURLF, GTBIF, TCNNF, SGMD, CRLBF)

It’s not a mystery where to find strong growth. As the bull market rages on, driven by extreme monetary and fiscal policy support amid historic challenges, the only way for investors to truly lose the game is to not play. Just about anything else has been working. But the chapter ahead will likely take a bit more nuance. The division between the pandemic plays and the rest of the market is obvious. And money managers diversifying between the two are doing well. But it’s not easy to find opportunities that have a viable long-term growth thesis but are still trading at a strong value relative to the market. One area that could become of increasing interest is in the cannabis space, where the long-term growth outlook is tremendous, but flows have yet to surge into the space. Most cannabis plays are still trading at 1-2x sales despite forward topline growth forecasts above 20% over the coming four quarters.  That’s a disposition that is increasingly rare. With that in mind, we take a look at five cannabis plays that are actively traded and continue to post strong performance data while making significant investments at a strong ROI, including: Curaleaf Holdings Inc (OTCMKTS:CURLF), Green Thumb Industries Inc (OTCMKTS:GTBIF), Trulieve Cannabis Corp (OTCMKTS:TCNNF), Sugarmade Inc (OTCMKTS:SGMD), and Cresco Labs Inc (OTCMKTS:CRLBF) Curaleaf Holdings Inc (OTCMKTS:CURLF) recently announced the launch of Curaleaf Sublingual Tablets in Florida. These cube-shaped, berry-flavored bites will provide the state's medical patients with a discreet, sugar-free yet fruity alternative form of medication. According to the release, Curaleaf's new Sublingual Tablets, which will be in 30-piece jars, contain 5mg of high-quality cannabis oil per piece, which allows patients to manage their treatment plan with confidence and ease. Each bite, which is made to be ingested orally or sublingually, is translucent in color and features a refreshing "Arctic Berry" flavor. The new product will be sold at all of the Company's 28 operating dispensaries in Florida with a phased roll-out between August 8th - August 20th. Limited quantities will be released to pre-existing loyalty patients beginning tomorrow, July 30th. Curaleaf Holdings Inc (OTCMKTS:CURLF) promulgates itself as a company that operates as an integrated medical and wellness cannabis operator in the United States. The Company is the parent of Curaleaf, Inc., a leading vertically integrated cannabis operator in the United States. Headquartered in Wakefield, Massachusetts, Curaleaf, Inc. has a presence in 12 states.  Curaleaf Inc.'s Florida operations were the first in the cannabis industry to receive the Safe Quality Food certification under the Global Food Safety Initiative, setting a new standard of excellence. It cultivates, processes, markets, and/or dispenses a range of cannabis products in various operating markets, including flower, pre-rolls and flower pods, dry-herb vaporizer cartridges, concentrates for vaporizing, concentrates for dabbing, tinctures, lozenges, capsules, and edibles.  Curaleaf Holdings Inc (OTCMKTS:CURLF) also provides non-cannabis services to licensed cannabis operators in the areas of cultivation, extraction and production, and retail operations. As of November 01, 2018, it operated a network of 29 dispensaries. The company was founded in 2010 and is headquartered in Wakefield, Massachusetts. Green Thumb Industries Inc (OTCMKTS:GTBIF) recently announced that it opened Essence South Durango, on June 27. This has been one of the fastest growing MSO’s in the wider cannabis space. According to the release, this is Green Thumb’s fifth Essence store in the Las Vegas area and 48th retail location in the nation. Profits from the first day of sales will be donated to Last Prisoner Project, a nonprofit coalition of cannabis industry leaders, executives, and artists dedicated to bringing restorative justice to the cannabis industry. Green Thumb Industries Inc (OTCMKTS:GTBIF) bills itself as a company that manufactures and sells various cannabis products in the United States. The company’s cannabis products include flower, concentrates for dabbing and vaporizing, edibles, and topicals. According to company materials, “Green Thumb Industries (GTI), a national cannabis cultivator, processor and dispensary operator, is dedicated to providing dignified access to safe and effective cannabis nationwide while giving back to the communities in which they serve. As a vertically integrated company, GTI manufactures and sells a well-rounded suite of branded cannabis products including flower, concentrates, edibles, and topicals. The company also owns and operates a rapidly growing national chain of retail cannabis stores called RISE(TM) dispensaries. Headquartered in Chicago, Illinois, GTI has seven manufacturing facilities and licenses for 50 retail locations across seven highly regulated U.S. markets. Established in 2014, GTI employs more than 350 people and serves hundreds of thousands of patients and customers each year. GTI was named a Best Workplace 2018 by Crain’s Chicago Business.” Green Thumb Industries Inc (OTCMKTS:GTBIF) markets its products through third-party retailers. It also owns and operates a chain of 50 retail stores under the RISE dispensaries name. The company was founded in 2014 and is headquartered in Chicago, Illinois. Trulieve Cannabis Corp (OTCMKTS:TCNNF) just announced the opening of its latest storefront: Tarpon Springs will be home to the Company's 53rd dispensary in the state of Florida and 55th nationwide. According to the release, situated next to Lake Tarpon, the dispensary supports Trulieve's goal of expanding and ensuring direct, reliable patient access to medical cannabis throughout the state. It also joins the Company's 52 other Florida dispensaries, including those in nearby New Port Richey, Clearwater, and Tampa. Trulieve Cannabis Corp (OTCMKTS:TCNNF) promulgates itself as a company that, through its subsidiary, Trulieve, Inc., engages in the cultivation, possession, distribution, and sale of medical cannabis in the United States. It offers a suite of Trulieve branded products with approximately 125 SKUs, including nasal sprays, capsules, concentrates, syringes, and cannabis flower in tamper-proof containers for vaporizers, topical creams, tinctures, and vape cartridges.  According to company materials, “Trulieve is a vertically integrated "seed to sale" company and is the first and largest fully licensed medical cannabis company in the State of Florida. Trulieve cultivates and produces all of its products in-house and distributes those products to Trulieve branded stores (dispensaries) throughout the State of Florida, as well as directly to patients via home delivery. Trulieve is listed on the Canadian Securities Exchange under the symbol TRUL.” Trulieve Cannabis Corp (OTCMKTS:TCNNF) distributes its products to Trulieve branded stores (dispensaries) in Florida, as well as takes orders online and by phone for delivery. As of November 20, 2018, the company operated 21 dispensaries. Trulieve Cannabis Corp. is headquartered in Quincy, Florida. Sugarmade Inc (OTCMKTS:SGMD) is in the process of expanding into the LA area for its BudCars cannabis delivery business. This is likely to be a strong source of new strategic growth for a company that has already been posting sequential monthly growth above 30% on the topline for several consecutive months after making its flagship investment in BudCars. At this point, based on recent disclosures from the company, we have a clear sense that, not only is the first LA location on track and simply awaiting some factors no doubt slowed by the pandemic – city council isn’t exactly on vacation right now. Crisis mode is the standard setting for most administrative affairs in local government around the country right now. However, the other key piece here is that the second LA BudCars location is ahead of schedule. That’s perhaps even more important here. Sugarmade Inc (OTCMKTS:SGMD) also recently issued a mid-month performance update for the month of July, which was on pace to set multiple new Company performance records at the time for sales, gross profits, and total customer orders.  According to the release, as of July 14, the Company is now on pace to meet or exceed its target of $650,000 in total sales in July, with well over 5,000 individual customer orders likely this month, suggesting that sequential month-over-month topline growth will be at or above the Company’s target 30% level. “Our BudCars Sacramento hub continues to demonstrate accelerating growth that suggests we still haven’t really found the ceiling here in terms of period-over-period upside potential,” commented Jimmy Chan, CEO of Sugarmade. “Ultimately, this is gratifying to see because we have taken a unique approach to retail cannabis product distribution.” Sugarmade Inc (OTCMKTS:SGMD) has been posting major growth updates on a regular basis over the past couple months as its BudCars model takes apparent flight. The rate of sales growth expected from the company in 2020 has walked up a steep ladder, with the latest guidance suggesting we could see it north of $30 million in annualized sales by year-end. Cresco Labs Inc (OTCMKTS:CRLBF) just announced additional actions in board refreshment and corporate governance to further strengthen its leadership in the cannabis industry, including its move to appoint Carol Vallone. According to the release, Cresco has appointed Carol Vallone to its board of directors, effective immediately. Ms. Vallone is a well-known business leader, former CEO, and corporate board director, with a strong track record in launching, scaling, and managing global companies… In the past, Ms. Vallone served as President and Chief Executive Officer of leading E-learning companies including WebCT Inc., where she grew the online learning company to cover almost two thousand institutions in seventy countries. She has also served on multiple boards at leading non-profit healthcare, public financial services, and e-commerce organizations. CRESCO LABS ORD (OTCMKTS:CRLBF) trumpets itself as a company that manufactures and sells medical cannabis products in the United States. It offers cannabis dry flower; vaporizer forms of cannabis; cannabis oil in capsule, oral and sublingual solutions; cannabis in topical; and other cannabis products.  The company also provides cannabis infused edibles, including chocolate and toffee confections, fruit-forward gummies, and hard sweet and chews. Cresco Labs Inc. sells its products under the Cresco brand.  Cresco Labs Inc (OTCMKTS:CRLBF) operates a Hope Heal Health dispensary in Fall River, Bristol County, Massachusetts.  Read the full article

[edwardsherwood-blog]

Test Bank Database Processing 11th Edition

For Order This And Any Other Test

 Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,

 Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,

 Contact us At: johnmate1122@gmail.com

   Database Processing, 11e (Kroenke)

Chapter 1:  Introduction

 1) The purpose of a database is to help people keep track of things.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 3

 2) In a database, each table stores data about a different type of thing.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 3

 3) In a database, each row in a spreadsheet has data about a particular instance.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

 4) In every database, not just the databases discussed in this book, table names are capitalized.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

 5) A database shows data in tables and the relationships among the rows in those tables.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 4

 6) Data is recorded facts and figures; information is knowledge derived from data.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 5

 7) Databases record data in such a way that they can produce information.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 6

 8) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is an example of a data mining application.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 6-7

 9) Small databases typically have simple structures.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 8

 10) Microsoft Access is a low-end product intended for individuals and small workgroups.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 14

 11) Applications are computer programs used directly by users.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 8

 12) Sequenced Query Language (SQL) is an internationally recognized standard language that is understood by all commercial database management system products.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8

13) A database management system (DBMS) creates, processes and administers databases.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 11

 14) Microsoft Access is just a DBMS.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 13

 15) The DBMS engine in Microsoft Access is called Jet.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 14

 16) In Microsoft Access, you can use the Oracle DBMS in place of the Jet DBMS.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 14

 17) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application interacts with the DBMS.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 18) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application accesses the database data.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 19) In an Enterprise-class database system, business users interact directly with the DBMS, which directly accesses the database data.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 20) All database applications get and put database data by sending SQL statements to the DBMS.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 9

 21) The DBMS ranked as having the "most power and features" in the text is IBM's DB2.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17

 22) The DBMS ranked as being the "most difficult to use" in the text is Oracle Corporation's Oracle Database.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17

 23) The DBMS ranked as being the "easiest to use" in the text is Microsoft's SQL Server.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17

 24) The DBMS ranked as having the "least power and features" in the text is Microsoft Access.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17

25) A database is called "self-describing" because it reduces data duplication.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 12

 26) The description of a database's structure that is stored within the database itself is called the "metadata."

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 12 Fig 1-14

 27) In a database processing system, indexes are held by the database management system (DBMS).

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 11 Fig 1-12

 28) Database design is important, but fortunately it is simple to do.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 16

 29) A database design may be a new systems development project.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 30) A database design is rarely a redesign of an existing database.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 31) Information systems that stored groups of records in separate files were called file processing systems.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 19-20 Fig 1-25

 32) Data Language/I (DL/I) structured data relationships as a tree structure.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 21 Fig 1-25

 33) The CODASYL DBTG mode structured data relationships as a tree structure.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 22 Fig 1-25

 34) The relational model was first proposed in 1970 by E. F. Codd at IBM.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 22

 35) The 1977 edition of this text contained a chapter on the relational model, and that chapter was reviewed by E. F. Codd.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 22

 36) dBase was the first PC-based DBMS to implement true relational algebra on a PC.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 23

37) Paradox is the only major survivor of the "bloodbath of PC DBMS products."

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 23

 38) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database systems because the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high.

Answer: FALSE

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 23

 39) Bill Gates has said that "XML is the lingua-franca of the Internet Age."

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 24

 40) XML Web services allow database processing to be shared across the Internet.

Answer: TRUE

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 24

 41) The purpose of a database is to:

A) help people keep track of things.

B) store data in tables.

C) create tables of rows and columns.

D) maintain data on different things in different tables.

E) All of the above.

Answer: A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

 42) A database stores:

A) data.

B) relationships.

C) metadata.

D) A and B

E) A, B and C

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3-4 and 12

 43) A database records:

A) facts.

B) figures.

C) information.

D) A and B

E) A, B and C

Answer: D

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

44) A sales contact manager used by a salesperson is an example of a(n) ________.

A) single-user database application

B) multiuser database application

C) e-commerce database application

D) A or B

E) Any of A, B or C

Answer: A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8 and Fig 1-5

 45) A Customer Resource Management (CRM) system is an example of a(n) ________.

A) single-user database application

B) multiuser database application

C) e-commerce database application

D) A or B

E) Any of A, B or C

Answer: B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8 and  Fig 1-5

 46) An online drugstore such as Drugstore.com is an example of a(n) ________.

A) single-user database application

B) multiuser database application

C) e-commerce database application

D) A or B

E) Any of A, B or C

Answer: C

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 7 Fig 1-5

 47) The industry standard supported by all major DBMSs that allows tables to be joined together is called ________.

A) Sequential Query Language (SQL)

B) Structured Question Language (SQL)

C) Structured Query Language (SQL)

D) Relational Question Language (RQL)

E) Relational Query Language (RQL)

Answer: C

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 8

 48) A program whose job is to create, process and administer databases is called the ________.

A) Database Modeling System

B) Database Management System

C) Data Business Model System

D) Relational Model Manager

E) Data Business Management Service

Answer: B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8

49) Microsoft Access includes:

A) a DBMS.

B) an application generator.

C) a Web server.

D) A and B

E) A, B and C

Answer: D

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 13 Fig 1-15

 50) Microsoft Access may use which of the following DBMS engines?

A) Jet

B) SQL Server

C) Oracle

D) A and B

E) A, B and C

Answer: D

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 14

 51) Which of the following are basic components of an enterprise-class database system?

A) The user

B) The database application

C) The database management system (DBMS)

D) The database

E) All of the above

Answer: E

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 52) In an enterprise-class database system ________.

A) the database application(s) interact(s) with the DBMS

B) the database application(s) access(es) the database data

C) the DBMS accesses the database data

D) A and B

E) A and C

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 53) In an enterprise-class database system, the database application ________.

A) creates queries

B) creates forms

C) creates reports

D) A and B

E) B and C

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

54) In an enterprise-class database system, reports are created by ________.

A) the user

B) the database application

C) the database management system (DBMS)

D) the database

E) All of the above

Answer: B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 55) A database is considered "self-describing" because ________.

A) all the users' data is in one place

B) it reduces data duplication

C) it contains a description of its own structure

D) it contains a listing of all the programs that use it

E) All of the above

Answer: C

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 12

 56) In an enterprise-class database system, the database ________.

A) holds user data

B) holds metadata

C) holds indexes

D) holds stored procedures

E) All of the above

Answer: E

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14

 57) A database may contain ________.

A) tables

B) metadata

C) triggers

D) stored procedures

E) All of the above

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14

 58) A database may be designed ________.

A) from existing data

B) as a new systems development project

C) as a redesign of an existing database

D) A and B

E) A, B, and C

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-18

59) A database designed using spreadsheets from the Sales department is a database being designed ________.

A) from existing data

B) as a new systems development project

C) as a redesign of an existing database

D) A and B

E) A, B, and C

Answer: A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 60) A database designed to implement requirements for a reporting application needed by the Sales department is a database being designed ________.

A) from existing non-database data

B) as a new systems development project

C) as a redesign of an existing database

D) A and B

E) A, B, and C

Answer: B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 61) A database designed to combine two databases used by the Sales department is a database being designed ________.

A) from existing data

B) as a new systems development project

C) as a redesign of an existing database

D) A and B

E) A, B, and C

Answer: C

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 62) Database professionals use ________ as specific data sources for studies and analyses.

A) data marts

B) normalization

C) data models

D) entity-relationship data modeling

E) data migration

Answer: A

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 19-20

 63) Database professionals use a set of principles called ________ to guide and assess database design.

A) data marts

B) normalization

C) data models

D) entity-relationship data modeling

E) data migration

Answer: B

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 17

64) A very popular development technique used by database professionals for database design is known as ________.

A) data marts

B) normalization

C) data models

D) entity-relationship data modeling

E) data migration

Answer: D

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 17-18

 65) A very popular development technique used by database professionals to adopt a database design to a new or changing requirement is known as ________.

A) data marts

B) normalization

C) data models

D) entity-relationship data modeling

E) data migration

Answer: E

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 18-19

 66) The predecessor(s) of database processing was (were) ________.

A) file managers

B) hierarchical models

C) network models

D) relational data model

E) All of the above were predecessors of database processing.

Answer: A

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 20-23

 67) The relational model ________.

A) was first proposed in 1970

B) was developed by E. F. Codd

C) was developed at IBM

D) resulted in the DBMS product DB2

E) All of the above

Answer: E

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 22-23

 68) Modern microcomputer personal DBMS products ________.

A) are supplied by several well-established manufacturers

B) were essentially killed off by MS Access

C) have poor response time

D) are not true DBMS products

E) are really just programming languages with generalized file-processing capabilities

Answer: B

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 22-23

69) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database management systems because ________.

A) object-oriented programming uses simplified data structures that fit easily into relational databases

B) the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high

C) the cost of converting data from relational databases to OODBMSs is too high

D) most large organizations have older applications that are not based on object oriented programming

E) C and D

Answer: E

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 23

 70) For database development, the most important Web-related technology to emerge in recent years is:

A) FTP.

B) HTTP.

C) XML.

D) OODBMS.

E) All of the above.

Answer: C

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 23-24

 71) The purpose of a database is to ________.

Answer: help people keep track of things

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 3

 72) In a database, each ________ stores data about a different type of thing.

Answer: table

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 3

 73) In a database, each ________ in a database has data about a particular instance.

Answer: table

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

 74) In the databases discussed in this book, table names are ________.

Answer: capitalized

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3

 75) A database shows data in tables and ________ among the rows of those tables.

Answer: the relationships

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 4

 76) ________ is recorded facts and figures; ________ is knowledge derived from data.

Answer: Data; information

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 3 and 5-6

 77) Databases record ________ in such a way that they can produce ________.

Answer: data; information

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 6

78) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is an example of a ________.

Answer: multiuser database

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 6-7 Fig 1-5

 79) ________ do not necessarily have simple structures.

Answer: Small databases

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 8

 80) Computer programs used directly by users are called ________.

Answer: applications

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 8

 81) ________ is an internationally recognized standard language that is understood by all commercial database management system products.

Answer: Structured Query Language (SQL)

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8

 82) A ________ is used to create, process and administer databases.

Answer: database management system (DBMS)

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 8

 83) ________ is a DBMS combined with an application generator.

Answer: Microsoft Access

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 13-14

 84) In an enterprise-class database system, a ________ interacts with the DBMS.

Answer: database application

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 85) All database applications get and put database data by sending ________ to the DBMS.

Answer: SQL statements

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16

 86) The DBMS ranked as having the "most power and features" in the text is ________.

Answer: Oracle database

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 11

 87) The DBMS ranked as being the "easiest to use" in the text is ________.

Answer: Microsoft Access

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16

 88) A database is called ________ because it contains a description of itself.

Answer: "self-describing"

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 12

 89) ________ is the description of a database's structure that is stored within the database itself.

Answer: Metadata

Diff: 1             Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-13

90) In an enterprise-class database system, indexes are held by the ________.

Answer: database

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14

 91) Business information systems that stored groups of records in separate files were called ________.

Answer: file processing systems

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 20-21 Fig 1-25

 92) Data Language/I (DL/I) structured data relationships in a data structure known as a ________.

Answer: tree structure

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 21-22 Fig 1-25

 93) The CODSYL DBTG mode structured data relationships in a data structure known as a ________.

Answer: network

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 22 Fig 1-25

 94) The relational model was first proposed in 1970 by ________ at IBM.

Answer: E. F. Codd

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 22

 95) The 1977 edition of this text was the first edition of this book that contained a description of the ________.

Answer: relational model

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 20

 96) ________ was the first PC based DBMS to implement true relational algebra on a PC.

Answer: R:base

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 23

 97) ________ is the only major survivor of the "bloodbath of PC DBMS products."

Answer: Microsoft Access

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 23

 98) Business organizations have resisted adopting ________ because of the difficulty of converting existing databases.

Answer: object-oriented database management systems (OODBMSs)

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 23

 99) ________ has said that "XML is the lingua-franca of the Internet Age."

Answer: Bill Gates

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 24

 100) ________ allow database processing to be shared across the Internet.

Answer: XML Web services

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 24

101) What is the purpose of a database, and how does the database accomplish this purpose?

Answer: The purpose of a database is to help people keep track of things. It accomplishes this purpose by storing data in tables. Each table has rows and columns, similar to a spreadsheet. A database usually has multiple tables in order to keep track of different but related things. For example, we might have a CUSTOMER table to keep track of customers and a PRODUCT table to keep track of the things we sell. Each row in each table holds data about a particular instance, i.e., one customer or one product. The database also stores the links between the tables, so that we can track which customers bought which products (note: this will require an additional table if one customer can buy more than one product and one product can be sold to more than one customer).

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 3-5

 102) What are the four components of a database system?

Answer: The four components in a database system are: the user, the database application, the database management system (DBMS) and the database. The user interacts with the database application, which interacts with the DBMS, which controls the database. The functions of the database application include creating and processing forms, creating and transmitting queries and creating and processing reports. The DBMS creates databases, tables and supporting structures, manages database data, enforces rules and provides security. The database stores the user data, the database metadata, indexes, triggers, stored procedures and application metadata.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 8-13

 103) Briefly describe the function of an application program in a database system.

Answer:  The application program is responsible for creating and processing forms. The application displays the form to the user, allows the user to complete the data entry, evaluates the form to determine which data management tasks need to be performed, and transmits the appropriate requests to the DBMS. The application creates and transmits queries. The queries are requests for data that are created in a language like SQL, and transmitted to the DBMS to have the requested data returned to the application program. The application also creates and processes reports. The query to retrieve the necessary data for the report is sent to the DBMS. When the DBMS returns the needed data, the application manipulates it as necessary to create the requested report. The application program also applies application logic to control the manipulation of data in accordance with the business rules. Finally, the application program is responsible for providing control. Control must be exercised to allow the users to make choices for functions and tasks as appropriate for their jobs. Also, control must be exercised to manage the activities of the DBMS.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 9-11

 104) What components are included in a database?

Answer:  The database contains user data, metadata, indexes and other overhead data, and application metadata. User data is the data from the user's environment that they want to track. Metadata is data about the structure of the database. Indexes and other overhead data are structures that the database uses to improve performance. Finally, the application metadata is data about forms, reports, and other application components that some databases, particularly those created with desktop DBMS products, store with the database.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 13-14

105) Why do we say a database is "self-describing" and why is this an advantage?

Answer: A database is considered self-describing because it contains a description of its own structure within the database itself. This description is called the metadata, and it is stored in specialized tables in relational databases. The advantage is that the database is self-documenting, and that a knowledgeable user or a database designer can easily access the metadata. All DBMS vendors provide tools to access the metadata within their products.

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 12-13

 106) What is "metadata" and how does it relate to the definition of a database?

Answer: Metadata is data about the structure of the database itself. This includes data about the names of all the tables in the database, the names of all the columns in each of the tables, the data type of each column in each table, the properties of the tables and the columns, etc. Metadata accounts for the "self-describing" aspect of the definition of a database as a "self-describing collection of integrated tables."

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 12-13

 107) Briefly describe the function of the DBMS in a database system.

Answer:  The DBMS creates the database and the tables and structures within it. The DBMS also reads and updates the database data. It receives requests from application programs to perform data maintenance tasks. These requests are translated into actions that are performed on the database. In addition to maintaining the user data within the database, the DBMS also maintains the database structures. The DBMS also enforces any rules that have been defined to govern the values of the data, such as data type requirements and referential integrity constraints. The DBMS controls concurrency issues, which deal with the unwanted interruption of one user's work by another user's work. As the only point of entry into the database, the DBMS also provides security for the database to restrict users' access to only the data that they have authority to read or modify. Finally, the DBMS is responsible for the creation of backup copies of the database data and for restoring the database in case a recovery is required.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 11-12

 108) What are "referential integrity constraints"?  Give an example.

Answer:  A referential integrity constraint is a rule that restricts certain actions on the database data. A referential integrity constraint is used to ensure that the values in a field in one table have matching tables in a corresponding field in another table. These constraints are enforced by the DBMS, which will not allow changes to the values of the database that would result in violations of this rule. For example, a database has an EMPLOYEE table and a VEHICLE table that are used to store data on employees and the vehicles that they are assigned to drive. The EMPLOYEE table has a column called EmployeeID that is used to distinguish one employee record from another. The VEHICLE table also has an EmployeeID column that is used to associate a vehicle with the appropriate employee. A referential integrity constraint could be used to prevent a vehicle from being assigned to an employee with an EmployeeID that does not appear in the EMPLOYEE table by requiring that all values in EmployeeID in the VEHICLE table have a matching value in EmployeeID in the EMPLOYEE table.

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 11

109) What are the three types of database design situations?

Answer: Database designs can be based on (1) existing data, (2) new systems development and (3) database redesign. Database designs from existing data may be based on data in spreadsheets or other data tables, or on data extracted from other databases. New systems development gathers user requirements for needed applications and designs a database to meet those requirements. Database redesign may be needed to migrate existing databases to a newer DBMS, or to integrate multiple existing databases.

Diff: 2             Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18

 110) Briefly describe the history of database processing.

Answer: The predecessor of database processing was file processing, where data were maintained on magnetic tape. Database processing as we know it today became possible with the availability of direct access disk storage in the 1960s. Using this storage, both the hierarchical data model and then the network data model were developed. In 1970, E. F. Codd of IBM proposed the relational model, which is the standard model used today. Current DBMSs such as DB2, Oracle and SQL Server are based on the relational model. The appearance of microcomputer based DBMSs, in the 1980s led to a "bloodbath" from which Microsoft Access emerged as the dominant PC workstation DBMS. More recent events include the introduction of object-oriented DBMSs (OODBMSs), and the development of tools such as XML to allow the use of database systems over the Internet.

Diff: 3             Page Ref: 18-22 Fig 1-18

[felicia1mallet-blog]

Test Bank Evolutionary Analysis 5th Edition

For Order This And Any Other Test

 Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,

 Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,

 Contact us At: johnmate1122@gmail.com

    Chapter 1   A Case for Evolutionary Thinking: Understanding HIV

 1) In which of the following regions has AIDS killed the largest number of individuals?

A) India

B) Sub-Saharan Africa

C) United States

D) China

E) United Kingdom

Answer:  B

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 2) The HIV virus contains all of the following components except ________.

A) integrase

B) double-stranded RNA

C) single-stranded RNA

D) reverse transcriptase

E) protease

Answer:  B

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 3) The acronym HIV stands for which of the following?

A) human intercellular virus

B) human immune virus

C) human immunodeficiency virus

D) human immunity virus

E) human immunodeficiency vector

Answer:  C

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 4) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for transcribing viral RNA into DNA?

A) RNA polymerase

B) reverse transcriptase

C) DNA polymerase

D) reverse integrase

E) RNA duplicase

Answer:  B

Section:  1.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

5) The proteins that enable the HIV virus to bind to cells are typically CD4 and CCR5. On what type of cells are these proteins typically observed?

A) plasma cells

B) dendritic cells

C) effector helper T cells

D) memory helper T cells

E) both C and D

Answer:  E

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 6) The AIDS phase of HIV infection begins when the concentration of CD4 T cells in the blood drops below what concentration?

A) 2,000 cells per cubic millimeter

B) 1,000 cells per cubic millimeter

C) 500 cells per cubic millimeter

D) 200 cells per cubic millimeter

E) No CD4 T cells are observed.

Answer:  D

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 7) Which of the following drug categories are used to treat HIV infections?

A) integrase inhibitors

B) protease inhibitors

C) reverse transcriptase inhibitors

D) DNAse inhibitors

E) fusion inhibitors

Answer:  D

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 8) Coreceptor inhibitors block HIV infection by preventing which of the following?

A) binding of the HIV virion onto the plasma membrane

B) binding of the HIV virion onto the CCR5 receptor

C) binding of the HIV virion onto the gp120 protein

D) degrading the coreceptor so the virion cannot attach

E) binding of the HIV virion onto the CD4 receptor

Answer:  B

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 9) What is the effect of the ∆32 allele of CCR5 on HIV binding?

A) appears on the surface of CD4 T cells, but the HIV virion is unable to infect the host cell

B) does not appear on the surface of CD4 T cells

C) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and inactivates the virion upon binding

D) interferes with binding of the virion to the CD4 receptor protein

E) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and causes the virion to lyse upon binding

Answer:  B

Section:  1.3

Skill: Application/Analysis

10) The ∆32 allele of CCR5 is found at the highest frequency in which of the following populations?

A) Africans

B) Japanese

C) North Americans

D) Europeans

E) South Americans

Answer:  D

Section:  1.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 11) HIV-1 is believed to have been transmitted to humans from which of the following organisms?

A) gorillas

B) sooty mangabeys

C) African green monkeys

D) chimpanzees

E) baboons

Answer:  D

Section:  1.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 12) HIV-1 Group M is responsible for 95% of human infections. When is it estimated that HIV-1 Group M was transferred to humans?

A) 1980

B) 1960

C) 1930

D) 1995

E) 1900

Answer:  C

Section:  1.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 13) Antibodies and killer T cells recognize HIV or HIV-infected cells by binding to short pieces of viral proteins displayed on the virus or the infected host cell. These short pieces of viral proteins are called ________.

A) coat proteins

B) virosomes

C) proteosomes

D) epitopes

E) episomes

Answer:  D

Section:  1.5

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Tetherin is an important protein produced by the host. What is the function of tetherin in protecting a host cell from HIV?

A) ties maturing virions to the membrane of the host cell, thereby preventing the release of the mature virus

B) binds the virus to the external host cell membrane, thereby preventing the virus from entering the host cell

C) binds the viral RNA to reverse transcriptase, thus preventing synthesis of the viral DNA

D) binds the two viral RNA strands together, thus preventing the transcription of viral DNA in the host cell

E) causes the maturing virions to aggregate together, thus preventing their release from the host cell

Answer:  A

Section:  1.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 15) Early in the infection with HIV, most virions bind to the host cell using CCR5 as a coreceptor. As the infection progresses, the HIV population evolves to use an alternate coreceptor. What is the alternate coreceptor these X4 viruses utilize?

A) Tetherin

B) CCR5α

C) vpu

D) TRIM5α

E) CXCR4

Answer:  E

Section:  1.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 16) In what region of the world is the incidence of infection with HIV highest?

Answer:  Sub-Saharan Africa

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 17) Originally, HIV was thought to be restricted to transmission during homosexual contact between gay men. List other ways in which HIV is currently known to be transmitted.

Answer:  HIV can be transmitted by heterosexual sex, oral sex, needle sharing, transfusion with contaminated blood products, other unsafe medical procedures, childbirth and breast-feeding.

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 18) What does the acronym AIDS stand for?

Answer:  Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 19) What viral coat protein typically binds first to the CD4 receptor on helper T cells?

Answer:  gp120

Section:  1.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

20) When AZT is used to treat HIV infections, why does resistance to AZT usually develop?

Answer:  Mutations present in the viral population, due to the lack of proofreading and high error rate of the viral reverse transcriptase, enable mutant virions to discriminate against the incorporation of AZT during transcription.

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 21) It has been observed that viral particles often revert (back mutate to non-AZT-resistant populations when treatment with AZT is discontinued. What is the most likely reason for this observation?

Answer:  There is no more selective pressure applied to the viral population, and in the absence of AZT the viral particles that reproduce most efficiently have not evolved enough to have the ability to discriminate against AZT.

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 22) What is the molecular mechanism by which reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT, prevent viral replication?

Answer:  These molecules are analogues of the nucleotide building blocks of DNA, and typically prevent binding or elongation of the of the transcribed DNA molecule.

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 23) In what host cell protein is the Δ32 mutation found, and what type of mutation is this?

Answer:  The Δ32 mutation is found in the CCR5 coreceptor on CD4 helper T cells, and is a 32-base pair deletion.

Section:  1.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 24) Explain the phylogenetic relationship between humans, chimpanzees, and monkeys in the transmission of the current predominant deadly strain in humans, HIV-1.

Answer:  HIV-1 is believed to have originated in monkeys as an SIV (simian immunodeficiency virus); SIV was passed from monkeys to chimpanzees, and SIV was passed to and mutated into HIV-1 sometime around 1930.

Section:  1.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 25) Explain the mechanism HIV uses to avoid destruction by antibodies present in the human immune system.

Answer:  The virus is constantly mutating its surface proteins, and these frequent changes in epitopes on the viral surface prevent the host cell from being able to recognize the virus over time.

Section:  1.5

Skill: Application/Analysis

26) Following long periods of infection with HIV, an X4 strain often evolves. What evolutionary advantage does the X4 strain confer on the viral population, and what specific protein does this strain interact with?

Answer:  The evolutionary advantage of this strain is that it can infect a different population of T cells. The alternate population of T cells contains the coreceptor CXCR4 instead of the CCR5 coreceptor.

Section:  1.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 27) What is the function of the product of the viral gene vpu in human infections of HIV?

Answer:  The viral gene vpu (in a similar manner to the viral protein nef) blocks the action of the host protein tetherin, which normally adheres to viral particles and attaches them to the host cell membrane and prevents their release.

Section:  1.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 28) What steps are involved in producing the HIV GP120 protein? List all processes and host cellular structures involved from the point of initial infection with viral RNA to the production of the mature virion outside of the host cell.

Section:  1.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 29) Highly active antiretroviral therapies (HAART) have become the treatment method of choice in treating human HIV infections. What is required for a treatment to be classified as HAART, and why have these treatments proven so effective in the treatment of HIV infections?

Section:  1.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 30) If an individual is infected with HIV that goes undetected and untreated, the infection follows a standard clinical course of progression. Explain the three sequential phases of untreated HIV infection, the approximate times over which these phases occur, and the corresponding levels of both HIV RNA and CD4 T cells circulating in the host bloodstream.

Section:  1.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

[jim1stewart-blog]

ACC 564 Quiz 3 – Strayer New

ACC 564 Week 8 Quiz 3 Chapter 10 Through 13

 Click On The Link Below To Purchase

Instant Download

 http://www.budapp.net/ACC-564-Quiz-3-Strayer-New-ACC564Q3.htm

 Chapter 10   Information Systems Controls for Systems ReliabilityPart 3: Processing Integrity and Availability

 1) The best example of a hash total for a payroll transaction file could be

A) total of employees' social security numbers.

B) sum of net pay.

C) total number of employees.

D) sum of hours worked.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 2) Error logs and review are an example of

A) data entry controls.

B) data transmission controls.

C) output controls.

D) processing controls.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

3) Following is the result of batch control totals on employee Social Security Numbers in a payroll processing transaction:

 Correct Values  From Masterfile

Values Entered  During Processing

487358796

487358796

534916487

534916487

498374526

498374526

514873420

514873420

534196487

534916487

678487853

678487853

471230589

471230589

3719438158

3720158158

 The difference in the control totals is 720,000. Which data entry control would best prevent similar data entry errors in the future?

A) Modulus 11

B) Validity check

C) Check digit

D) Sequence check

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 4) Which of the following data entry controls would not be useful if you are recording the checkout of library books by members?

A) Sequence check

B) Prompting

C) Validity check

D) Concurrent update control

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

5) A customer failed to include her account number on her check, and the accounts receivable clerk credited her payment to a different customer with the same last name. Which control could have been used to most effectively to prevent this error?

A) Closed-loop verification

B) Duplicate values check

C) Validity check

D) Reconciliation of a batch control total

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 6) If invoices are processed in groups of fifty, which fields from the document shown below would not be used to create a hash control total?

A) Amount

B) Item Number

C) Quantity Ordered

D) Sales Order number

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 7) A data entry input control in which the application software sums the first four digits of a customer number to calculate the value of the fifth digit and then compares the calculated number to the number typed in during data entry is an example of a

A) check digit verification.

B) validity check.

C) closed-loop verification.

D) duplicate data check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 8) All of the following controls for online entry of a sales order would be useful except

A) check digit verification on the dollar amount of the order.

B) validity check on the inventory item numbers.

C) field check on the customer ID and dollar amount of the order.

D) concurrent update control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 9) A specific inventory record indicates that there were 12 items on hand before a customer brings two of the items to the check stand to be purchased. The cashier accidentally entered quantity 20 instead of 2. Which data entry control would best have prevented this error?

A) sign check

B) limit check

C) validity check

D) field check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

10) When processing weekly payroll, an employee accidentally entered 400 for hours worked. The best data entry control for this error would be

A) a limit check.

B) a check digit.

C) batch total reconciliation.

D) a field check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 11) The data entry control that would best prevent entering an invoice received from a vendor who is not on an authorized supplier list is

A) a validity check.

B) an authorization check.

C) a check digit.

D) closed-loop verification.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 12) Forms design is an example of this type of control.

A) Data entry control

B) Processing control

C) Output control

D) Input control

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 13) Sequentially prenumbered forms is an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) processing control.

D) input control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

14) Turnaround documents are an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) output control.

C) processing control.

D) input control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 15) A validity check is an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) output control.

D) input control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 16) Parity checks are an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) output control.

D) processing control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 279

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 17) User reviews are an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) output control.

D) processing control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 278

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

18) Data matching is an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) processing control.

D) input control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 19) Batch totals are an example of a(n)

A) data entry control.

B) data transmission control.

C) output control.

D) processing control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 20) Cancellation and storage of documents means that

A) data are copied from a document and stored, after which the document is shredded.

B) documents are defaced before being shredded.

C) documents are defaced and stored.

D) cancellation data are copied from documents before they are stored.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 21) Check digit verification is an example of a(n)

A) data transmission control.

B) output control.

C) processing control.

D) input control.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

22) This ensures that the input data will fit into the assigned field.

A) Limit check

B) Range check

C) Size check

D) Validity check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 23) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value nor fall below another predetermined value.

A) Completeness check

B) Field check

C) Limit check

D) Range check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 24) This determines if all required data items have been entered.

A) Completeness check

B) Field check

C) Limit check

D) Range check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 25) This determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items.

A) Range check

B) Reasonableness test

C) Sign check

D) Size check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

26) This determines if characters are of the proper type.

A) Field check

B) Alpha-numeric check

C) Range check

D) Reasonableness test

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 27) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value.

A) Completeness check

B) Limit check

C) Range check

D) Sign check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 28) This batch processing data entry control sums a field that contains dollar values.

A) Record count

B) Financial total

C) Hash total

D) Sequence check

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 29) This batch processing data entry control sums a non-financial numeric field.

A) Record count

B) Financial total

C) Hash total

D) Sequence check

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

30) When I enter a correct customer number, the data entry screen displays the customer name and address. This is an example of

A) prompting.

B) preformatting.

C) closed-loop verification.

D) error checking.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 31) This control ensures that the correct and most current files are being updated.

A) Cross-footing balance test

B) Data matching

C) File labels

D) Write-protect mechanism

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 32) This batch processing data entry control sums the number of items in a batch.

A) Financial total

B) Hash total

C) Record count

D) Sequence check

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 33) This data entry control compares the ID number in transaction data to a master file to verify that the ID number exists.

A) Reasonableness test

B) User review

C) Data matching

D) Validity check

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

34) File labels are an example of

A) data entry controls.

B) output controls.

C) processing controls.

D) source data controls.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 35) A computer operator accidentally used the wrong master file when updating a transaction file. As a result, the master file data is now unreadable. Which control could best have prevented this from happening?

A) Internal header label

B) Validity check

C) Check digit

D) Parity check

Answer:

Page Ref: 277

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 36) Chaz Finnerty called the IT Help Desk in a huff. "I'm trying to open an Excel file and I get a message that says that the file is locked for editing. What's going on?" The answer is likely that

A) the file is corrupted due to a computer virus.

B) there is no problem. Chaz is editing the file, so it is locked.

C) concurrent update controls have locked the file.

D) Chaz probably opened the file as read-only.

Answer:

Page Ref: 278

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

37) This control protects records from errors that occur when two or more users attempt to update the same record simultaneously.

A) Concurrent update controls

B) Cross-footing balance test

C) Data conversion controls

D) Recalculation of batch totals

Answer:

Page Ref: 278

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 38) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to sell more shares of a stock than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a

A) reasonableness test.

B) field check.

C) validity check.

D) limit check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 39) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to spend more money than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a

A) reasonableness test.

B) field check.

C) validity check.

D) limit check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 276

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

40) The Spontaneous Combustion Rocket Shoppe in downtown Fargo, North Dakota, generates three quarters of its revenue from orders taken over the Internet. The revenue clearing account is debited by the total of cash and credit receipts and credited by the total of storefront and Internet sales. This is an example of a

A) data integrity test.

B) zero-balance test.

C) trial balance audit.

D) cross-footing balance test.

Answer:

Page Ref: 278

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 41) What is the most effective way to ensure information system availability?

A) High bandwidth

B) Maintain a hot site

C) Maintain a cold site

D) Frequent backups

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 42) Concerning system availability, which of the following statements is true?

A) Human error does not threaten system availability.

B) Proper controls can maximize the risk of threats causing significant system downtime.

C) Threats to system availability can be completely eliminated.

D) Threats to system availability include hardware and software failures as well as natural and man-made disasters.

Answer:

Page Ref: 284

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

43) Which of the following is not an objective of a disaster recovery plan?

A) Minimize the extent of the disruption, damage or loss.

B) Permanently establish an alternative means of processing information.

C) Resume normal operations as soon as possible.

D) Train employees for emergency operations.

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 44) Which item below would not typically be part of an adequate disaster recovery plan?

A) a system upgrade due to operating system software changes

B) uninterruptible power systems installed for key system components

C) scheduled electronic vaulting of files

D) backup computer and telecommunication facilities

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 45) A facility that contains all the computing equipment the organization needs to perform its essential business activities is known as a

A) cold site.

B) hot site.

C) remote site.

D) subsidiary location.

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 46) A facility that is pre-wired for necessary telecommunications and computer equipment, but doesn't have equipment installed, is known as a

A) cold site.

B) hot site.

C) remote site.

D) subsidiary location.

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

47) When a computer system's files are automatically duplicated on a second data storage system as they are changed, the process is referred to as

A) real-time mirroring.

B) batch updating.

C) consistency control.

D) double-secure storage.

Answer:

Page Ref: 287

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 48) ________ enables a system to continue functioning in the event that a particular component fails.

A) An incremental backup procedure

B) Fault tolerance

C) Preventive maintenance

D) A concurrent update control

Answer:

Page Ref: 284

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 49) A copy of a database, master file, or software that will be retained indefinitely as a historical record is known as a(n)

A) archive.

B) cloud computing.

C) differential backup.

D) incremental backup.

Answer:

Page Ref: 286

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

50) While this type of backup process takes longer than the alternative, restoration is easier and faster.

A) Archive

B) Cloud computing

C) Differential backup

D) Incremental backup

Answer:

Page Ref: 286

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 51) ________ involves copying only the data items that have changed since the last partial backup.

A) Archive

B) Cloud computing

C) Differential backup

D) Incremental backup

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 52) ________ copies all changes made since the last full backup.

A) Archive

B) Cloud computing

C) Differential backup

D) Incremental backup

Answer:

Page Ref: 286

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 53) The maximum amount of time between backups is determined by a company's

A) recovery time objective.

B) recovery point objective.

C) recovery objective.

D) maximum time recovery objective.

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

54) The maximum acceptable down time after a computer system failure is determined by a company's

A) recovery time objective.

B) recovery point objective.

C) recovery objective.

D) maximum time recovery objective.

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 55) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 12,500 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 25,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 120 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) 4 hours

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 56) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 10,000 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 20,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 60 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) 4 hours

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

57) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 10,000 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 40,000 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore

A) 40,000 transactions

B) 10,000 transactions

C) 10 hours

D) 4 hours

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 58) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 12,500 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 25,000 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore

A) 25,000 transactions

B) 12,500 transactions

C) 1 hour

D) 2 hours

Answer:

Page Ref: 285

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 59) This control entails verifying that the proper number of bits are set to the value 1 in each character received.

A) Echo check

B) Field check

C) Parity check

D) Trailer record

Answer:

Page Ref: 279

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

60) Probably the most important change management control is

A) monitoring user rights and privileges during the change process.

B) testing all changes thoroughly prior to implementation on a stand-alone computer.

C) updating all documentation to reflect changes made to the system.

D) management's careful monitoring and review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 289

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 61) Which of the following is true?

A) Cloud computing is a control technique for system availability.

B) Cloud computing eliminates the need for backup of applications and data.

C) Cloud computing refers to the practice of storing application files and backup data on satellites 'in the clouds'.

D) Cloud computing eliminates the need for companies to own their own software and servers.

Answer:

Page Ref: 288

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 62) Discuss how cloud computing could both positively and negatively affect system availability.

 63) Define and contrast a recovery point objective and a recovery time objective.

   Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)

Chapter 11   Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems

 1) Auditing involves the

A) collection, review, and documentation of audit evidence.

B) planning and verification of economic events.

C) collection of audit evidence and approval of economic events.

D) testing, documentation, and certification of audit evidence.

Answer:

Page Ref: 303

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 2) What is not a typical responsibility of an internal auditor?

A) helping management to improve organizational effectiveness

B) assisting in the design and implementation of an AIS

C) preparation of the company's financial statements

D) implementing and monitoring of internal controls

Answer:

Page Ref: 303

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 3) Which type of work listed below is not typical of internal auditors?

A) operational and management audits

B) information system audits

C) financial statement audit

D) financial audit of accounting records

Answer:

Page Ref: 303

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 4) The ________ audit examines the reliability and integrity of accounting records.

A) financial

B) informational

C) information systems

D) operational

Answer:

Page Ref: 303

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

5) The ________ audit reviews the general and application controls of an AIS to assess its compliance with internal control policies and procedures and its effectiveness in safeguarding assets.

A) financial

B) information systems

C) management

D) internal control

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 6) One type of audit that is concerned with the economical and efficient use of resources and the accomplishment of established goals and objectives is known as a(n) ________ audit.

A) financial

B) information systems

C) internal control

D) operational or management

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 7) The ________ audit is concerned with the economical and efficient use of resources and the accomplishment of established goals and objectives.

A) financial

B) informational

C) information systems

D) operational

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

8) The purpose of ________ is to determine why, how, when, and who will perform the audit.

A) audit planning

B) the collection of audit evidence

C) the communication of audit results

D) the evaluation of audit evidence

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 9) Organizing the audit team and the physical examination of assets are components of which two separate audit stages?

A) planning; evaluating audit evidence

B) planning; collecting audit evidence

C) collecting audit evidence; communicating audit results

D) communicating audit results; evaluating audit evidence

Answer:

Page Ref: 304-305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 10) With which stage in the auditing process are the consideration of risk factors and materiality most associated?

A) audit planning

B) collection of audit evidence

C) communication of audit results

D) evaluation of audit evidence

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 11) A system that employs various types of advanced technology has more ________ risk than traditional batch processing.

A) control

B) detection

C) inherent

D) investing

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

12) Control risk is defined as the

A) susceptibility to material risk in the absence of controls.

B) risk that a material misstatement will get through the internal control structure and into the financial statements.

C) risk that auditors and their audit procedures will not detect a material error or misstatement.

D) risk auditors will not be given the appropriate documents and records by management who wants to control audit activities and procedures.

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 13) The possibility that a material error will occur even though auditors are following audit procedures and using good judgment is referred to as

A) control risk.

B) detection risk.

C) inherent risk.

D) investigating risk.

Answer:

Page Ref: 305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 14) The ________ stage of the auditing process involves (among other things) the auditors observing the operating activities and having discussions with employees.

A) audit planning

B) collection of audit evidence

C) communication of audit results

D) evaluation of audit evidence

Answer:

Page Ref: 305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

15) Verifying the accuracy of certain information, often through communication with third parties, is known as

A) reperformance.

B) confirmation.

C) substantiation.

D) documentation.

Answer:

Page Ref: 305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 16) The evidence collection method that examines all supporting documents to determine the validity of a transaction is called

A) review of documentation.

B) vouching.

C) physical examination.

D) analytical review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 17) The evidence collection method that considers the relationships and trends among information to detect items that should be investigated further is called

A) review of the documentation.

B) vouching.

C) physical examination.

D) analytical review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

18) Assessing the quality of internal controls, the reliability of information, and operating performance are all part of which stage of the auditing process?

A) audit planning

B) collection of audit evidence

C) evaluation of audit evidence

D) communication of audit results

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 19) An auditor must be willing to accept some degree of risk that the audit conclusion is incorrect. Accordingly, the auditor's objective is to seek ________ that no material error exists in the information audited.

A) absolute reliability

B) reasonable evidence

C) reasonable assurance

D) reasonable objectivity

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 20) The risk-based audit approach is

A) a four-step approach to internal control evaluation.

B) a four-step approach to financial statement review and recommendations.

C) a three-step approach to internal control evaluation.

D) a three-step approach to financial statement review and recommendations.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 21) Which of the following is the first step in the risk-based audit approach?

A) Identify the control procedures that should be in place.

B) Evaluate the control procedures.

C) Determine the threats facing the AIS.

D) Evaluate weaknesses to determine their effect on the audit procedures.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

22) Determining whether the necessary control procedures are in place is accomplished by conducting

A) a systems overhaul.

B) a systems review.

C) tests of controls.

D) both B and C

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 23) According to the risk-based auditing approach, when a control deficiency is identified, the auditor should inquire about

A) tests of controls.

B) the feasibility of a systems review.

C) materiality and inherent risk factors.

D) compensating controls.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 24) The ________ to auditing provides auditors with a clear understanding of possible errors and irregularities and the related risks and exposures.

A) risk-based approach

B) risk-adjusted approach

C) financial audit approach

D) information systems approach

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

25) What is the purpose of an information systems audit?

A) To determine the inherent risk factors found in the system

B) To review and evaluate the internal controls that protect the system

C) To examine the reliability and integrity of accounting records

D) To examine whether resources have been used in an economical and efficient manner in keeping with organization goals and objectives

Answer:

Page Ref: 307

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 26) The information systems audit objective that pertains to source data being processed into some form of output is known as

A) overall security.

B) program development.

C) program modifications.

D) processing.

Answer:

Page Ref: 307

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 27) To maintain the objectivity necessary for performing an independent evaluation function, auditors should not be involved in

A) making recommendations to management for improvement of existing internal controls.

B) examining system access logs.

C) examining logical access policies and procedures.

D) developing the information system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 309

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

28) The auditor's role in systems development should be as

A) an advisor and developer of internal control specifications.

B) a developer of internal controls.

C) an independent reviewer only.

D) A and B above

Answer:

Page Ref: 309

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 29) Regarding program modifications, which statement below is incorrect?

A) Only material program changes should be thoroughly tested and documented.

B) When a program change is submitted for approval, a list of all required updates should be compiled and then approved by management and program users.

C) During the change process, the developmental version of the program must be kept separate from the production version.

D) After the modified program has received final approval, the change is implemented by replacing the developmental version with the production version.

Answer:

Page Ref: 311

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 30) How could auditors determine if unauthorized program changes have been made?

A) By interviewing and making inquiries of the programming staff

B) By examining the systems design and programming documentation

C) By using a source code comparison program

D) By interviewing and making inquiries of recently terminated programming staff

Answer:

Page Ref: 311

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

31) Which auditing technique will not assist in determining if unauthorized programming changes have been made?

A) Use of a source code comparison program

B) Use of the reprocessing technique to compare program output

C) Interviewing and making inquiries of the programming staff

D) Use of parallel simulation to compare program output

Answer:

Page Ref: 311

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 32) Strong ________ controls can partially compensate for inadequate ________ controls.

A) development; processing

B) processing; development

C) operational; internal

D) internal; operational

Answer:

Page Ref: 310

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 33) The ________ procedure for auditing computer process controls uses a hypothetical series of valid and invalid transactions.

A) concurrent audit techniques

B) test data processing

C) integrated test facility

D) dual process

Answer:

Page Ref: 312

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 34) The auditor uses ________ to continuously monitor the system and collect audit evidence while live data are processed.

A) test data processing

B) parallel simulation

C) concurrent audit techniques

D) analysis of program logic

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

35) Auditors have several techniques available to them to test computer-processing controls. An audit technique that immediately alerts auditors of suspicious transactions is known as

A) a SCARF.

B) an audit hook.

C) an audit sinker.

D) the snapshot technique.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 36) A type of software that auditors can use to analyze program logic and detect unexecuted program code is

A) a mapping program.

B) an audit log.

C) a scanning routine.

D) program tracing.

Answer:

Page Ref: 314

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 37) One tool used to document the review of source data controls is

A) a flowchart generator program.

B) a mapping program.

C) an input control matrix.

D) a program algorithm matrix.

Answer:

Page Ref: 314

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 38) An audit software program that generates programs that perform certain audit functions, based on auditor specifications, is referred to as a(n)

A) input controls matrix.

B) CAATS.

C) embedded audit module.

D) mapping program.

Answer:

Page Ref: 317

Objective:  Learning Objective 4

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

39) The use of a secure file library and restrictions on physical access to data files are control procedures used together to prevent

A) an employee or outsider obtaining data about an important client.

B) a data entry clerk from introducing data entry errors into the system.

C) a computer operator from losing or corrupting files or data during transaction processing.

D) programmers making unauthorized modifications to programs.

Answer:

Page Ref: 316

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 40) An auditor might use which of the following to convert data from several sources into a single common format?

A) computer assisted audit techniques software

B) Windows Media Converter

C) concurrent audit technique

D) Adobe Professional

Answer:

Page Ref: 317

Objective:  Learning Objective 4

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 41) What is the primary purpose of computer audit software?

A) eliminate auditor judgment errors

B) assist the auditor in retrieving and reviewing information

C) detect unauthorized modifications to system program code

D) recheck all mathematical calculations, cross-foot, reprocess financial statements and compare to originals

Answer:

Page Ref: 317

Objective:  Learning Objective 4

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

42) The scope of a(n) ________ audit encompasses all aspects of systems management.

A) operational

B) information systems

C) financial

D) internal control

Answer:

Page Ref: 318

Objective:  Learning Objective 5

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 43) Evaluating effectiveness, efficiency, and goal achievement are objectives of ________ audits.

A) financial

B) operational

C) information systems

D) all of the above

Answer:

Page Ref: 318

Objective:  Learning Objective 5

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 44) In the ________ stage of an operational audit, the auditor measures the actual system against an ideal standard.

A) evidence collection

B) evidence evaluation

C) testing

D) internal control

Answer:

Page Ref: 318

Objective:  Learning Objective 5

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 45) An increase in the effectiveness of internal controls would have the greatest effect on

A) reducing control risk.

B) reducing detection risk.

C) reducing inherent risk.

D) reducing audit risk.

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB: Analytic

46) An expansion of a firm's operations to include production in Russia and China will have the effect of

A) increasing inherent risk.

B) reducing inherent risk.

C) increasing control risk.

D) reducing control risk.

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 47) An increase in the effectiveness of auditing software will have the effect of

A) increasing detection risk.

B) reducing detection risk.

C) increasing control risk.

D) reducing control risk.

Answer:

Page Ref: 305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 48) An auditor examines all documents related to the acquisition, repair history, and disposal of a firm's delivery van. This is an example of collecting audit evidence by

A) confirmation.

B) reperformance.

C) vouching.

D) analytical review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 49) An auditor manually calculates accumulated depreciation on a delivery van and compares her calculation with accounting records. This is an example collecting audit evidence by

A) confirmation.

B) reperformance.

C) vouching.

D) analytical review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 305

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

50) An auditor finds that employee absentee rates are significantly higher on Mondays and Fridays than on other work days. This is an example collecting audit evidence by

A) confirmation.

B) reperformance.

C) vouching.

D) analytical review.

Answer:

Page Ref: 306

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 51) An auditor creates a fictitious customer in the system and then creates several fictitious sales to the customer. The records are then tracked as they are processed by the system. The auditor is using

A) an integrated test facility.

B) the snapshot technique.

C) a system control audit review file.

D) continuous and intermittent simulation.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 52) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to flag all credit transactions in excess of $1,500. The flag causes the system state to be recorded before and after each transaction is processed. The auditor is using

A) an integrated test facility.

B) the snapshot technique.

C) a system control audit review file.

D) audit hooks.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

53) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to record all credit transactions in excess of $1,500 and store the data in an audit log. The auditor is using

A) the snapshot technique.

B) a system control audit review file.

C) audit hooks.

D) continuous and intermittent simulation.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 54) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to flag questionable online transactions, display information about the transaction on the auditor's computer, and send a text message to the auditor's cell phone. The auditor is using

A) the snapshot technique.

B) a system control audit review file.

C) audit hooks.

D) continuous and intermittent simulation.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 55) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to selectively monitor transactions. Selected transactions are then reprocessed independently, and the results are compared with those obtained by the normal system processing. The auditor is using

A) an integrated test facility.

B) the snapshot technique.

C) a system control audit review file.

D) continuous and intermittent simulation.

Answer:

Page Ref: 313

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB: Analytic

56) Which of the following is not one of the types of internal audits?

A) reviewing corporate organizational structure and reporting hierarchies

B) examining procedures for reporting and disposing of hazardous waste

C) reviewing source documents and general ledger accounts to determine integrity of recorded transactions

D) comparing estimates and analysis made before purchase of a major capital asset to actual numbers and results achieved

Answer:

Page Ref: 304

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 57) When programmers are working with program code, they often employ utilities that are also used in auditing. For example, as program code evolves, it is often the case that blocks of code are superseded by other blocks of code. Blocks of code that are not executed by the program can be identified by

A) embedded audit modules.

B) scanning routines.

C) mapping programs.

D) automated flow charting programs.

Answer:

Page Ref: 314

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 58) When programmers are working with program code, they often employ utilities that are also used in auditing. For example, as program code evolves, it is often the case that variables defined during the early part of development become irrelevant. The occurrences of variables that are not used by the program can be found using

A) program tracing.

B) scanning routines.

C) mapping programs.

D) embedded audit modules.

Answer:

Page Ref: 314

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

59) Explain the differences between each type of audit risk.

 60) Explain why the auditor's role in program development and acquisition should be limited.

 61) How and to whom does an auditor communicate the audit results?

 62) Audit tests and procedures traditionally have been performed on a sample basis. Do options exist for auditors to test significantly more (or all) transactions?

 63) When doing an information systems audit, auditors must review and evaluate the program development process. What errors or fraud could occur during the program development process?

 64) Briefly describe tests that can be used to detect unauthorized program modifications.

 65) Define and give examples of embedded audit modules.

 66) How is a financial audit different from an information systems audit?

 67) Why do all audits follow a sequence of events that can be divided into four stages, and what are the four stages?

 68) Name and describe the different types of audits.

AACSB:  Analytic

 69) Describe the risk-based audit approach.

 71) Describe the disadvantages of test data processing.

 72) Describe how audit evidence can be collected.

   Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)

Chapter 12   The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections

 1) In organizations with at least basic segregation of duties, the credit manager reports to the ________ and the treasurer reports to the ________.

A) controller; vice president of finance

B) treasurer; controller

C) marketing manager; vice president of finance

D) treasurer; vice president of finance

Answer:

Page Ref: 331

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 2) In the revenue cycle, before a shipping notice is prepared, the shipping department personnel should match the inventory received from the warehouse to details from

A) picking tickets.

B) sales order and bill of lading.

C) sales order.

D) picking ticket and sales order.

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 3) Which is the best control to prevent invoicing customers for the quantity ordered, which was more than the quantity shipped due to items on backorder?

A) Use the information from the packing slip to prepare the sales invoice.

B) Use the information from the picking ticket to prepare the sales invoice.

C) Use the information from the bill of lading to prepare the sales invoice.

D) Use the information from the sales order to prepare the sales invoice.

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

4) The cashier deposits checks in the bank for Very Large Corporation (VLC) and also prepares payments to vendors. Of the following, who is best to reconcile the bank statement to VLC's records on a regular basis?

A) Internal audit department

B) Treasurer

C) External auditor

D) Cashier

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 5) Which of the following documents normally triggers the billing process in the revenue cycle?

A) Packing slip received from the shipping department

B) Sales order received from the sales department

C) Picking ticket received from the sales department

D) Journal voucher received from the shipping department

Answer:

Page Ref: 348

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 6) Which of the following documents would normally trigger the process to record a customer payment?

A) Remittance advice

B) Customer monthly statement

C) Deposit slip

D) Sales invoice

Answer:

Page Ref: 353

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

7) Which document should always be included with a merchandise shipment to a customer?

A) Packing slip

B) Picking ticket        

C) Remittance advice

D) Sales invoice

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 8) A monthly statement sent to customers serves a control purpose by

A) providing an opportunity for customers to verify the balance owed and activity on the account.

B) triggering the process to record a customer payment.

C) summarizing invoices and amounts due for customers.

D) reminding customers of the balance due and due date.

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 9) Accounting recognizes a sale when

A) inventory becomes the legal property of the customer.

B) cash is received from the customer.

C) a sales order is approved by sales, inventory control, and credit departments.

D) inventory is removed from the warehouse.

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 10) Which of the following is not one of the controls for the mail room where customer payments are commingled with other mail?

A) Requiring the controller to be personally present when mail is received and opened

B) Preparing a remittance list as mail is opened

C) Restrictively endorsing checks when received

D) Requiring two mail room clerks to open mail together

Answer:

Page Ref: 337

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

11) What is the primary objective of the revenue cycle?

A) to maximize revenue and minimize expense

B) to reduce outstanding accounts receivable balances through increased cash sales

C) to provide the right product in the right place at the right time at the right price

D) to sell as much product as possible and/or to maximize service billings

Answer:

Page Ref: 332

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 12) Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the revenue cycle?

A) What credit terms should be offered?

B) How often should accounts receivable be subjected to audit?

C) How can customer payments be processed to maximize cash flows?

D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service?

Answer:

Page Ref: 332-333

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 13) Which of the following is not a basic activity of the revenue cycle?

A) sales order entry

B) shipping

C) receiving

D) billing

Answer:

Page Ref: 333

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 14) Retail stores could send their orders directly to the manufacturer's sales order system in a format that would eliminate the need for data entry, using

A) Vendor Managed Inventory.

B) Electronic Data Interchange.

C) Point Of Sale.

D) Electronic Funds Transfer.

Answer:

Page Ref: 338

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

15) Matching customer account numbers and inventory item numbers to the numbers in the customer and inventory master files is an example of a

A) completeness test.

B) field check.

C) reasonableness test.

D) validity check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 339

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 16) During the sales order entry process, a ________ is performed to compare the quantity ordered with the standard amounts normally ordered.

A) completeness test

B) redundant data check

C) field check

D) reasonableness test

Answer:

Page Ref: 339

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 17) During the sales order entry process, a ________ is performed to verify that each transaction record contains all appropriate data items.

A) completeness test

B) redundant data check

C) field check

D) reasonableness test

Answer:

Page Ref: 339

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

18) When a customer places an order (on account) for a certain product, what should be done before the order is checked for inventory availability?

A) The customer's available credit should be checked.

B) The sales order should be created and written to a file.

C) Shipping should be notified of an order in process.

D) A picking list should be generated for the warehouse.

Answer:

Page Ref: 335

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 19) How is credit approval generally handled for established customers with a documented payment history?

A) Specific authorization by the credit manager

B) General authorization by a sales clerk

C) A new credit application is requested

D) A formal credit check should be made for each sale

Answer:

Page Ref: 340

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 20) What is a typical procedure for processing sales orders from new customers or customers making a purchase that causes their credit limit to be exceeded?

A) General authorization to approve the order is given to sales clerks.

B) Specific authorization must be granted by the credit manager.

C) The sale should be rejected.

D) The sales clerk should order a report from a credit bureau before approving the order.

Answer:

Page Ref: 340

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

21) A company should check inventory quantities before accepting a sales order for all the following reasons except to

A) verify the accuracy of the perpetual inventory records.

B) inform the customer about availability and delivery times.

C) know which items may need to be back ordered.

D) update inventory records to reduce the quantity available by the number of items ordered.

Answer:

Page Ref: 341-342

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 22) Responding to customer inquiries and general customer service is an important aspect in the revenue cycle. Since customer service is so important, software programs have been created to help manage this function. These special software packages are called

A) EDI systems.

B) POS systems.

C) VMI systems.

D) CRM systems.

Answer:

Page Ref: 343

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 23) The best solution for maintaining accurate automated perpetual inventory system is to use

A) closed-loop verification when inventory is received from vendors and recorded.

B) point of sale devices integrated with inventory records.

C) periodic physical counts to reconcile with perpetual inventory records.

D) RFID tags.

Answer:

Page Ref: 342

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

24) This document is a legal contract that defines responsibility for goods that are in transit.

A) packing slip

B) bill of lading

C) picking list

D) back order

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 25) Two documents usually accompany goods shipped to a customer. What are the two documents?

A) a bill of lading and an invoice

B) a packing slip and a bill of lading

C) an invoice and a packing slip

D) an invoice and a sales order

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 26) What is the basic document created in the billing process?

A) bill of lading

B) sales order

C) packing list

D) sales invoice

Answer:

Page Ref: 349

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 27) A company uses the method for tracking accounts receivable where customers pay according to individual sales invoices. This describes the ________ method.

A) monthly statement

B) open-invoice

C) balance forward

D) cycle billing

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

28) A method for tracking accounts receivable that matches specific invoices and payments from the customer is called a(n) ________ method.

A) specific identification

B) balance forward

C) cycle billing

D) open-invoice

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 29) The document a customer returns with their payment and that identifies the source and the amount of the payment is called a

A) remittance advice.

B) remittance list.

C) credit memorandum.

D) debit memorandum.

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 30) In the ________ method of tracking accounts receivable, customers pay according to the amount showing on their monthly statement and payments are applied against the total account balance.

A) specific identification

B) open-invoice

C) balance forward

D) remittance advice

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

31) When a customer pays off the balance on an invoice, the payment is credited to the ________ file.

A) customer master

B) sales transaction

C) cash receipts master

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer:

Page Ref: 351

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 32) A type of business document in which part of the original document is returned to the source for further processing is called a ________ document.

A) feedback

B) returnable

C) closed-loop

D) turnaround

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 33) A document typically encountered in the revenue cycle that is both an output document and a source document is the

A) sales invoice.

B) customer purchase order.

C) sales order.

D) packing slip.

Answer:

Page Ref: 349

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

34) A ________ system prepares and mails monthly statements to customers throughout the entire month, instead of just at the end of the month.

A) continuous

B) open-invoice

C) cycle billing

D) balance forward

Answer:

Page Ref: 351

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 35) The accounts receivable department must know when customers pay their invoices, yet segregation of duties controls dictate that the collection and recording functions be kept separate from each other. What is a solution to this potential internal control problem?

A) Have customers send a remittance advice with their payment.

B) Have mailroom personnel prepare a remittance list which can be forwarded to accounts receivable.

C) Establish a lockbox arrangement with a bank.

D) all of the above

Answer:

Page Ref: 353-354

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 36) The benefits of a lockbox arrangement with a bank are maximized when

A) the bank is located nearby to the company, so remittance advices can be delivered to the company every day.

B) several banks around the country are used, in order to minimize the time payments spend in the mail.

C) an arrangement is made with only one bank, so all remittance advices can be batched for processing.

D) the bank deposits the payments and accesses the customer's information system to record the payments.

Answer:

Page Ref: 354

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

37) An arrangement where a bank receives customer payments through the postal system, scans the remittance advices, and transmits payment data to the business electronically is known as

A) e-commerce.

B) an electronic lockbox.

C) electronic funds transfer (EFT).

D) electronic data interchange (EDI).

Answer:

Page Ref: 354

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 38) Customers that send their payments electronically directly to the company's bank are using

A) electronic data interchange (EDI).

B) electronic funds transfer (EFT).

C) procurement cards.

D) an electronic lockbox.

Answer:

Page Ref: 354

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 39) A way to incorporate the advantages of Electronic Data Interchange with the Electronic Funds Transfer is

A) Financial Electronic Data Interchange.

B) e-commerce.

C) to use procurement cards.

D) an electronic lockbox.

Answer:

Page Ref: 354

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

40) Key differences exist when an integrated Enterprise Resource Planning system (ERP) replaces an existing AIS or legacy system. For example, ________ are more accurate and timely, enabling sales order entry staff to provide customers more accurate information about delivery dates.

A) inventory records

B) cash receipts

C) credit approval decisions

D) exception reports

Answer:

Page Ref: 342

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 41) When an ERP is used, it is assumed that there will be increases in efficiency and the effectiveness of the activities related to the revenue cycle. However, what must be in place and functioning well to fully realize these benefits?

A) an effective marketing staff

B) all the components of the expenditure cycle

C) adequate controls

D) adequate system flowchart documentation

Answer:

Page Ref: 335

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 42) The activities involved in soliciting and processing customer orders within the revenue cycle are known as the ________.

A) sales order entry process

B) shipping order process

C) revenue process

D) marketing process

Answer:

Page Ref: 337

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

43) To ensure proper segregation of duties, only the ________ has authority to issue credit memos.

A) accounts receivable supervisor

B) controller

C) credit manager

D) cashier

Answer:

Page Ref: 352

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 44) It has been discovered that credit sales have been made to customers with a poor credit rating. If this continues, the company will face increasing uncollectible receivables and losses due to bad debts. Separation of duties between ________ and ________ should help resolve the problem.

A) shipping; billing duties

B) credit approval; marketing

C) billing; credit approval

D) marketing; accounts receivable

Answer:

Page Ref: 340

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 45) Consider the following revenue cycle scenario: The company has been exposed to customer dissatisfaction and the suggested control procedure to be implemented is to install and use bar-code scanners. What is the threat?

A) The company may be shipping the wrong merchandise.

B) The company may be shipping the wrong quantities of merchandise.

C) The company may be shipping orders to the wrong address.

D) All of the above threats may apply to this scenario.

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

46) Which of the following would be the least effective control to minimize the loss of inventory?

A) Secure the storage location of inventory.

B) Release inventory only with proper documentation.

C) Periodically back up all perpetual inventory records.

D) Reconcile the physical counts with and perpetual records.

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 47) Separating the shipping and billing functions is designed to reduce the threat of

A) failure to bill customers.

B) billing customers for wrong quantities.

C) billing customers before merchandise has been shipped.

D) shipping the wrong merchandise.

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 48) All of the following edit checks for online editing of accounts receivable transactions would probably be included except

A) validity checks on customer ID and invoice numbers.

B) check digit verification on the amount of the sale.

C) closed loop verification on the customer ID.

D) field checks on the values in dollar fields.

Answer:

Page Ref: 352

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

49) When a proper segregation of duties exists in the area of handling cash receipts, the ________, who reports to the ________, actually handles the cash and is not the same person who posts cash receipts to customer accounts.

A) cashier; treasurer

B) cashier; controller

C) accountant; treasurer

D) accountant; controller

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 50) In a revenue cycle with proper controls, the ________ who reports to the ________, is not involved in any cash handling activities.

A) accounts receivable clerk; treasurer

B) accounts receivable clerk; controller

C) cashier; controller

D) cashier; treasurer

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 51) A serious exposure in the revenue cycle is loss of assets. What is the related threat and applicable control procedure that address this exposure?

A) shipping errors; reconciliation of sales order with picking ticket and packing slip

B) theft of cash; segregation of duties and minimization of cash handling

C) making sales that turn out to be uncollectible; force sales people to make collection calls on customers with past due balances

D) poor performance; preparation and review of performance reports

Answer:

Page Ref: 337

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

52) Which of the following duties could be performed by the same individual and not violate segregation of duty controls?

A) handling cash and posting to customer accounts

B) issuing credit memos and maintaining customer accounts

C) handling cash and authorizing credit memos

D) handling cash receipts and mailing vendor payments

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 53) To prevent the loss of valuable data in the revenue cycle, internal file labels can be used to

A) keep competitors from accessing files.

B) record off-site storage locations.

C) organize the on-site physical storage site.

D) reduce the possibility of erasing important files.

Answer:

Page Ref: 277, 335

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 54) The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order online from Sad Clown Pajamas. He ordered 100 one-size fits all pajama bottoms, but when he ordered 1000 one-size fits all pajama tops, the following error message popped up: "Did you mean to enter a quantity of 1000 for your order?" This message is the result of a

A) reasonableness test.

B) validity check.

C) limit check.

D) closed-loop verification.

Answer:

Page Ref: 339

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

55) The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order online from Sad Clown Pajamas. He entered all the items and quantities, completed the checkout and payment process, but the following error message popped up when he tried to exit the site: "Please enter your email address." This message is likely the result of a

A) customer relationship management software application.

B) validity check.

C) completeness test.

D) closed-loop verification.

Answer:

Page Ref: 339

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 56) Sad Clown Pajamas is an Internet-based wholesaler. Customers enter their orders online. The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order when the following error message popped up: "Your total order exceeds your available credit. A Credit Department representative will contact you within 24 hours." This message is the result of a

A) validity check.

B) reasonableness test.

C) limit check.

D) sign check.

Answer:

Page Ref: 340

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 57) In Petaluma, California, electric power is provided to consumers by the Power To The People Electrical Company, a local co-op. Each month PTTP mails bills to 70,000 households and then processes payments as they are received. The customers are provided with a remittance advice, which is a

A) warning that failure to pay by the due date will result in a late charge.

B) confirmation of the firm's privacy policy.

C) turnaround document.

D) bill.

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

58) Laz Chance wears roller blades and headphones when he is at work at the Squishy Things Toy Company. He is a product packer. The headphones give him computer-generated instructions so he knows the location of each item and quantity that should be included in the order. These instructions are the equivalent of a

A) picking ticket.

B) bill of lading.

C) packing slip.

D) sales order.

Answer:

Page Ref: 342

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 59) The shipping department at Squishy Things Toy Company follows policies that determine which carrier will deliver orders according to the size, weight, and destination of the shipment. It maintains standing agreements with shippers that specify legal responsibility for the shipment while it is in transit. The terms of the agreements are documented on

A) picking tickets.

B) bills of lading.

C) packing slips.

D) RFID tags.

Answer:

Page Ref: 345

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 60) Sad Clown Pajamas is an Internet-based wholesaler. The manager of Callow Youth Clothing received an order from Sad Clown and found that the wrong product had been shipped. He repackaged the order and sent it back for a refund. When Sad Clown Pajamas received the returned product, they mailed a ______ to Callow Youth Clothing's manager.

A) packing slip

B) letter requesting an explanation

C) remittance advice

D) credit memo

Answer:

Page Ref: 352

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

61) A customer service manager at Sad Clown Pajamas, Bob, received a call from the manager at Callow Youth Clothing, who informed Bob that Callow was entering bankruptcy liquidation and it was unlikely that they would be able to pay the outstanding balance on their account. Bob should

A) document the phone conversation and forward it to the billing department manager.

B) prepare a credit memo.

C) approve a credit memo.

D) document the phone conversation and forward it to the credit department manager.

Answer:

Page Ref: 352

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 62) Because it is the most fungible of all assets, the management of cash has always been the most difficult of all control issues. The most important of cash controls is

A) minimization of cash handling.

B) lockbox arrangements.

C) segregation of duties.

D) frequent reconciliation of records.

Answer:

Page Ref: 355

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 63) A sales clerk at an electronics store scanned the bar code for a low cost set of headphones and then substituted a high cost set of headphones for his friend, who paid the lower price. Which of the following controls would best help to prevent this sort of fraud?

A) Use of RFID tags

B) Physical inventory count

C) Segregation of duties

D) Limited physical access to bar codes

Answer:

Page Ref: 342

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

64) The accounts receivable management method typically used by credit card companies is

A) balance forward.

B) postbilling.

C) monthly statement.

D) open-invoice.

Answer:

Page Ref: 351

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 65) The accounts receivable clerk destroys all invoices for sales made to family and friends and does not record the sales in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers. The family and friends usually give the clerk cash as a"thank you". Which procedure will not prevent or detect this fraud?

A) Send monthly statements to all customers with balances owed.

B) Reconcile sales invoices in the billing department to the total debits to accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers.

C) Sequentially prenumber all invoices and prepare a sequence check at the end of each day.

D) Reconcile the accounts receivable control account to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.

Answer:

Page Ref: 350

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 66) Which of the following poses an internal control problem?

A) Physical inspection of inventory quantity and condition is outsourced to a firm that specializes in this service.

B) Products are released from inventory after a warehouse employee and a shipping clerk both sign the pick list.

C) Sales representatives have authority to increase customers' credit limits in $1,000 increments.

D) When customer payments are received in the mail, checks are sent to the cashier's office and remittance advices are sent to the accounts receivable department.

Answer:

Page Ref: 340

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

67) For sales returns, the least effective control to prevent fraudulent processing of a credit memo is to

A) reconcile total of credit memos to total debits posted to customers' subsidiary ledgers.

B) require approval for each credit memo by the credit manager.

C) sequentially prenumber all credit memos and perform a sequence check at the end of each day.

D) match each credit memo with a receiving report.

Answer:

Page Ref: 352

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 68) Describe the basic revenue cycle activities.

 69) Explain how validity checks, completeness tests and reasonableness tests can be implemented to ensure accuracy of customer orders.

 70) Define and describe benefits of a CRM system.

 71) How can Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) facilitate the billing and accounts receivable process?

 72) Describe typical credit approval procedures.

 73) Describe the two methods to manage accounts receivable.

 74) Describe cycle billing and identify how an organization might benefit by using cycle billing.

 75) Failure to collect cash on credit sales is a threat in the revenue cycle. What controls can be used to help neutralize this threat?

 76) Discuss ways in which technology can be used to streamline cash collections.

 77) Describe four threats in the revenue cycle and identify appropriate controls for each threat.

 78) Discuss the general control issue of the loss of data, as it relates to the revenue cycle.

 79) Explain how to effectively segregate duties in the sales order activity.

 80) Discuss the revenue cycle threat of stockouts, carrying costs, and markdowns.

 81) You have been hired by a catalog company to computerize its sales order entry process. Approximately 70% of all orders are received over the telephone by a sales person. The other 30% of orders are received by a sales person through mail or fax. The catalog company wants the phone orders processed real-time. The mail and fax orders will be processed in batches of 50 orders. The following attributes are collected for every sales order:

           Customer number (if the order is from a new customer, a new number needs to be assigned)

           Customer name

           Address

           Payment method (credit card for phone and fax orders and check for mailed orders)

           Credit card number and expiration date

           Items ordered and quantity of each

           Unit price of each item ordered

Identify and describe at least ten specific control policies and procedures you will implement for the sales order process. Be very specific describing the controls and number each new control you suggest.

   Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)

Chapter 13   The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash Disbursements

 1) The Squishy Things Toy Company was established in 1948. It recently signed a large contract with a chain of retail toy stores. As a condition of the contract, the Squishy will be required to track and forecast product sales by linking in to the chain's sales database. Squishy will then be responsible for shipping products to the chain's regional warehouses as needed. The relationship between Squishy and the chain is an example of

A) vendor-managed inventory.

B) sales force automation.

C) electronic data interchange.

D) optical character recognition.

Answer:

Page Ref: 382

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 2) Requiring all packing slips be reconciled to purchase orders before accepting a delivery of inventory would be most likely to prevent which of the following situations?

A) A supplier delivers more inventory than ordered at the end of the year and sends an invoice for the total quantity delivered.

B) An employee mails a fake invoice to the company, which is then paid.

C) The inventory records are incorrectly updated when a receiving department employee enters the wrong product number on the receiving report.

D) Receiving department employees steal inventory and then claim the inventory was received and delivered to the warehouse.

Answer:

Page Ref: 386

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 3) Comparing quantities on a vendor invoice to quantities on the receiving report would not prevent or detect which of the following situations?

A) Receiving and accepting inventory not ordered

B) Theft of inventory by receiving department employees

C) Update of wrong inventory items due to data entry error

D) Order for an excessive quantity of inventory

Answer:

Page Ref: 386

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

4) Which of the following would probably be the least effective control to mitigate the risk of paying an invoice payable to a phony vendor for inventory purchases, mailed to the company by an employee attempting to commit fraud?

A) Only pay from original invoices.

B) Cancel all invoices and supporting documentation when paid.

C) Strict access and authorization controls for the approved vendor master file.

D) Require three-way match for all inventory purchase invoices.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 5) Which of the following would be the least effective control to prevent paying the same vendor invoice twice?

A) Allow only the accounts payable department to authorize payment for vendor invoices and allow only the cash disbursements department to cut and mail checks to vendors.

B) Only pay from original invoices.

C) Cancel each document in the voucher package once the check is prepared and mailed.

D) Only pay vendor invoices that have been matched and reconciled to a purchase order and a receiving report.

Answer:

Page Ref: 391

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 6) To accomplish the objectives set forth in the expenditure cycle, a number of key management decisions must be addressed. Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the expenditure cycle?

A) How can cash payments to vendors be managed to maximize cash flow?

B) What is the optimal level of inventory and supplies to carry on hand?

C) Where should inventories and supplies be held?

D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service?

Answer:

Page Ref: 372

Objective:  Learning Objective 2

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

7)  One of the basic activities in the expenditure cycle is the receiving and storage of goods, supplies, and services. What is the counterpart of this activity in the revenue cycle?

A) sales order entry process

B) shipping function

C) cash collection activity

D) cash payments activity

Answer:

Page Ref: 373

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 8) The traditional approach to inventory management to ensure sufficient quantity on hand to maintain production is known as

A) safety stock.

B) just-in-time production.

C) economic order quantity.

D) optimal inventory quantity.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 9) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) includes several variables that must be taken into consideration when calculating the optimal order size. One variable, the costs associated with holding inventory, is referred to as

A) ordering costs.

B) carrying costs.

C) the reorder point.

D) stockout costs.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

10) The need to place an order for inventory is specified by the

A) company inventory policies.

B) economic order quantity.

C) stockout point.

D) reorder point.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 11) When goods are being ordered from a vendor, which electronic files are either read or updated?

A) inventory, vendors, and accounts payable

B) vendors and accounts payable

C) open purchase orders and accounts payable

D) inventory, vendors, and open purchase orders

Answer:

Page Ref: 374

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 12) What is a key feature of materials requirements planning (MRP)?

A) minimize or entirely eliminate carrying and stockout costs

B) reduce required inventory levels by scheduling production rather than estimating needs

C) determine the optimal reorder point

D) determine the optimal order size

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

13)  Materials requirements planning (MRP)

A) reduces the uncertainty about when materials are needed, thereby reducing the need to carry large levels of inventory.

B) is able to compute exactly the cost of purchasing by taking into account all costs associated with inventory carrying.

C) requires vendors to deliver inventory to the production site exactly when needed and in the correct quantities.

D) None of the above are correct.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 14) The inventory management approach that attempts to minimize, if not eliminate, carrying and stockout costs is

A) materials requirements planning.

B) economic order quantity.

C) just-in-time inventory.

D) evaluated receipt settlement.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Difficult

AACSB:  Analytic

 15) What aspect below best characterizes a Just-In-Time (JIT) inventory system?

A) frequent deliveries of smaller quantities of items to the work centers

B) frequent deliveries of large quantities to be held at the work centers

C) less frequent deliveries of large quantities of goods to central receiving

D) infrequent bulk deliveries of items directly to work centers

Answer:

Page Ref: 378-379

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

16) What is the key difference between the MRP and JIT inventory management approaches?

A) Only JIT reduces costs and improves efficiency.

B) MRP is especially useful for products such as fashion apparel.

C) JIT is more effectively used with products that have predictable patterns of demand.

D) MRP schedules production to meet estimated sales needs; JIT schedules production to meet customer demands.

Answer:

Page Ref: 379

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 17) MRP will be a preferred method over JIT when the

A) demand for inventory is fairly predictable.

B) demand for inventory is mostly unpredictable.

C) product has a short life cycle.

D) MRP is always a preferred method over JIT.

Answer:

Page Ref: 379

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 18) A key decision in ordering is selecting a suitable vendor. Which of the following would not be a major criterion in vendor selection?

A) prices of goods

B) quality of goods

C) credit rating of the vendor

D) ability to deliver on time

Answer:

Page Ref: 380

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 19) Once a vendor is selected for a product, the vendor's identity is recorded in the

A) purchase requisition transaction file.

B) purchase requisition master file.

C) inventory transaction file.

D) inventory master file.

Answer:

Page Ref: 381

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

20) A purchase order is

A) a document formally requesting a vendor to sell a certain product at a certain price.

B) a request for delivery of certain items and quantities.

C) a contract between the buyer and vendor once accepted by the vendor.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

Page Ref: 381

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 21) Stepanek Sales and Service provides free coffee to employees. Stepanek arranged with Ingebrigtson's Joe to deliver as many coffee packages, sugar, creamer, and filters as needed each week. Ingebrigtson's sends a monthly invoice for Stepanek to pay. This arrangement is best described as a

A) blanket purchase order.

B) set purchase order.

C) fixed purchase order.

D) standard purchase order.

Answer:

Page Ref: 381

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 22) A major cost in the purchasing function is the number of purchase orders processed. One technique that may reduce purchasing-related expenses is to have suppliers compete with each other to meet demand at the lowest price. This name of this technique is

A) an EDI auction.

B) a trading exchange.

C) a reverse auction.

D) a supplier consortium.

Answer:

Page Ref: 382

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

23) One of the major responsibilities of the receiving department is

A) deciding if the delivery should be accepted.

B) verifying any purchase discounts for the delivery.

C) deciding on the location where the delivery will be stored until used.

D) updating inventory subsidiary ledgers.

Answer:

Page Ref: 384

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 24) Which of the following is generally not shown on a receiving report?

A) price of the items

B) quantity of the items

C) purchase order number

D) counted and inspected by

Answer:

Page Ref: 384

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 25) A receiving clerk notes that a delivery of 10 units has been received, but the purchase order specified 12 units. A debit memo will need to be prepared to adjust for the difference between the quantity ordered and received. Who should prepare this document?

A) the receiving clerk

B) the controller

C) the vendor

D) the purchasing department manager

Answer:

Page Ref: 385

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 26) Identify in which of the following scenarios a company could adjust the balance due the vendor by issuing a debit memo.

A) quantity different from that ordered

B) damage to the goods

C) goods that fail inspection for quality

D) All of the above are possible scenarios.

Answer:

Page Ref: 385

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

27) What is one of the best ways to improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the receipt and storage of ordered items?

A) requiring all suppliers to have the carrier verify quantities and item numbers before shipment

B) requiring all suppliers to include RFID tags on their items

C) requiring all suppliers to use EDI to expedite the receiving department function

D) requiring all delivery trucks to have satellite data terminals to expedite the receiving department function

Answer:

Page Ref: 385

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 28) Vendor invoices are approved by the ________, which reports to the ________.

A) purchasing department; controller

B) accounts payable department; treasurer

C) purchasing department; treasurer

D) accounts payable department; controller

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 29) The disbursement voucher and supporting documents are sent to the ________ for payment prior to the due date.

A) cashier

B) treasurer

C) controller

D) accounts payable department

Answer:

Page Ref: 390

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

30) A(n) ________ system posts an approved invoice to the vendor account and stores it in an open invoice file until payment is made by check.

A) nonvoucher

B) voucher

C) cycle

D) evaluated receipt settlement

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 31) A disbursement voucher contains

A) a list of outstanding invoices.

B) the net payment amount after deducting applicable discounts and allowances.

C) the general ledger accounts to be debited.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 32) One objective of accounts payable is to authorize payment only for goods or services actually ordered and received. The best way to process supplier invoices is to use

A) electronic funds transfer for small, occasional purchases from suppliers.

B) a nonvoucher system.

C) EDI for all small, occasional purchases from suppliers.

D) a disbursement voucher system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

33) What is not an advantage of using disbursement vouchers?

A) Disbursement vouchers reduce the number of checks written.

B) Disbursement vouchers can be prenumbered which simplifies the tracking of all payables.

C) Disbursement vouchers facilitate separating the time of invoice approval from the time of invoice payment.

D) There are no disadvantages to using disbursement vouchers.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 34) Which of the following is not an advantage of a voucher system?

A) Several invoices may be included on one voucher, reducing the number of checks.

B) Disbursement vouchers may be pre-numbered and tracked through the system.

C) The time of voucher approval and payment can be kept separate.

D) It is a less expensive and easier system to administer than other systems.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 35) Duties in the expenditure cycle should be properly segregated to promote internal control. This means that the authorization function is performed by ________, the recording function is performed by ________, and cash handling is performed by the ________.

A) accounts payable; purchasing; cashier

B) purchasing; accounts payable; cashier

C) purchasing; cashier; accounts payable

D) purchasing; accounts payable; treasurer

Answer:

Page Ref: 375

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

36) A voucher package should include

A) a purchase requisition, vendor invoice, and receiving report.

B) a purchase order, vendor invoice, and receiving report.

C) a purchase requisition, purchase order, and receiving report.

D) a bill of lading and vendor invoice.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 37) Evaluated receipt settlement (ERS) approves payment of vendor invoices after reconciling the purchase order and the

A) vendor invoice.

B) sales invoice.

C) receiving report.

D) disbursement voucher.

Answer:

Page Ref: 388

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 38) All of the following are opportunities to improve efficiency of the accounts payable function except

A) use blanket purchase orders.

B) convert a manual AIS system to EDI and EFT.

C) streamline noninventory purchases.

D) use evaluated receipt settlement.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387-388

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

39) When purchasing miscellaneous supplies, companies can reduce costs, improve efficiency, and combat employee fraud by

A) using procurement cards.

B) implementing a JIT inventory system.

C) requiring employees to personally purchase items then reimbursing employees at the end of each month.

D) paying amounts out of petty cash.

Answer:

Page Ref: 389

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 40) If available, a 1% discount for payment within 10 days instead of 30 days represents an approximate savings of ________ % annually.

A) 1

B) 12

C) 18

D) 36

Answer:

Page Ref: 390

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 41) What is the best control to mitigate the threat of paying prices that are too high for goods ordered?

A) require the receiving department to verify the existence of a valid purchase order

B) use only approved suppliers and solicit competitive bids

C) only pay invoices that are supported by the original voucher package

D) use bar-code technology to eliminate data entry errors

Answer:

Page Ref: 382

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

42) What is probably the most effective control for the prevention of kickbacks to purchasing agents?

A) purchasing from approved vendors

B) diligent supervision in the purchasing department

C) a corporate policy to prohibit purchasing agents from accepting kickbacks

D) reviews of vendor performance

Answer:

Page Ref: 383

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 43) One of the threats associated with the process and activity of receiving and storing goods is

A) errors in counting.

B) kickbacks.

C) requests for unnecessary items.

D) errors in vendor invoices.

Answer:

Page Ref: 385

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 44) What is the best way to prevent the acceptance of unordered goods?

A) Order only from approved vendors.

B) Match the packing slip to a purchase order before accepting delivery.

C) Enforce an appropriate conflict of interest policy in place.

D) Require specific authorization from the purchasing manager before accepting any goods.

Answer:

Page Ref: 386

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 45) Which of the following is not a common control for ensuring inventory is secure and inventory counts are accurate?

A) control of physical access to the inventory storage areas

B) transfers of inventory with proper documentation

C) sending "blind" copies of purchase orders to inventory control for data entry

D) making physical counts of inventory at least once per year

Answer:

Page Ref: 376

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

46) Double-checking the accuracy of an invoice is a control that can help to neutralize a threat in the expenditure cycle. What activity would specifically be associated with this control?

A) ordering goods

B) receiving and storing goods

C) paying for goods and services

D) requesting goods be ordered

Answer:

Page Ref: 389

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 47) What control would best mitigate the threat of paying an invoice twice?

A) never authorize payment of a photocopy of an invoice

B) double-check mathematical accuracy of invoices

C) approval of purchase orders

D) maintaining adequate perpetual inventory records

Answer:

Page Ref: 391

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 48) Which control would best prevent payments made to fictitious vendors?

A) Allow payments only to approved vendors.

B) Restrict access to any payment or approval documents.

C) Have an independent bank reconciliation.

D) Make sure all documents are in order before approving payments.

Answer:

Page Ref: 392

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 49) In the expenditure cycle, good control dictates that expenditures should be paid by check. This may not be feasible when minor purchases are made. To facilitate quick payment for minor purchases, a(n) ________ should be set up and maintained using ________.

A) special bank account; disbursement vouchers

B) imprest fund; vouchers

C) cash box; small denomination bills

D) petty cash fund; procurement cards

Answer:

Page Ref: 392

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

50) A surprise count of an imprest petty cash fund should find the total of ________ equal to the amount authorized for the fund.

A) cash and credit memos

B) cash and vouchers

C) cash

D) cash and checks

Answer:

Page Ref: 392

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 51) What control should be put in place that assigns responsibility for EFT payments made to vendors?

A) Encrypt all EFT transmissions.

B) Time stamp all EFT transactions.

C) Establish a control group to monitor EFT transactions for validity and accuracy.

D) Number all EFT transactions.

Answer:

Page Ref: 391

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 52) Which of the following threats is not specific to the purchase requisition process of the expenditure cycle?

A) stockouts

B) purchasing from unauthorized vendors

C) requisitioning goods not needed

D) All of the above are threats in the purchase requisition process.

Answer:

Page Ref: 380

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

53) There is a symmetrical interdependence between a firm's expenditure cycle and its suppliers'

A) production cycle.

B) revenue cycle.

C) expenditure cycle.

D) general ledger and reporting system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 372

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 54) The Squishy Things Toy Company was established in 1948. It recently signed a large contract with a chain of retail toy stores. As a condition of the contract, the Squishy will be required to track and forecast product sales by linking in to the chain's sales database. Squishy will then be responsible for shipping products to the chain's regional warehouses as needed. The technology that is used for communication between Squishy and the chain is

A) vendor-managed inventory.

B) sales force automation.

C) electronic data interchange.

D) optical character recognition.

Answer:

Page Ref: 372

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 55) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on ensuring that the amounts purchased minimize these costs, will employ

A) a just-in-time inventory system.

B) the economic order quantity.

C) a reorder point.

D) materials requirements planning.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on ensuring that orders are placed with sufficient lead time to prevent stockouts, will employ

A) a just-in-time inventory system.

B) the economic order quantity.

C) a reorder point.

D) materials requirements planning.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 57) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on forecasting demand for Sad Clown's products, will employ

A) a just-in-time inventory system.

B) the economic order quantity.

C) a reorder point.

D) materials requirements planning.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 58) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on reducing or completely eliminating carrying costs, will employ

A) a just-in-time inventory system.

B) the economic order quantity.

C) a reorder point.

D) materials requirements planning.

Answer:

Page Ref: 378

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

59) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he proudly announced that he had negotiated a(n) ________ with a client that defined a long-term commitment to buy components from Folding Squid.

A) purchase order

B) blanket purchase order

C) evaluated receipt settlement

D) voucher

Answer:

Page Ref: 381

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 60) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he proudly announced that he had received a ________ from a client to buy a large quantity of components from Folding Squid.

A) purchase order

B) blanket purchase order

C) voucher

D) purchase requisition

Answer:

Page Ref: 381

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 61) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he complained that a recent shipment from a vendor had been unsatisfactory and so had to be returned. That required the purchasing manager to send a ________ to the supplier.

A) purchase order

B) blanket purchase order

C) receiving report

D) debit memo

Answer:

Page Ref: 385

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

62) To minimize the number of checks that need to be written to pay vendor invoices a company should use a

A) voucher system.

B) just-in-time inventory system.

C) nonvoucher system.

D) evaluated receipt settlement system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 63) Evaluated receipt settlement increases efficiency by

A) eliminating the need for receiving reports.

B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices.

C) eliminating the need for purchase orders.

D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks.

Answer:

Page Ref: 388

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB:  Analytic

 64) In the expenditure cycle, Financial Electronic Data Interchange (FEDI) increases efficiency by

A) eliminating the need for receiving reports.

B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices.

C) eliminating the need for purchase orders.

D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks.

Answer:

Page Ref: 390

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Easy

AACSB: Analytic

65) Procurement cards differ from corporate credit cards in which of the following ways?

A) Credit limits can be set for procurement cards, but not corporate credit cards.

B) Credit cards can be used to make purchases without an explicit sign off by supervisors, but procurement cards require a sign off.

C) Procurement cards can only be used with approved vendors, but credit cards can be used anywhere.

D) Procurement card invoices are sent separately for each card, whereas corporate credit cards are consolidated into a single invoice.

Answer:

Page Ref: 389

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 66) The purchasing manager at Folding Squid Technologies has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. He also reviews receiving reports, approves or corrects them, and authorizes the cashier to pay vendor invoices. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?

A) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct.

B) Accounts payable should reconcile purchase orders, receiving reports, and invoices.

C) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by accounts receivable and then cancelled when paid.

D) Controls are adequate under the current system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 67) The purchasing manager at Folding Squid Technologies has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. Receiving reports are prepared by shipping and receiving based on the relevant purchase order(s). Purchase orders, receiving reports, and vendor invoices are reconciled by accounts payable, which authorizes payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?

A) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct.

B) Accounts payable should authorize purchase orders.

C) Receiving reports should be reviewed and corrected by the purchasing manager.

D) Controls are adequate under the current system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Analytic

68) The receiving clerk at Folding Squid Technologies examines incoming shipments and reconciles their contents with the relevant purchase orders. A receiving report is then sent to accounts receivable and the vendor's invoice is approved for payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?

A) The invoice should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled.

B) Accounts payable should reconcile the purchase order and the receiving report.

C) Invoices, purchase orders, and receiving reports should be reconciled by the receiving clerk.

D) Controls are adequate under the current system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 69) The receiving clerk at Folding Squid Technologies examines incoming shipments and checks their purchase order numbers. A receiving report is then sent to accounts payable, where it is reconciled with the relevant purchase orders and invoices and payment is authorized. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?

A) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled.

B) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the purchasing manager.

C) Purchase orders and receiving reports should be reconciled by the purchasing manager.

D) Controls are adequate under the current system.

Answer:

Page Ref: 387

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Analytic

 70) Which of the controls below would be least effective to prevent ordering goods at higher than market prices?

A) Variance analysis of actual expenses to budgeted expenses

B) For high-dollar goods, solicit competitive bids from possible vendors

C) Only place orders with vendors on an approved vendor list

D) Frequent review of, and update to, vendor price lists stored in the AIS

Answer:

Page Ref: 382

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

71) The document below would be known as what by Alpha Omega Electronics?

A) Receiving report

B) Purchase order

C) Purchase requisition

D) Packing slip

Answer:

Page Ref: 384

Objective:  Learning Objective 1

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

 72) Which of the following would be the best control to prevent receiving department employees from stealing inventory and claiming the ordered quantity wasn't received from the vendor?

A) Reconcile quantity on packing slip to physical count when accepting delivery.

B) Restrict physical access to the receiving area.

C) Require all deliveries be made at the receiving area.

D) Require dual signatures on the move ticket when receiving delivers the inventory to the warehouse.

Answer:

Page Ref: 386

Objective:  Learning Objective 3

Difficulty :  Moderate

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

73) Define and describe the EOQ approach to inventory management.

 74) Discuss the differences between EOQ, MRP, and JIT.

 75) a) What is the major cost driver in the purchasing function? b) Describe how information technology can be used to control this cost driver.

 76) Explain what is meant by the expenditure cycle as a "mirror image" of the revenue cycle.

 77) Identify possible problems associated with receiving goods and appropriate actions in response to the problems.

 78) How can information technology be used to improve the vendor invoice approval process?

 79) Under what conditions is MRP more suitable than JIT and vice versa?

 80) In the expenditure cycle, the majority of payments made are by check. What are some control issues related to payment of vendors by check?

 81) Identify ten threats and applicable control procedures in the expenditure cycle.

 82) What types of decision-making and strategic information should the AIS provide in the expenditure cycle?

 83) How can using RFID tags or bar codes on goods or products provide significant benefit in the expenditure cycle?

[nerdyflowerwombat-blog]

ACC 564 Quiz 3 – Strayer New

ACC 564 Quiz 3 – Strayer New

ACC 564 Week 8 Quiz 3 Chapter 10 Through 13

Click On The Link Below To Purchase Instant Download

http://www.budapp.net/ACC-564-Quiz-3-Strayer-New-ACC564Q3.htm

Chapter 10   Information Systems Controls for Systems ReliabilityPart 3: Processing Integrity and Availability

1) The best example of a hash total for a payroll transaction file could be A) total of employees' social security numbers. B) sum of net pay. C) total number of employees. D) sum of hours worked. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

2) Error logs and review are an example of A) data entry controls. B) data transmission controls. C) output controls. D) processing controls. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic 3) Following is the result of batch control totals on employee Social Security Numbers in a payroll processing transaction:

Correct Values From Masterfile Values Entered During Processing 487358796 487358796 534916487 534916487 498374526 498374526 514873420 514873420 534196487 534916487 678487853 678487853 471230589 471230589 3719438158 3720158158

The difference in the control totals is 720,000. Which data entry control would best prevent similar data entry errors in the future? A) Modulus 11 B) Validity check C) Check digit D) Sequence check Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Moderate AACSB:  Analytic

4) Which of the following data entry controls would not be useful if you are recording the checkout of library books by members? A) Sequence check B) Prompting C) Validity check D) Concurrent update control Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Moderate AACSB:  Analytic

5) A customer failed to include her account number on her check, and the accounts receivable clerk credited her payment to a different customer with the same last name. Which control could have been used to most effectively to prevent this error? A) Closed-loop verification B) Duplicate values check C) Validity check D) Reconciliation of a batch control total Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

6) If invoices are processed in groups of fifty, which fields from the document shown below would not be used to create a hash control total?

A) Amount B) Item Number C) Quantity Ordered D) Sales Order number Answer:

Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Reflective Thinking

7) A data entry input control in which the application software sums the first four digits of a customer number to calculate the value of the fifth digit and then compares the calculated number to the number typed in during data entry is an example of a A) check digit verification. B) validity check. C) closed-loop verification. D) duplicate data check. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

8) All of the following controls for online entry of a sales order would be useful except A) check digit verification on the dollar amount of the order. B) validity check on the inventory item numbers. C) field check on the customer ID and dollar amount of the order. D) concurrent update control. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Difficult AACSB:  Analytic

9) A specific inventory record indicates that there were 12 items on hand before a customer brings two of the items to the check stand to be purchased. The cashier accidentally entered quantity 20 instead of 2. Which data entry control would best have prevented this error? A) sign check B) limit check C) validity check D) field check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

10) When processing weekly payroll, an employee accidentally entered 400 for hours worked. The best data entry control for this error would be A) a limit check. B) a check digit. C) batch total reconciliation. D) a field check. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

11) The data entry control that would best prevent entering an invoice received from a vendor who is not on an authorized supplier list is A) a validity check. B) an authorization check. C) a check digit. D) closed-loop verification. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

12) Forms design is an example of this type of control. A) Data entry control B) Processing control C) Output control D) Input control Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

13) Sequentially prenumbered forms is an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) processing control. D) input control. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

14) Turnaround documents are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) output control. C) processing control. D) input control. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

15) A validity check is an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) output control. D) input control. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

16) Parity checks are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) output control. D) processing control. Answer: Page Ref: 279 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

17) User reviews are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) output control. D) processing control. Answer: Page Ref: 278 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

18) Data matching is an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) processing control. D) input control. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

19) Batch totals are an example of a(n) A) data entry control. B) data transmission control. C) output control. D) processing control. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Moderate AACSB:  Analytic

20) Cancellation and storage of documents means that A) data are copied from a document and stored, after which the document is shredded. B) documents are defaced before being shredded. C) documents are defaced and stored. D) cancellation data are copied from documents before they are stored. Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Moderate AACSB:  Analytic

21) Check digit verification is an example of a(n) A) data transmission control. B) output control. C) processing control. D) input control. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

22) This ensures that the input data will fit into the assigned field. A) Limit check B) Range check C) Size check D) Validity check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

23) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value nor fall below another predetermined value. A) Completeness check B) Field check C) Limit check D) Range check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

24) This determines if all required data items have been entered. A) Completeness check B) Field check C) Limit check D) Range check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

25) This determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items. A) Range check B) Reasonableness test C) Sign check D) Size check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

26) This determines if characters are of the proper type. A) Field check B) Alpha-numeric check C) Range check D) Reasonableness test Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

27) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value. A) Completeness check B) Limit check C) Range check D) Sign check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

28) This batch processing data entry control sums a field that contains dollar values. A) Record count B) Financial total C) Hash total D) Sequence check Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

29) This batch processing data entry control sums a non-financial numeric field. A) Record count B) Financial total C) Hash total D) Sequence check Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

30) When I enter a correct customer number, the data entry screen displays the customer name and address. This is an example of A) prompting. B) preformatting. C) closed-loop verification. D) error checking. Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

31) This control ensures that the correct and most current files are being updated. A) Cross-footing balance test B) Data matching C) File labels D) Write-protect mechanism Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Moderate AACSB:  Analytic

32) This batch processing data entry control sums the number of items in a batch. A) Financial total B) Hash total C) Record count D) Sequence check Answer: Page Ref: 277 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

33) This data entry control compares the ID number in transaction data to a master file to verify that the ID number exists. A) Reasonableness test B) User review C) Data matching D) Validity check Answer: Page Ref: 276 Objective:  Learning Objective 1 Difficulty :  Easy AACSB:  Analytic

[invisibleanonymousmonsters]

I just read 'Non Sequential Ch 29' and it was so sad and amazing at the same time. That part where Y/N says how sad Steve looks broke my heart. And then that line "he wasn't going to waste a moment with Y/N" broke my heart again-like he loves her so much! Is Ch 29 the last chapter or is there going to be more? It's 1 of my favourite series and it's really wonderful and lovely to read but I'm also scared if the ending is sad bc I'm not ready for that heartbreak. Thanks for a wonderful series <3

There is definitely more. I’ve just had a really hard time writing that series. I got into a real slump and if you look at the notes, it has very little traction. It’s hands down the least commented and shared fic of mine. So that definitely doesn’t help motivate me.

I’ll finish it one day, I promise.

Thank you for reading it and sending me such a sweet message. ❤️

[invisibleanonymousmonsters]

Okay, so. Long time ago, I have stumbled upon your series Non-Sequential but I wasn’t feeling like reading multi-chapter series. Now I see that it has 29 chapters which are absolutely incredible in my opinion. I'm just sad that I was not there to hype you up while writing it and that you have grown tired of it(understood why, our fandom, despite being full of super heroes can have quite toxic fans and Tumblr fans are sometimes even worse).

I hope it won't sound like I'm trying to push you or something but will you ever finish the story? Or did you break the stick above it (as we say in my country) and moved on?

Hope You are staying safe and healthy, love

Hiiiii. Maybe one day I will. It’s not looking bright right now though. 

Just to put it in perspective...the Masterlist has over 3,000 notes. The first chapter had over 1,000 notes. 

And then engagement just went down and down and down after that. The latest chapter barely reached 200 notes and that was after months. 

Writers basically get punished for writing long stories. People stop engaging. Or they just expect to get chapters handed to them without commenting or reblogging or encouraging you. I lost my motivation and no one was interacting with the story anymore. 

[invisibleanonymousmonsters]

Non-Sequential // Masterlist

Pairing: Pre-Serum Steve Rogers/Steve Rogers x Reader

One night, Steve Rogers met a beautiful dame named Y/N. He hadn’t intended on letting her get away. But fate had other ideas. Y/N appeared and disappeared in his life so hauntingly that Steve started to wonder if she was an angel meant to watch over him. 

A/N: Inspired by the film The Time Traveler’s Wife. But not one of those fics that just literally rips off the whole movie and plugs in characters where they please. 

Prologue // Chapter 1 // Chapter 2 // Chapter 3 // Chapter 4 // Chapter 5 // Chapter 6 // Chapter 7 // Chapter 8 // Chapter 9 // Chapter 10 // Chapter 11 // Chapter 12 // Chapter 13 // Chapter 14 // Chapter 15 // Chapter 16 // Chapter 17 // Chapter 18 // Chapter 19 // Chapter 20 // Chapter 21 // Chapter 22 // Chapter 23 // Chapter 24 // Chapter 25 // Chapter 26 // Chapter 27 // Chapter 28 // Chapter 29 //

---

Non-Sequential Headcanons & Asks

I DO NOT DO TAGLISTS.

[invisibleanonymousmonsters]

I just read Non-Sequential Ch 29 and it was so amazing! I'm on my period rn lmao so I'm like really emotional and shii so I'm really happy you put out a new chapter of Non-Sequential and I'm looking forward for the next chapter. I'm really happy for Steve too. I also love the way you wrote Steve and Reader's relationship & how he misses her. I appreciate the series and you so thank you :)

Girl, I’m on my period right now too. So I feel you. Thank you for your message 🥺🖤

[banyaro-eng]

[Event & Scenario] “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World” START

Part 1.5, start! OSIRIS, who have joined Avalon, are all hyped up in starting activities but what stands before them...? Travel with OSIRIS to America and beat those who get in your way!

Details

▼ Release Date: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00JST ~ onwards

Part 1.5 of the "Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World" will start! Chapter 1 will focus on OSIRIS.

▼ Access Condition

Finish reading the final chapter of each band’s (BLAST, OSIRIS, Fairy April, Cure2tron) Main Scenario Ep.1.

How To Participate

You can access Part 1.5 from the banner on the home screen as long as the condition of clearing the last chapters for Episode 1 of all the bands have been satisfied.

※ Although there is no deadline, you may only receive the Clear Reward once.

How To Play

Get “Flyers” by playing songs from different Areas listed in the Event Page. Choose the Area you want to play in and win the Duel Gig of each stage to proceed to the next stage. The Main Areas will have multiple stages accompanied by event stories. You will then unlock some Free Stages per Main Stage cleared which will be your main source of gaining Flyers after clearing all the Main Areas.

You can exchange the “Flyers” for rewards like limited edition cards via the Shop’s “Item Exchange” section. [more info.]

You can access the event scenarios via the new section, “Episode Of Avalon” from the Stories Tab.

Event Stage Schedule

The Area Stages for "Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World" will be released sequentially from 2017/12/30(Sat) 00:00  JST. The new stages will be released at a schedule:

12/30(Sat) 00:00~・Departure 01/01(Mon) 00:00~・Detour 01/03(Wed) 00:00~・Bandits 01/05(Fri) 00:00~・Submit or Perish 01/07(Sun) 00:00~・Depression 01/09(Tue) 00:00~・Perfection 01/11(Thu) 00:00~・A Long Road 01/13(Sat) 00:00~・Epilogue

New Rival Band Appearance!

EISENROSES  (Left to Right, romaji tentative): Alexei, Wolff, Gaia, Sugar, Jive

Past Event Scenario Limited Time Rerun

Scenarios of the events leading up to the scenario for Part 1.5 will have a re-run for a limited time only. Unopened scenarios will be available for reading during the following period:

▼ Duration: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/15 (Mon) 12:59 JST

※ You can access the event scenarios from the "Story" tab → "Event Scenario" but will not be able to receive any reward upon clearing.

The target Event Scenario are as follows:

Advent of the Quattro Virtuoso GIGS ー Dante of the Purgatory

Anniversary GIGS ー Dreamin' (untranslated)

On Board The Merry Christmas GIGS ー Dante is Coming To Town!

Event Reward Card

SR: Ray Cephart [A Journey's Exhilarating Feeling]

Event Strategy-1

Using OSIRIS members' cards into Bands to use for LIVEs will improve overall performance.

Event Strategy-2

A special login bonus will be held!

Make sure to log in from 2017/12/28(Thu) 17:00JST, during the event period to get one (1) 100%+ Stamina Charge a day.

▼ Duration: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/14 (Sun) 23:59 JST

※ Daily bonus cannot be obtained once the day is over. ※ Like normal login bonuses, the daily bonus will reset at 00:00JST every day.

Time-Limited Event Song

“Beyond the Limit” by OSIRIS Lyrics, composition, arrangement: Gouki Ohtsuka

“Voyager of the New World” Limited Rare Gacha (Daily Rotation)

Duration: 2017/12/28(Thu) 17:00JST ~ 2018/01/15(Mon) 12:59JST

Line-up: SSR Sousuke Maki, SSR Kyo Takara, SSR Yoshimune Tokuda, SSR Shelly, SR Yamato Shinonome, SR Miley

※ SR Yamato Shinonome and SR Miley will be available throughout the duration of the gacha. 

The gacha can use both Free and Paid Medals

It is possible to pull regular cards other than the Event limited gacha cards.

At least 1 SR or above card is guaranteed for every 10-pull

Signed cards will be discharged at a certain probability. Signs will only appear for SR cards and above and will be treated the same as non-signed, having the same stat and effects. You can admire the sign in various places.

Event limited cards might reappear during future events/campaigns.

“Voyager of the New World”Rare Gacha Schedule

ALL CHARACTERS ・12/28, 1/14, 1/15 SHELLY ・12/29, 1/2, 1/6, 1/10 KYO TAKARA ・12/30, 1/3, 1/7, 1/11 SOUSUKE MAKI ・12/31, 1/4, 1/8, 1/12 YOSHIMUNE TOKUDA ・1/1, 1/5, 1/9, 1/13

※ Please take note that the pick-up date will change at a daily basis

Featured New Cards

SSR Sousuke Maki [tba*] Leader Skill: [COMBO BONUS] Combo Bonus boosted by 25% Main Skill: [Löyly* of Tragedy] 30% chance of activation upon 30 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 30% for 6 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)

※ Despite the trigger and end of the "Other Skill Effectiveness Boost", LIFE dropping to 0 will still result in LIVE failure.

SSR Kyo Takara [Search for a Lost Child] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP] Combo Bonus boosted by 25% Main Skill: [Even the Destination’s Wrong] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 30% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)

※ Despite the trigger and end of the "Other Skill Effectiveness Boost", LIFE dropping to 0 will still result in LIVE failure.

SSR Yoshimune Tokuda [Search for a Lost Child] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP+Fairy*] All Member’s BEAT boosted by 30%. Additional 20% if Fairy April members, other than Yoshimune, makes up the rest of the Band. Main Skill: [Kotatsu of Magic] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting Combo Bonus by 16% for 8 seconds.

SSR Shelly [tba*] Leader Skill: [GROOVE UP+Cure2tron*] All Member’s GROOVE boosted by 30%. Additional 15% if at least 1 Cure2tron member, other than Shelly, in included in the Band. Main Skill: [Kotatsu of Magic] 10% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting score by 20% for 4 seconds.

SSR Yamato Shinonome [tba*] Leader Skill: [MELODY BONUS+SPIRIT*] All Member’s MELODY boosted by 15% and Spirits gained by 20% Main Skill: [--] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 20% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)

SSR Miley [Dress-up] Leader Skill: [LIFE UP] All Member’s LIFE boosted by 15% Main Skill: [--] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 20% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)

※ Cards from this gacha are will have a max level of 90 for SSR and 75 for SR once Break.

You can check the in-game gacha/event page for more info.

*Some Card Names and Skill Names to be added. I’m out of time at the moment.

*Click for Sousuke’s Skill Name.

[felicia1mallet-blog]

Test Bank Engineering Psychology and Human Performance 4th Edition

For Order This And Any Other Test

 Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,

 Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,

 Contact us At: johnmate1122@gmail.com

T

Chapter 2: Signal Detection and Absolute Judgement

Multiple Choice Questions

 Correct answers are indicated by *

 1.                  What is the difference between a signal detection and identification (absolute judgement) task?

a. signal detection typically involves several stimulus states or categories, identification requires only two

b. there is no difference—the two terms are synonyms

* c. identification typically involves several stimulus states or categories, signal detection requires only two

d. signal detection occurs at a later processing stage than identification

 2.                  When is signal detection theory (SDT) applicable?

* a. when there are two discrete states of the world that cannot easily be discriminated

b. when two discrete states of the world are easily discriminated

c. when there are several discrete states of the world

d. when a signal is presented and the user assigns a score to its magnitude

 3.                  Which of the following is not one of the classes of joint events in signal detection theory (SDT)?

a. hit

b. false alarm

* c. false miss

d. correct rejection

 4.                  A false alarm refers to:

a. when a signal is presented and the observer calls it a signal

b. when no signal is presented and the observer calls it “no signal”

c. when a signal is presented and the observer calls it “no signal”

* d. when no signal is presented and the observer calls it a signal

 5.                  If 20 signal trials and 10 noise trials were presented and there were 2 hits and 18 misses, which of the following is the correct hit rate?

* a. 2/20 = .1

b. 18/20 = .9

c. 2/30 = .066

d. 18/30 = .60

 6.                  Can the value of evidence variable X ever exceed the criterion XC?

a. only when a signal is presented

b. only when noise is presented

* c. when either signal or noise is presented

d. no, XC can never exceed evidence variable X

 7.                  In SDT we represent signal and noise as a pair of distributions. Which of the following is a true statement concerning these distributions:

* a. there is always some overlap between the distributions and the distributions are normal

b. there is no overlap between the distributions and the distributions are normal

c. there is always some overlap between the distributions are the distributions are not normal

d. there is no overlap between the distributions and the distributions are normal

 8.                  In SDT we represent signal and noise as a pair of distributions. Which of the following describes conservative responding?

a. XC is placed to the left of where the distributions meet

* b. the observer says “no” (signal absent) much more often than she says “yes” (signal present)

c. the observer says “yes” (signal present) much more often than he says “no” (signal absent)

d. XC is placed where the distributions meet

 9.                  If signal-present trials are less frequent than signal-absent (noise) trials, how should the criterion be adjusted?

* a. raise the criterion

b. lower the criterion

c. keep the criterion the same

d. make the criterion more liberal

 10.              Which of the following defines βopt in response to changes in signal probability?

* a. P(N) / P(S)

b. P(S) * P(N)

c. P(S) / P(N)

d. 2 * P(N) + ½

 11.              Optimal beta can be defined in terms of payoffs (costs and values). Which of the following should increase optimal beta?

* a. an increase in the value of a correct rejection

b. an increase in the value of a hit

c. an increase in the cost of a miss

d. a decrease in the cost of a false alarm

 12.              Sluggish beta refers to:

a. the optimal value of beta does not change with payoffs

b. empirical beta values are affected by probabilities

* c. as optimal beta is adjusted by probabilities or payoffs, there is a smaller shift in empirical beta values than is necessary

d. as optimal beta is adjusted by probabilities or payoffs, there is a larger shift in empirical beta values than is necessary

 13.              Which of the following statements about sluggish beta is false?

a. sluggish beta is more evident for probabilities than payoffs

b. sluggish beta is not related to an observer’s sensitivity

* c. sluggish beta is a laboratory phenomenon and does not occur in the real world

d. sluggish beta means that people cannot adjust their criterion in an optimal manner

 14.              A key contribution of signal detection theory is that it:

a. predicts the response criterion for a particular individual

b. predicts the sensitivity for a particular observer in a particular context

* c. makes a clear distinction between response bias and sensitivity

d. shows that sensitivity is less important than response bias

 15.              A Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve plots:

a. hits against misses

b. hits against misses plus false alarms

c. false alarms against correct rejections plus hits

* d. hits against false alarms

 16.              How many points on the ROC can be generated from a 2 x 2 response matrix?

* a. one

b. two

c. four

d. eight

 17.              Points along a single ROC curve have the same:

a. bias

* b. sensitivity

c. sensitivity and bias

d. false alarm rate

 18.              Confidence levels offer a:

* a. more efficient means of collecting data from several criterion settings

b. way to demonstrate risky beta setting

c. method for determining which observers are more confident in their judgments

d. better way to measure sensitivity

 19.              A point on the positive diagonal on an ROC curve indicates which of the following:

a. extremely high sensitivity

b. a low criterion setting

* c. chance responding; i.e., zero sensitivity)

d. optimal beta

 20.              What happens when an ROC curve is plotted using z-scores?

* a. the ROC curve becomes a straight line

b. the ROC curve becomes more shallow

c. the ROC curve becomes straight and shallow

d. the ROC curve cannot be represented using z-scores

 21.              What does d’ represent?

a. response bias

b. a non-parametric measure of bias

* c.  sensitivity

d. accuracy

 22.              What does A’ represent?

a. a non-parametric measure of response bias

b. a parametric measure of sensitivity

c. bias divided by sensitivity

* d. a non-parametric measure of sensitivity

 23.              Which of the following could be considered a fuzzy category:

a. an audible tone versus no tone

* b. an air traffic control “conflict”

c. a face shown during an earlier study period

d. a specific alarm versus no alarm

 24.              What is meant by “mapping function” in fuzzy SDT?

a. function that maps the degree of fuzziness to a concept

b. relationship between the number of signals and the number of responses

* c. function describing the degree of membership in a category

d. ratio between hits and misses

 25.              Which of the following statements is true for fuzzy SDT?

a. only stimuli can be classified as fuzzy using the mapping function

b. only responses can be classified as fuzzy using the mapping function

* c. both stimuli and responses can be classified as fuzzy using the mapping function

d. the mapping function does not determine whether a stimulus or response is fuzzy.

 26.              Which of the following statements best characterize fuzzy SDT?

a. an event is assigned to a category in absolute terms

* b. an event can belong to a category in graded terms, using a number between 0 and 1

c. once hit and false alarm values have been calculated, you need to apply fuzzy SDT equations to obtain sensitivity and bias values

d. hit and false alarm rates are not calculated in fuzzy SDT

 27.              A study described by Swets (1998) indicated that radiologists provided with a “reading aid” (checklist of features and a response scale) were better able to distinguish a cancerous tumor from a benign cyst than radiologists without the aid. In SDT terms, this means the radiologists _______.

a. with the reading aid were more conservative than those without

b. with the reading aid were more liberal than those without

c. without the reading aid were more influenced by disease prevalence than those who used the aid

* d. with the reading aid showed greater sensitivity than those without

 28.              A physician has to weigh the value of human life against financial and other costs when making medical decisions. Rather than consider the values of hits and correct rejections and the costs of misses and false alarms, Swets suggested that physicians:

a. ignore the costs

* b. develop a ratio of benefits and costs in the form of a statement

c. weight the values twice as much as the costs

d. ignore the costs and values and go with a gut judgment

 29.              Which of the following approaches to eyewitness identification tends to reduce false alarms?

a. a sequential lineup

b. a simultaneous lineup

* c. information the witness that the suspect might not be in the lineup

d. post-identification suggestions

 30.              What is the main reason that alarm and alert systems have a low beta setting?

a. to avoid the “cry-wolf effect”

* b. The cost of misses is typically greater than the cost of false alarms

c. the base rate of dangerous events is high

d. it is an inherent characteristic of automated detection systems

 31.              Which of the following is not a solution to the mistrust caused by alarm false alarms?

a. use multiple alarm levels

b. keep the human in the loop

c. improve operator understanding of alarm false alarm rates

* d. lower automated beta slightly

 32.              In the experiment by Mackworth (1948), a pointer moved in small jumps around a clock face. At intermittent intervals a target event occurred (a double jump of the pointer). What was the key result?

a. the target event was detected

b. the target event was not detected

c. it became easier to detect the target event over time

* d. it became harder to detect the target event over time

 33.              The vigilance decrement is a result of:

a. a decrease in sensitivity

b. a decrease in the response criterion (more liberal)

c. an increase in the response criterion (more conservative)

* d. both a decrease in sensitivity  andan increase in the response criterion (more conservative)

 34.              Sensitivity in a vigilance task is higher when:

a. a target’s signal strength is reduced

b. there is uncertainty about time or location of the signal

* c. targets and non-targets are presented simultaneously (rather than successively)

d. the event rate is increased

 35.              Which of the following theories accounts for the observed shift in the response criterion over the course of a vigil?

a. arousal theory

b. expectancy theory

c. sustained demand theory

* d. arousal theory and expectancy theory

 36.              Which of the following theories accounts for the sensitivity decrement over the course of a vigil?

a. arousal theory

b. expectancy theory

* c. sustained demand theory

d. arousal theory and expectancy theory

 37.              Sensitivity in a vigilance task can be improved by:

a. requiring the inspector to remember the target stimulus

b. decreasing target salience

c. increasing the event rate

* d. decreasing the event rate

 38.              Which of the following is NOT an effective method for shifting the response criterion downward towards an optimal level:

a. introducing false signals

b. providing feedback to the inspector (knowledge of results)

* c. training the observer to produce automating processing of the target

d. instructions about the costs of misses

 39.              Which of the following does NOT occur in an absolute judgment task?

a. multiple stimuli are presented

b. the subject gives its stimuli its name

c. the stimuli lie along some continuum (e.g., different brightnesses)

* d. the stimuli are presented in systematic order (e.g., from dimmest to brightest)

 40.              What is the limit of human performance in an absolute judgment task, in terms of information transmitted (HT)

* a. 2-3 bits

b. 2-3 stimulus levels

c. 7 plus or minus 2 bits

d. there is no limit

 41.              What are the implications of the bow effect for human absolute judgment?

* a. stimuli in the middle of a range are more likely to be misclassified

b. stimuli at the ends of a range are more likely to be misclassified

c. stimuli at the high end of the range are more likely to be misclassified

d. stimuli at the low to middle range are most likely to be misclassified

 42.              Which of the following pairs of dimensions are most likely to be orthogonal?

* a. weight and hair color

b. weight and height

c. weight and gender

d. height and gender

 43.              As dimensions are combined orthogonally, what happens to human information transmission (i.e., total HT)?

a. it increases with the number of combined dimensions

b. it matches perfect performance

c. the number of bits per added dimension decreases

* d. it increases with the number of combined dimensions and the number of bits per added dimension decreases

 44.              As dimensions are combined redundantly (e.g., traffic light), what happens to human information transmission?

* a. it increases but is limited by the total amount of information in the stimulus

b. it increases with each increase in the number of combined dimensions

c. it decreases

d. it decreases but Hloss increases

 45.              In a Garner sort task, what are the indicators of integral dimensions?

* a. performance in orthogonal condition worse than control condition

b. performance in correlated condition worse than control condition

c. performance in orthogonal condition better than correlated condition

d. no differences between conditions.

 46.              In a Garner sort task, what are the indicators of separable dimensions?

a. performance in orthogonal condition worse than control condition

b. performance in correlated condition worse than control condition

c. performance in orthogonal condition better than correlated condition

* d. no differences between conditions.

 47.              Which of the following are not integral dimensions?

a. pitch and location (height)

b. color hue and color saturation

c. height and width of rectangle

* d. orientation and size

 48.              Which of the following are not separable dimensions?

a. size (area) and brightness

b. spatial location and temporal order

c. shape and color saturation

* d. color hue and saturation

 49.              Which of the following results describes configural dimensions?

a. the size of rectangles does not affect classification of their color

* b. classification performance is affected by how the dimensions of the height and width of rectangles are paired

c. classification performance is not affected by how the dimensions of the height and width of rectangles are paired

d. the height of different sized rectangles is easily classified

 50.              Which of the following does not affect the amount of information in a stimulus

a. the number of alternatives

b. its probability

c. its sequential context

* d. its salience

Short Answer Essay Questions

 1.       Discuss the difference between sensitivity and bias in conceptual terms.

2.       Describe what is meant by “sluggish beta”.

3.       Draw an ROC curve and label the axes. Indicate sensitivity and bias. What happens to the curve when z-scores are used?

4.       Summarize the key differences between signal detection theory and fuzzy signal detection theory.

5.       What is a Garner sort task? Specify the various conditions in your answer. How do the results indicate whether perceptual dimensions are integral or separable?

6.       Summarize the implications of multidimensional absolute judgement for sorting/classification tasks. Be sure to discuss configural dimensions and emergent features in your answer.

7.       Consider the application of signal detection theory to alarm systems. What is special about this situation, in a signal detection sense?

8.       What is a vigilance task and what is meant by the vigilance decrement?

9.       What are the key results in a vigilance task (consider both sensitivity and bias).

10.    Describe some techniques to combat the loss of vigilance (again consider both sensitivity and bias in your answer).

Essay Questions

 1.       Summarize the implications of integral and separable dimensions for interface designers.

2.       In his classic 1956 paper, George Miller discussed various experiments that used the absolute judgment paradigm. He concluded that there appears to be a limit to classification in this task. Explain how he arrived at this conclusion.

3.       Describe how signal detection theory works and how it is relevant to many real-world tasks.

4.       Summarize the major theoretical accounts of vigilance.

5.       What is information, and how is it relevant to display design?