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Test Bank Exploring Management 5th Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,
Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,
Contact us At: [email protected]
Test File: Chapter 01: Managers and the Management Process
Multiple Choice
1. A person who supports and is responsible for the work of others is called a(n) __________.
a) leader
b) manager
c) employee
d) shareholder
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
2. The three levels of management are:
a) first, second, and third.
b) technical, conceptual, and human.
c) directorial, upper, and bottom.
d) top, middle, and first-line.
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
3. At First United Bank, division managers, regional managers, and branch managers would be known as:
a) first-line managers.
b) middle managers.
c) top managers.
d) nonmanagerial workers.
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4. Susan is a manager who oversees the work of large departments or divisions consisting of several smaller teams at Colors Inc. Susan most likely holds the position of __________ at Colors Inc.
a) the CEO
b) a first-line manager
c) a director
d) a middle manager
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5. Andy is a middle manager at Hercules Industries. Whom would he report to?
a) First-line manager
b) Vice president
c) Chairman of the board
d) President
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6. Tom is responsible for a group of manufacturing assembly workers who report to him. Tom is a __________ manager.
a) top
b) first-line
c) middle
d) senior
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7. Top managers focus on:
a) short-term plans.
b) long-term success.
c) middle managers.
d) the board of directors.
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
8. A person who guides the performance of an organization as a whole or of one of its major parts is called a __________.
a) supervisor
b) first-line manager
c) top manager
d) middle manager
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
9. The primary responsibility of the board of directors is to __________.
a) tell all the managers what to do
b) oversee the affairs of the organization
c) make daily operational decisions
d) do tactical planning
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
10. Claire, the CEO of Berylia Inc., reports to James. James has been appointed by the stockholders of Berylia to represent their ownership interests. Hence, James is a part of the __________ of Berylia Inc.
a) top management
b) front-line management
c) board of directors
d) board of trustees
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11. Jane, Kale, Carter, and Bennett have been appointed by the government of Rhodia to the board of trustees of the University of Rhodia. Their responsibility is to:
a) supervise several first-line managers.
b) supervise the performance of nonmanagerial workers.
c) make sure that the institution is being run right.
d) recognize potential problems and set strategies to abate them.
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12. __________ is the oversight of top management by a board of trustees.
a) Accountability
b) Governance
c) Responsibility
d) Strategic planning
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
13. __________ is the requirement to show performance results to a supervisor.
a) Dependability
b) Durability
c) Delegation
d) Accountability
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance.
AACSB: Analytic
14. Accountability in managerial performance is always accompanied by __________.
a) entrepreneurship
b) dependency
c) fondness
d) satisfaction
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance.
AACSB: Analytic
15. The overall quality of human experiences in the workplace is known as __________.
a) work environment
b) work culture
c) quality of work life
d) quality of work experience
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Effective managers help others achieve high performance and satisfaction.
AACSB: Analytic
16. Which of the following is NOT one of the quality of work life (QWL) issues?
a) Being respected and valued
b) Fair pay
c) Safe work conditions
d) Health benefits
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Effective managers help others achieve high performance and satisfaction.
AACSB: Analytic
17. Effective managers help others achieve high performance and __________ in their work.
a) salary
b) profits
c) rewards
d) satisfaction
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Effective managers help others achieve high performance and satisfaction.
AACSB: Analytic
18. Which of the following management issues is most associated with the concept of quality of work life or QWL?
a) Continuous improvement
b) Job satisfaction
c) Total quality management
d) Customer service
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Effective managers help others achieve high performance and satisfaction.
AACSB: Analytic
19. The upside-down pyramid view of organizations puts __________ at the top of the pyramid.
a) customers
b) team leaders
c) nonmanagerial workers
d) first-line managers
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Managers act as coaches, coordinators, and supporters.
AACSB: Analytic
20. The upside-down pyramid clearly shows that the job of top managers is to support all EXCEPT the:
a) middle managers.
b) first-line managers.
c) operating workers.
d) chairman of the board.
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Managers act as coaches, coordinators, and supporters.
AACSB: Analytic
21. The process of arousing enthusiasm and inspiring efforts to achieve goals is called _____.
a) leading
b) planning
c) organizing
d) controlling
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
22. The process of assigning tasks, allocating resources, and coordinating the activities of individuals and groups best defines the term:
a) organizing.
b) planning.
c) leading.
d) controlling.
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
23. The process of setting performance objectives and determining what actions should be taken to accomplish them is known as:
a) organizing.
b) planning.
c) leading.
d) controlling.
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
24. Tim is a sales manager at Green Source Corp. He sets a target for his sales team to increase sales by 20 percent in 20 weeks. While giving them suggestions on how to achieve the target, he also announces a 20 percent commission as an incentive. Tim is involved in the __________ function of the management process.
a) controlling
b) organizing
c) planning
d) leading
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
25. At work, Julie focuses on measuring performance and takes the necessary corrective actions. Julie is engaged in the __________ function of the management process.
a) controlling
b) leading
c) organizing
d) planning
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
26. When managers __________, they stay in contact with people as they work, gather and interpret information on performance results, and use this information to make adjustments.
a) plan
b) lead
c) organize
d) control
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers perform informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles.
AACSB: Analytic
27. When Jose acts as a resource allocator for his organization, he is acting in a(n) __________ role.
a) entrepreneurial
b) decisional
c) interpersonal
d) informational
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers perform informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28. __________ is the capacity to attract support and help from others to get things done.
a) Social capital
b) Human capital
c) Cultural capital
d) Intellectual capital
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use networking and social capital to pursue action agendas.
AACSB: Analytic
29. Which of the following set of skills is most important at lower organizational levels?
a) Planning
b) Conceptual
c) Technical
d) Human
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills.
AACSB: Analytic
30. A __________ skill is the ability to work well in cooperation with other people.
a) conceptual
b) decisional
c) technical
d) human
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills
AACSB: Analytic
31. Which of the following skills is the least necessary to senior managers?
a) Technical
b) Leading
c) Conceptual
d) Interpersonal
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills
AACSB: Analytic
32. Which of the following refers to the ability to manage ourselves and our relationships effectively?
a) Technical skill
b) Communication skill
c) Competitive intelligence
d) Emotional intelligence
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills.
AACSB: Analytic
33. Which of the following is NOT one of the six “must-have” managerial skills?
a) Self-management
b) Critical thinking
c) Professionalism
d) Expressiveness
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers can and should learn from experience.
AACSB: Analytic
34. The worldwide interdependence of resource flows, product markets, and business competition that characterize our economy is called __________.
a) nation building
b) corporate dominance
c) globalization
d) strategic marketing
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Analytic
35. Contracting for work that is performed by workers in other countries is called __________.
a) subcontracting
b) job migration
c) global marketing
d) global sourcing
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Analytic
36. Trix International is a furniture company. It procures raw material from Africa, hires artisans from India, and sells the finished products all over the world. Trix International is engaged in __________.
a) inshoring
b) reshoring
c) global sourcing
d) job migration
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37. One controversial side effect to global sourcing is __________.
a) global sourcing
b) reshoring
c) job migration
d) inshoring
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Analytic
38. Pixz International is a multinational computer technology company based in the United States. It had outsourced the production of its microprocessors to China. Now Pixz International is moving its microprocessor production back to the United States. Pixz International is currently engaged in __________.
a) global sourcing
b) reshoring
c) job migration
d) offshoring
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Application
Level: Medium
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39. The moral standards of what is “good” and “right” behavior in organizations and in our personal lives are set by __________.
a) prejudice
b) professionalism
c) ethics
d) rights
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Failures of ethics and corporate governance are troublesome.
AACSB: Analytic
40. The oversight of corporate management by a company’s board of directors is called __________.
a) organizational control
b) corporate governance
c) strategic planning
d) management interference
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Failures of ethics and corporate governance are troublesome.
AACSB: Analytic
41. __________ describes the composition of a workforce based on factors such as race, gender, age, religious affiliation, sexual orientation, and able-bodiedness.
a) Discrimination
b) Prejudice
c) Intellectual capital
d) Workforce diversity
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
42. By 2030, more than __________ percent of the population of the United States will be aged 65 years or older.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
d) 75
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
43. Which of the following terms can be best described as an invisible barrier limiting career advancement of women and minorities?
a) Globalization
b) Prejudice
c) Racial discrimination
d) Glass ceiling effect
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
44. Which of the following terms can be best described as the display of negative, irrational attitudes toward women or minorities?
a) Discrimination
b) Fairness
c) Value system
d) Prejudice
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
45. The lack of women and minorities in senior management positions can be explained by __________.
a) the value system
b) the glass ceiling effect
c) statistics
d) historical data
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
46. In __________, people change jobs more often, and many work on independent contracts with a shifting mix of employers.
a) a shamrock organization
b) a free-agent economy
c) job migration
d) global sourcing
Ans: b
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
47. The collective brainpower or shared knowledge of a workforce is called __________.
a) intellectual capital
b) individual knowledge
c) personality trait
d) groupthink
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
48. Refusing to hire or promote a person from a minority group for reasons other than their qualifications is an example of:
a) affirmative action.
b) prejudice.
c) discrimination.
d) intellectual freedom.
Ans: c
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
49. The intellectual capital equation is: Intellectual Capital = __________.
a) Competency ´ Commitment
b) Personality ´ Effort
c) Competency ´ Money
d) Personality ´ Commitment
Ans: a
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
50. Which of the following terms can be best defined as the reputation people hold in the eyes of others and the talents as evidenced by unique and timely skills and capabilities of real value to potential employers?
a) Social capital
b) Quality of work life
c) Intellectual capital
d) Personal brand
Ans: d
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Self-management skills are essential for career success.
AACSB: Analytic
True/False
51. In effective organizations, there is generally only one type and one level of managers.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
52. The levels of work and responsibility remain fairly constant in management, regardless of the position in the organization.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
53. In the traditional organization, accountability flows downward.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance.
AACSB: Analytic
54. The upside-down pyramid view puts workers at the top of the organization.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Managers act as coaches, coordinators, and supporters.
AACSB: Analytic
55. While there are four functions of management, only the top managers are involved in the planning function.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
56. It is in the organizing function that people are inspired and commitments are built to achieve the goals set in the planning function.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
57. Measuring performance and taking action to get the desired results are part of leading.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
58. To be effective, the management functions are always performed one at a time and step-by-step.
Ans: False
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers perform informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles.
AACSB: Analytic
59. Since much of what a manager needs to get done is beyond their individual capabilities, effective networking can often mean the difference between success and failure.
Ans: True
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use networking and social capital to pursue action agendas.
AACSB: Analytic
60. Through networking, managers build and maintain positive relationships with other people, ideally those whose help might be useful someday in fulfilling their agendas.
Ans: True
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use networking and social capital to pursue action agendas.
AACSB: Analytic
61. Global sourcing involves contracting for work to be performed in other countries.
Ans: True
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Analytic
Fill-in-the-Blank
62. __________ are persons who directly supervise, support, and help activate work efforts of others to achieve performance goals.
Ans: Managers
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
63. __________ managers oversee the work of large departments or divisions consisting of several smaller teams.
Ans: Middle
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
64. The board of directors in a business organization is elected by the __________.
Ans: stockholders
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
AACSB: Analytic
65. __________ describes the requirement of one person to answer to a higher authority for performance achieved in their area of responsibility.
Ans: Accountability
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance.
AACSB: Analytic
66. A manager is held accountable by __________ and is dependent upon his or her __________.
Ans: upper or top management; subordinates or employees
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance
AACSB: Analytic
67. The __________ view of organizations puts customers at the top and being served by nonmanagerial workers who are supported by team leaders and higher-level managers.
Ans: upside-down pyramid
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Section Reference: Managers act as coaches, coordinators, and supporters.
AACSB: Analytic
68. __________ involves building and maintaining positive relationships with other people.
Ans: Networking
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use networking and social capital to pursue action agendas.
AACSB: Analytic
69. The four key functions of management are __________, __________, __________, and __________.
Ans: planning; organizing; leading; controlling
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
70. Managers identify clear action priorities through __________.
Ans: agenda setting
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use networking and social capital to pursue action agendas.
AACSB: Analytic
71. Katz argues that managers need three essential skill sets to be successful, including __________, __________, and __________ skills.
Ans: technical; human; conceptual
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills.
AACSB: Analytic
72. One approach to evaluating the human skills of managers is to look at their level of __________.
Ans: emotional intelligence
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills.
AACSB: Analytic
73. __________ skills gain in importance with the levels of responsibility.
Ans: Conceptual
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills
AACSB: Analytic
74. __________ is the continuous learning from daily experiences.
Ans: Lifelong learning
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers should learn from experience.
AACSB: Analytic
75. __________ is a code of moral principles that sets standards of conduct for what is “good” and “right” as opposed to “bad” or “wrong.”
Ans: Ethics
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Failures of ethics and corporate governance are troublesome.
AACSB: Analytic
76. __________ is the ability to understand oneself, exercise initiative, accept responsibility, and learn from experience.
Ans: Self-management
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Self-management skills are essential for career success.
AACSB: Analytic
Essay
77. Why is a managerial position so challenging?
Ans: Managers have to work through other people to accomplish work. In addition, the environment in which they work is changing, accountability is increasing, and the pace of work is hectic. Added to this, the work being done is critical to society.
Bloom’s: Evaluation
Level: Hard
Learning Objective 1: Understand what it means to be a manager.
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Organizations have different types and levels of managers.
Section Reference: Accountability is a foundation of managerial performance.
Section Reference: Managers perform informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles.
Section Reference: Managers can and should learn from experience.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
78. Name the four steps in the management process and define each of them.
Ans: The four steps in the management process are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. Planning involves setting performance objectives and the strategies for meeting them. Organizing involves arranging tasks and assigning the responsibilities and other resources required to complete them. Leading includes inspiring and motivating employees who must do the work. Controlling involves measuring performance and taking necessary corrective actions.
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers plan, organize, lead, and control.
AACSB: Analytic
79. Name the three types of skills that managers need and define each of them.
Ans: The skills that managers need are conceptual, human, and technical. Conceptual skills include analytical decision making and integrative problem solving. Human skills are interpersonal skills and include the ability to communicate and work well with others. Technical skills are the professional skills necessary to effectively and efficiently perform a task.
Bloom’s: Knowledge
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers use technical, human, and conceptual skills.
AACSB: Analytic
80. Describe how managers actually get things done utilizing Mintzberg’s three sets of roles that he believed all good managers enact successfully. Provide an example of each.
Ans: Henry Mintzberg identified three sets of roles that he believed all good managers enact successfully. These are the informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles. A manager’s informational roles focus on the giving, receiving, and analyzing of information. The interpersonal roles reflect interactions with people inside and outside the work unit. The decisional roles involve using information to make decisions to solve problems or address opportunities. It is through performing all of these roles, so to speak, that managers fulfill their planning, organizing, leading, and controlling responsibilities. Student examples will vary.
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 2: Know what managers do and what skills they use.
Section Reference: Managers perform informational, interpersonal, and decisional roles.
AACSB: Analytic
81. Describe Charles Handy’s shamrock organization. Provide an example of each leaf.
Ans: British scholar and consultant Charles Handy uses the analogy of the shamrock organization to describe the implications as more workers shift to contract rather than full-time employment. Each leaf in the shamrock organization represents a different group of workers. The first leaf is a core group of permanent, full-time employees with critical skills, who follow standard career paths. The second leaf consists of workers hired as freelancers and independent contractors. They provide organizations with specialized skills and talents for specific projects and then change employers when projects are completed. An increasing number of jobs in the new economy fall into this category. Some call this a time of “giganomics,” where even well-trained professionals make their livings moving from one “gig” to the next, instead of holding a traditional full-time job. The third leaf is a group of temporary part-timers. Their hours of work increase or decrease as the needs of the business rise or fall. They often work without benefits and are the first to lose their jobs when an employer runs into economic difficulties.
Bloom’s: Comprehension
Level: Easy
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Diversity and discrimination are continuing social priorities.
AACSB: Analytic
82. Do you support the recent practice of firms reshoring jobs? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Ans: Student answers will vary.
Bloom’s: Evaluation
Level: Hard
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Globalization and job migration have changed the world of work.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
83. As a manager of an organization, how would you enhance your personal brand?
Ans: Student answers will vary.
Bloom’s: Evaluation
Level: Hard
Learning Objective 3: Recognize important career issues in the workplace.
Section Reference: Self-management skills are essential for career success.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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Test Bank Exploring Macroeconomics 4th Edition Solution
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Chapter 1
The Role and Method of Economics
Section 1.1 Economics: A Brief Introduction
1. The definition of economics must recognize the central parts of the economist’s point of view: Resources are scarce, scarcity forces us to make choices, and the cost of any choice is the cost of the lost opportunity with the highest value.
2. a. Microeconomics
b. Macroeconomics
c. Microeconomics
d. Macroeconomics
e. Microeconomics
Section 1.2 Economic Theory
3. a. Both normative and positive statements. This first statement (positive statement) expresses a fact or a testable theory that a higher income tax rate would generate increased tax revenues. The second statement (normative statement) expresses an opinion regarding how any additional tax revenues should be used.
b. Normative statements. Both statements are expressions of opinion, the first regarding the relative value of studying physics as opposed to sociology, and the second regarding the value of studying either physics or sociology.
c. Positive statements. Both statements are expressions of facts or testable theories regarding the relationship between the price of wheat and how much wheat will be purchased and produced.
d. Both normative and positive statements. The first statement (positive statement) expresses a fact or testable theory regarding the relationship between the price of butter and how much will be purchased. The second statement (normative statement) is an expression of opinion about the social value of buying butter.
e. Positive statements. Both statements are expressions of fact or testable theory regarding demographic change.
4. a. Positive. The statement is a testable hypothesis.
b. Normative. Asserting that social assistance should be increased contains a value judgment about the costs and benefits of doing so.
c. Positive. The statement expresses a fact or a testable theory that higher tariffs will result in higher prices for domestic wine.
d. Positive. The statement could be confirmed or refuted by empirical data.
e. Normative. Charging provincial sales taxes will raise government revenue and level the playing field with non-Internet retailers at a cost of reducing total Internet-based sales and other negative effects. The statement implies a value judgment that the benefits outweigh the costs.
f. Positive. The statement is subject to empirical testing.
5. The statement illustrates the fallacy of composition—it assumes that what is true for one person must be true for all others.
6. a. This involves confusing correlation with causation.
b. This involves confusing correlation with causation.
c. This involves the fallacy of composition.
d. This is a violation of the ceteris paribus conditions.
e. There is no fallacy in this statement.
Section 1.3 Scarcity
7. Being poor means that you have access to few resources, which limits the goods and services you consume. Scarcity means you don’t have enough resources to do everything you want to do, so you have to make choices. Everyone experiences scarcity, because we can always think of more things that we want than we can produce with our resources.
8. The automobile freed Canadians to travel and helped to create the tourism business. New wants included motels, resorts, and theme parks. The increased importance of auto and truck transportation also created the desire for more and better roads and highways. The auto also allowed people to live farther from where they worked, so that people wanted more land and newer houses.
9. Scarce goods are those that people pay for in either time or money or, in other words, have an opportunity cost. Garbage and dirty air in the city are not scarce goods since we either pay to get rid of them or pay with the consequences of their presence. Similarly, salt water is not a scarce good—although it is in limited supply, there is no price you need to pay to obtain some (assuming you are on the shore). Clothes, clean air, and public libraries are scarce goods because their production requires the use of scarce resources that could be used for the production of other goods.
Section 1.4 Opportunity Cost
10. Since Sarah’s time is probably worth more during the school year (it would cost part of her salary), the opportunity cost of the trip is higher in February than in July.
11. The opportunity cost of this decision valued in dollars would be $33.50 ($30 forgone pay for not tutoring for two hours + $3.50 for the cup of coffee).
12. No. First of all, Pizza Pizza uses scarce resources to produce the pizza slices, so a slice of pizza is not “free” to Pizza Pizza. Secondly, if people value their time at all, ten minutes standing in line to get the slice carries an opportunity cost equal to the value to those people of whatever else they could have done with the ten minutes.
13. a. The opportunity cost of going to college or university includes the income you could have earned by working instead; it also includes the money spent on school-specific expenses like tuition and textbooks. Room and board and transportation would not necessarily be included since you would need those services even if you were not going to school.
b. The opportunity cost of missing a lecture includes the potential damage to one’s grade in a course from not being present while important subject material is covered, as well as the knowledge’s forgone value in the “real world.” The magnitude of the opportunity cost depends partly on how much essential information the instructor provides during the missed class session.
c. The opportunity cost of spending $100 today is the $105 you could have spent next year. If you are withdrawing the money just to have cash in your pocket, the opportunity cost of holding money is the 5 percent interest you could have been earning.
d. The opportunity cost of snowboarding the weekend before final examinations is the expected reduction in grades that will result, in addition to the cost of a lift ticket.
Section 1.5 Marginal Thinking
14. a. $50; $25
b. 3; 5; Mark would go as long as his marginal benefit was greater than the admission price.
c. Yes; 6; Mark would buy the pass because his total benefits exceed his total cost. Once he has the pass, the marginal cost of attending one more day becomes zero, so he will go as long as his marginal benefits exceed zero.
15. a. $57; $88
b. 43; 44; He would produce as long as the price (marginal benefit) exceeded the marginal cost.
16. The marginal benefits of jaywalking are the time savings and convenience of crossing the street where you want. The marginal costs are the additional risk of being hit by a car and the risk of being fined for jaywalking.
a. Increases cost by increasing the risk of being hit by a car.
b. Lowers cost by lowering the risk of being hit by a car and the risk of being fined.
c. Increases the benefit because of the higher value of time savings.
d. Increases cost because of a higher risk of receiving a fine.
e. The time and convenience benefits are larger.
f. The time and convenience benefits are smaller.
Section 1.6 Incentives Matter
17. Positive incentives are those that either increase benefits or reduce costs and thus tend to increase the level of an activity. Both of the following are examples of positive incentives: (b) a trip to Hawaii paid for by your parents or significant other for earning an “A” in your economics course; (d) a subsidy for installing solar panels on your house. Negative incentives either reduce benefits or increase costs, and thus tend to decrease the level of the related activity or behaviour. Both of the following are examples of negative incentives: (a) a fine for not cleaning up after your dog defecates in the park; (c) a higher tax on cigarettes and alcohol.
18. Singapore’s tough drug-trafficking penalty would clearly impact the cost−benefit ratios of would-be smugglers. Lighter sentences would probably result in more drug smuggling because the overall cost of breaking the law would be reduced.
19. The Chinese government is attempting to promote population control. As the world’s most populated country (2013), China has historically struggled with controlling population growth in it attempts to manage economic growth and national standards of living. The sanctions and penalties associated with not following the one-child policy would be considered negative incentives designed to discourage couples from having more than one child. The rewards and honours associated with following the policy would be considered positive incentives designed to promote adherence to the policy.
Section 1.7 Specialization and Trade
20. Denying trade possibilities also eliminates the possibility of specialization. In autarky, a country must produce everything it consumes. Scarce resources will be wasted producing goods with higher opportunity costs. Trading would allow the country to produce more with the same resources.
21. The opportunity cost of growing soybeans is the lost value because Fran can’t grow corn worth $1800 (3000 kg × $0.60). The opportunity cost of growing corn on her land is the lost opportunity to grow and sell soybeans, which equals $2250 (1500 kg × $1.50). Fran should specialize in soybeans, which is the crop with the lowest opportunity cost. For each hectare of corn Fran converts to soybeans, she will gain $450.
22. a. Canada has a comparative advantage in wheat.
b. Colombia has a comparative advantage in coffee.
c. British Columbia has a comparative advantage in lumber.
d. Alberta has a comparative advantage in oil.
23. If the country or region with the lower opportunity cost produces the good, the opportunity cost of consuming that good is minimized. Trade allows people, countries, and regions to specialize in producing those goods in which they have the lowest opportunity cost, so reducing trade restrictions will encourage specialization, thereby increasing efficiency.
Section 1.8 The Three Economic Questions Every Society Faces
24. The three basic economic questions are: What is to be produced? How are these goods to be produced? For whom are the goods produced? Scarcity requires that these questions be addressed in some way by every economy. Market economies answer these questions in a decentralized way through the interaction of millions of buyers and sellers. In command economies, decisions are made largely through planning boards. The manner in which an economic system answers these questions helps determine the allocation of limited resources.
25. Hollywood will probably make more movies like Titanic because of consumer sovereignty. Consumers, “voting” with their dollars, have shown they want movies like Titanic. Since movie studios are in the business to make money, not simply movies, they will produce what the consumers want, not what the critics like.
26. No, Karl is wrong. Markets provide important signals, and the signal being sent in this situation is that Adam should look for some other means of support—something that society values. Remember the function of consumer sovereignty in the marketplace. Clearly, consumers were not voting for Adam’s art.
Appendix
Working with Graphs
1. A (−2, 2)
B (2, 1)
C (3, 2)
D (−1, −2)
E (2, –1)
F (−2, −1)
2. a. 8%
b. 20%
c. Two-door sedan
d. All-electric
3. a. Semester 1
b. Semesters 3 and 4
c. Semester 2
d. Total number of boys: 372; total number of girls: 366
4. Graph 1: Upward sloping
Graph 2: Downward sloping
Graph 3: Unrelated
5. a. 2
b. −3
c. –0.5
d. Undefined
e. 0
6. a. 50%
b. 5%
c. 0.8%
d. 5%
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Test Bank Exploring Macroeconomics 3rd Edition
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Chapter 1—The Role and Method of Economics
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is economics most concerned with?
a.
how to reduce inflation
b.
how to profit from trading in the stock market
c.
studying how we allocate scarce resources to satisfy unlimited wants
d.
government taxation and spending
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
2. What is the central concern of economics?
a.
how to regulate the supply of money
b.
how to reduce the wants of individuals, businesses, and government
c.
how to find more resources to satisfy everyone's wants
d.
how to make the best use of scarce resources to satisfy our unlimited wants
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
3. Why is there scarcity?
a.
because average costs may exceed average benefits
b.
because human wants are limited
c.
because theory dictates it
d.
because our unlimited wants exceed our limited resources
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
4. Why does the problem of scarcity exist?
a.
because resources are limited relative to wants
b.
because governments fail to intervene in the market place
c.
because resources are unlimited relative to wants
d.
because the world has many poor people
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
5. What does scarcity result from?
a.
government decision making
b.
positive economics
c.
wants that exceed the resources necessary to provide them
d.
inappropriate normative judgments
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
6. What causes scarcity?
a.
the allocation of goods by prices
b.
specialization and division of labour
c.
unlimited wants and limited resources
d.
the market mechanism
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
7. What does economics primarily explore?
a.
how the government allocates its budget among competing political interests
b.
how stock and bond prices fluctuate when there are changes in demand or supply
c.
how goods and services are produced and distributed in a world with limited resources
d.
how businesses market products under competitive conditions
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
8. What is economics primarily the study of?
a.
how firms compete for profits in the marketplace
b.
how limited resources are allocated to satisfy unlimited wants
c.
how we deal with unemployed resources
d.
how prices are set in the marketplace
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
9. What do economists mean when they state that a good is scarce?
a.
People will want to buy more of the good regardless of price.
b.
It is impossible to expand the availability of the good.
c.
Our wants exceed our limited resources.
d.
There is a shortage of the good at a sale price.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
10. Which of the following statements about scarcity is the most accurate?
a.
It occurs only in centrally planned economies.
b.
It will likely be eliminated by technological progress.
c.
It occurs if there are insufficient resources to provide for human wants.
d.
It exists only in poor nations.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Application
11. According to most economists, what is the fundamental economic problem?
a.
unemployment
b.
government intervention into markets
c.
poverty
d.
scarcity
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
12. What do all economic problems arise from?
a.
scarcity
b.
too little currency available in circulation
c.
high unemployment rates
d.
competition
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
13. As defined by an economist, what does the word scarcity mean?
a.
Consumers are too poor to purchase the available goods and services.
b.
Demand exceeds supply at the current market price.
c.
The desire for goods exceeds our ability to produce them with limited available resources.
d.
Supply exceeds demand at the current market price.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
14. Which of the following statements best describes the problem of scarcity?
a.
Scarcity means that shortages occur at the existing market price.
b.
It is impossible to satisfy unlimited human wants with limited resources.
c.
When there is scarcity, individuals do not face trade-offs.
d.
As a result of scarcity, individuals do not have the ability to make choices.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
15. What problem is caused when not all human wants can be satisfied with current resources and technology?
a.
scarcity
b.
normative economics
c.
the fallacy of composition
d.
ceteris paribus
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
16. What does economics primarily study?
a.
how to interpret corporate balance sheets and income statements
b.
how choices are made because of scarcity
c.
how to make money in the stock market
d.
how to operate a business
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
17. What do economists mean when they say goods are scarce?
a.
Government programs are needed to lift families out of poverty.
b.
At the current price, consumers are willing to buy more of a good than suppliers are willing to produce.
c.
Consumers do not have enough money to purchase the goods.
d.
The desire for goods and services exceeds our ability to produce them with limited resources.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 1
BLM: Application
18. Which of the following statements about scarcity is the most accurate?
a.
It is a problem that solely exits in the developing world.
b.
It is only a problem in centrally planned economies.
c.
It is a problem that necessitates making choices and trade-offs.
d.
It is only a problem in modern industrialized economies.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
19. Which of the following statements best describes scarcity?
a.
There will always be families living below the poverty line.
b.
Human wants are limited.
c.
Limited resources cannot satisfy all of our unlimited human wants.
d.
Resources are unlimited.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
20. What is economics the study of?
a.
how people deal with limited human wants
b.
how people cope with fluctuations in stock prices
c.
how people deal with greed
d.
how people cope with limited resources
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
21. Which of the following most accurately describes a “scarce” good?
a.
a good for which available resources are insufficient to satisfy unlimited human desires for it
b.
a good that is always in demand at any price
c.
a good for which there is a shortage at the current market price
d.
a good for which it is impossible to increase production any further given the available resources and technology
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
22. What question is economics fundamentally concerned with?
a.
How can limited wants be used to satisfy limited resources?
b.
How are limited resources allocated to satisfy unlimited wants?
c.
How are scarce resources allocated to satisfy limited wants?
d.
How are limited resources allocated to satisfy scarce wants?
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
23. Which of the following statements best describes the study of scarcity?
a.
using limited resources in order to best satisfy our unlimited desires
b.
using limited resources in order to promote full employment and price stability
c.
using unlimited resources in order to promote full employment and price stability
d.
using unlimited resources in order to best satisfy our unlimited desires
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
24. What is the primary concern of economics?
a.
studying limited desires in the face of unlimited resources
b.
studying problems such as poverty and unemployment
c.
studying production and distribution of goods in a world of unlimited resources
d.
studying production and distribution of goods in a world of limited resources
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Knowledge
25. Which of following statements about economics is the most accurate?
a.
It explores how choices are made between conflicting wants and desires in a world of scarcity.
b.
It relies entirely upon normative analysis.
c.
It typically uses controlled experiments to learn about consumer and firm behaviour.
d.
It uses models that cannot be tested empirically due to the complex nature of the economy.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
26. What is the solution to solving the fundamental economic problem?
a.
to allocate limited resources among competing uses
b.
to guarantee everyone on the planet a minimum level of food, shelter, and clean water
c.
to eliminate poverty in the developing world
d.
to increase the amount of leisure time available to people
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 1
BLM: Comprehension
27. Which of the following statements about economics is the most accurate?
a.
It is concerned with predicting business conditions in the future, not with the current state of the stock market.
b.
It is a natural science like biology and chemistry.
c.
It is composed of two main branches known as positive and normative economics.
d.
It is a science concerned with reaching generalizations about human behaviour, not unlike sociology or psychology.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
28. Which of the following statements about economics is the most accurate?
a.
It concerns itself only with monetary decisions.
b.
It says very little about "everyday life."
c.
It is a narrowly focused discipline.
d.
It is a broad-ranging, problem-solving discipline.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
29. Which of the following would be studied in a microeconomics course?
a.
how the economy's total output is measured
b.
the amount of unemployment in Canada
c.
the production decisions made by individual firms
d.
the effect of a recession on the economy
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
30. Who makes economic decisions?
a.
They are only made by government leaders.
b.
They are made in both the private and public sectors.
c.
They are only made where monetary exchanges take place.
d.
They are only made at the management level of corporations.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
31. What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
a.
Microeconomics explores the causes of inflation, while macroeconomics focuses on the causes of unemployment.
b.
Microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers, while macroeconomics focuses on the behaviour of firms.
c.
Microeconomics concentrates on the behaviour of individual consumers and firms, while macroeconomics focuses on the performance of the entire economy.
d.
Microeconomics concentrates on individual markets, while macroeconomics focuses primarily on international trade.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
32. What two main branches of study can economics be divided into?
a.
capitalism and communism
b.
microeconomics and macroeconomics
c.
demand and supply
d.
capitalism and socialism
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
33. Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in macroeconomics?
a.
an increase in the price of food
b.
a decrease in the production of DVD players by a consumer electronics company
c.
a decrease in the unemployment rate
d.
an increase in the wage rate paid to automobile workers
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
34. What is the term for the branch of economics that studies the decisions made by individual firms and consumers?
a.
microeconomics
b.
normative economics
c.
macroeconomics
d.
positive economics
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
35. What is the term for the branch of economics that studies the aggregate decisions of all households and all firms?
a.
normative economics
b.
microeconomics
c.
positive economics
d.
macroeconomics
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
36. Which of the following statements most likely lies within the realm of microeconomics?
a.
An increase in government spending will increase the aggregate demand for goods and services in the economy.
b.
An increase in labour costs will increase the cost of producing another airplane.
c.
Unemployment rises during a recession and falls during an expansion.
d.
A rapid acceleration of the supply of money may create inflation.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
37. Which of the following statements most likely lies within the realm of macroeconomics?
a.
Due to process innovations in computer chip manufacturing, the market supply of computers increased.
b.
Due to an economic recession, manufacturing firms began implementing layoffs of their workforces.
c.
An increase in the price of automobiles will lead to a decrease in the quantity of automobiles demanded.
d.
Anticipating that the benefits would outweigh costs involved, an undergraduate student purchases the course textbook.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
38. What type of science do most people consider economics to be?
a.
a social science
b.
an accounting science
c.
a physical science
d.
an earth science
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
39. Which topic does macroeconomics usually NOT include?
a.
the rate of unemployment
b.
the rate of inflation
c.
the profit maximizing decisions of an individual manufacturer
d.
economic growth
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
40. Which of the following lies primarily within the realm of microeconomics?
a.
an economic model forecasting the impact of a tax increase on consumer spending and national output
b.
a model forecasting the impact of a change in interest rates on the level of investment in the economy
c.
an empirical analysis of the relationship between the growth of the money supply and the rate of inflation
d.
a study of supply and demand conditions in the market for orange juice
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
41. Which of the following lies primarily within the realm of macroeconomics?
a.
a study of the elasticity of demand for gasoline
b.
a study of how tax cuts stimulate aggregate production
c.
a study of the impact of "mad cow" disease on the price of beef worldwide
d.
an analysis of supply and demand conditions in the electricity market
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
42. Which of the following is most likely a topic of discussion in a microeconomics course?
a.
an increase in the rate of inflation
b.
an increase in the number of jobless individuals filing employment insurance claims
c.
an increase in the price of lumber used to construct houses
d.
a decrease in the share of national income paid to the government in taxes
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
43. What is the basic difference between macroeconomics and microeconomics?
a.
Microeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets), while macroeconomics is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets).
b.
Macroeconomics is concerned with positive economics, while microeconomics is concerned with normative economics.
c.
Macroeconomics is concerned with policy decisions, while microeconomics applies only to theory.
d.
Microeconomics looks at the forest (aggregate markets), while macroeconomics is concerned with the trees (individual markets).
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
44. What is the term for the branch of economics that focuses on outcomes in highly aggregated markets, such as the markets for labour or consumer products?
a.
normative economics
b.
macroeconomics
c.
Marxian economics
d.
positive economics
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
45. What is the term for the branch of economics that focuses on the conduct of affairs within narrowly defined units, such as households or business firms?
a.
macroeconomics
b.
applied economics
c.
socioeconomics
d.
microeconomics
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
46. What topic does microeconomics NOT usually include?
a.
how firms choose output to maximize profits
b.
how consumers maximize utility subject to a budget constraint
c.
how wages are determined in the labour market
d.
how national income is calculated
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
47. What is the term for the branch of economics that studies the economy as a whole?
a.
positive economics
b.
microeconomics
c.
normative economics
d.
macroeconomics
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
48. Which of the following best describes macroeconomics?
a.
It is narrower in scope than microeconomics.
b.
It is concerned with the expansion of a small sole proprietorship into a large corporation.
c.
It is concerned with the expansion and contraction of the overall economy.
d.
It analyzes mergers and acquisitions between firms.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
49. Which topic does microeconomics NOT usually include?
a.
the determinants of the demand for DVD players by consumers
b.
the impact of large government budget deficits on private investment spending
c.
the regulation of monopoly firms
d.
the determinants of the supply of wheat by farmers
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Application
50. Which topic does macroeconomics NOT generally include?
a.
government spending and taxation
b.
aggregate demand
c.
the production decisions of individual firms
d.
inflation
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
51. Which area of study is most concerned with measuring the rate of inflation?
a.
macroeconomics
b.
microeconomics
c.
normative economics
d.
positive economics
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
52. What area of economic study is most concerned with the determination of prices in the market for automobiles?
a.
microeconomics
b.
normative economics
c.
macroeconomics
d.
positive economics
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
53. Which of the following statements about microeconomics is the most accurate?
a.
It is a "positive" science, whereas macroeconomics is a "normative" science.
b.
It provides an overall view of the economy and how it functions.
c.
It explores the behaviour of individual consumers and firms when confronted with scarcity.
d.
It examines the aggregate behaviour of consumers and firms when confronted with scarcity.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 3
BLM: Comprehension
54. What does microeconomics primarily examine?
a.
the behaviour of firms and how they interact with each other in the marketplace
b.
the overall economy, especially fiscal and monetary policy
c.
the behaviour of households but not firms
d.
the behaviour of both firms and households and how they interact in the marketplace
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
55. What does macroeconomics primarily examine?
a.
broad issues such as national output, employment, and inflation
b.
how prices are determined within individual markets
c.
the behaviour of individual households and firms
d.
the output levels that maximize the profits of business firms
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
56. How do microeconomics and macroeconomics differ?
a.
Microeconomics is concerned with consumer behaviour, while macroeconomics is concerned with firm behaviour.
b.
Microeconomics utilizes positive economic analysis, while macroeconomics utilizes normative economic analysis.
c.
Microeconomics studies aggregate decision making, while macroeconomics examines individual decision making.
d.
Microeconomics studies individual decision making, while macroeconomics examines aggregate decision making.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 3
BLM: Knowledge
57. How is an economic hypothesis tested?
a.
by comparing the hypothesis's prediction to real-world data
b.
by using a controlled experiment
c.
by assessing the realism of its assumptions
d.
by assessing the level of descriptive detail
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Application
58. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the concept of economic theory?
a.
It should be as detailed as possible in order to model the complexity of an economy.
b.
It is an abstraction from reality.
c.
It is only useful if it rests on realistic assumptions.
d.
It is unrealistic and therefore of questionable usefulness in explaining what occurs in a complex economy.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Comprehension
59. What is the basis of a good economic theory?
a.
It explains economic behaviour and predicts well.
b.
It rests on assumptions.
c.
It always provides a highly detailed analysis of an economic sector.
d.
It can best be expressed mathematically.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
60. What is the basis of a good economic theory?
a.
It relies on simplifying assumptions in order to explain economic behaviour.
b.
It does not rely on simplifying assumptions.
c.
It includes every detail that affects the economic behaviour of interest.
d.
It relies on conducting uncontrolled experiments.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Comprehension
61. Which of the following statements about testing an economic hypothesis is the most accurate?
a.
It can be tested using empirical analysis.
b.
It can be tested using normative analysis.
c.
It cannot be tested since it is normative in nature.
d.
It cannot be tested since it is a positive economic statement.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
62. What is a hypothesis?
a.
It is a normative economic statement.
b.
It is a testable proposition.
c.
It is a statement that cannot be evaluated using real-world data.
d.
It is a model with no connection to the real world.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
63. What is the definition of a theory?
a.
It is an untestable assertion or statement of untestable fact.
b.
It is a normative statement that can be tested empirically through analysis of real-world data.
c.
It is a testable statement that can be definitively proven to be true or false using empirical analysis.
d.
It is a deliberate simplification of factual relationships that attempts to explain and predict how those relationships work.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
64. How does an economist define a good economic theory?
a.
an abstraction from reality useful for explaining but not predicting behaviour (since theories are too simplistic)
b.
an opinion that can be tested against economic data
c.
an abstraction for the sake of argument
d.
a statement or relationship that is used to explain and predict human behaviour
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
65. How is an economic theory tested?
a.
by assessing the realism of its assumptions
b.
by comparing and contrasting its simplicity with related theories
c.
by comparing its predictions with real-world observations
d.
by polling economists to see if there is consensus as to the validity of the hypothesis
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
66. Why do economists need to develop abstractions?
a.
to avoid analyzing real-world economic interactions, which are too complicated to understand
b.
to understand and explain economic behaviour
c.
to avoid committing the fallacy of composition
d.
to distinguish normative economic behaviour from positive economic behaviour
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 4
BLM: Comprehension
67. What is the difference between a theory and a hypothesis?
a.
A hypothesis is a testable proposition and is tentatively accepted as a theory.
b.
A hypothesis abstracts from reality while a theory describes reality.
c.
A theory is not an established explanation but a hypothesis is.
d.
A theory abstracts from reality while a hypothesis describes reality.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4
BLM: Knowledge
68. Which of the following describes the chain of events involved in creating a theory?
a.
Gather data, evaluate results, tentatively accept the theory, and support or refute the hypothesis.
b.
Select a theory, create a hypothesis, and evaluate the evidence.
c.
Formulate a hypothesis, gather data, evaluate the results, support or refute the hypothesis, and tentatively accept theory.
d.
Predict behaviour, evaluate the results, and formulate a hypothesis.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4-5
BLM: Knowledge
69. An economist at the University of Alberta in Edmonton has been asked to explain why the price of Albertan crude oil has fallen recently. Which steps should the professor take in order to assemble a scholarly answer?
a.
Develop a hypothesis, test the proposition by engaging in empirical analysis, and examine the data to see if it fits with the facts.
b.
Gather data on crude oil prices and seemingly unrelated variables in order to look for associations, then formulate a hypothesis based on those unexpected associations.
c.
The oil industry is controlled by a cartel and the economist should gather data from other similarly structured industries to determine a theory.
d.
Use a questionnaire to determine why residents of Alberta are not purchasing oil and create a theory based on this data.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 4-5
BLM: Application
70. Why is economics different from a "hard" science like physics?
a.
Economists cannot easily control all the variables that might influence human behaviour.
b.
Economists have to control fewer variables than what is found in a physics experiment.
c.
Economic experiments are easier to conduct than those in physics.
d.
Economists abstract from reality in creating their theories.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
71. Which of the following statements describing the relationship between theory and hypothesis is most accurate?
a.
A hypothesis is a theory whose formulation relies on mathematics.
b.
A theory may result from a tested and confirmed hypothesis.
c.
"Theory" and "hypothesis" are interchangeable terms meaning the same thing.
d.
A hypothesis may result from a tested and confirmed theory.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
72. Which of the following is NOT a reason that economists use theories?
a.
to explain and help predict human behaviour
b.
to understand economic behaviour
c.
to develop a testable hypothesis
d.
to abstract from the complexities of the world
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
73. On what basis is the best test of an economic theory?
a.
on the accuracy of its assumptions
b.
on the rigour of its mathematical formulation
c.
on the ability of it to explain and predict
d.
on the level of real-world detail it captures
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
74. An economist might hypothesize that people will buy less gasoline at a price of $1.20 per litre than at $1.00 per litre. In order for the hypothesis to become a theory, it would have to be tested. Which of the following observations would seem to support this hypothesis?
a.
Individuals buy less gas because they are purchasing more fuel-efficient vehicles.
b.
Gasoline consumption varies with the quantity of cars purchased in each region.
c.
Individuals in each region respond to an increase in price by purchasing less gasoline.
d.
People in each region buy the same amount of gasoline regardless of the price.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 5
BLM: Analysis
75. What does the term "ceteris paribus" mean when used by an economist?
a.
Their conclusions are based on normative rather than positive economic analysis.
b.
The causal relationship between two economic variables cannot be determined.
c.
The analysis is true for the individual but not for the economy as a whole.
d.
All other variables except the ones specified are assumed to be constant.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 5
BLM: Knowledge
76. What does the term "ceteris paribus" mean?
a.
Everything is variable.
b.
What is true for the individual is not necessarily true for the whole.
c.
All variables except those specified are constant.
d.
No one knows which variables will change and which will remain constant.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
77. What do economists use the term "ceteris paribus" to indicate?
a.
Supply and demand are in balance.
b.
Their conclusions are based on normative rather than positive economic analysis.
c.
Other things are assumed to remain constant.
d.
The analysis is true for the individual but not for the economy as a whole.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 5
BLM: Knowledge
78. What does "ceteris paribus" mean?
a.
If events A and B occur together, one must cause the other.
b.
Other things are held constant.
c.
What is true for the individual must be true for the whole.
d.
All relevant details are included.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 5
BLM: Knowledge
79. Why is the ceteris paribus assumption important?
a.
It allows one to separate normative economic issues from positive economic ones.
b.
It allows one to analyze the relationship between two variables apart from the influence of other variables.
c.
It allows one to hold all variables constant so the economy can be carefully observed in a suspended state.
d.
It allows one to generalize from the whole to the individual.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 5
BLM: Comprehension
80. A theory asserts that manufacturers are less willing to sell units of output as the price of goods decreases. However, as the price of computers fell throughout the 1990s, more computers were sold. Which of the following explanations of the apparent conflict between theory and data is most accurate?
a.
It is likely that variables other than the price and quantity of computers sold were changing.
b.
The theory must be invalid.
c.
The theory rests on assumptions that are too simplistic.
d.
All variables other than the price and quantity of computers sold were unchanged.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 5
BLM: Analysis
81. A theory asserts that consumers will purchase less of a good at higher prices than they will at lower prices. However, when the average price of cars increased throughout the 1990s, more cars were purchased. Which of the following explanations of the apparent conflict between theory and data is most accurate?
a.
The price and quantity data gathered by researchers was clearly measured incorrectly.
b.
It is likely that variables other than the price and quantity of cars demanded were changing.
c.
The ceteris paribus assumption is valid.
d.
The theory must be invalid.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 5
BLM: Analysis
82. A scientist is trying to test a theory about the relationship between people's consumption of alcohol and their longevity. Which of the following variables would the scientist NOT hold constant?
a.
the past histories of heart and lung disease
b.
the amount of dietary fat that people in the experimental group consumed
c.
the amount of alcohol that people in the experimental group consumed
d.
the amount of cigarettes that people in the experimental group smoked
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 5
BLM: Application
83. Which of the following statements describing correlation is the most accurate?
a.
Two sets of phenomena may be related, but one does not necessarily cause the other.
b.
When two phenomena are not observed together, one still causes the other.
c.
When two phenomena are repeatedly observed together, one must cause the other.
d.
Two sets of phenomena are not related and one may in fact cause the other.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Knowledge
84. If individuals who sit in the back of the classroom receive lower grades on average than the rest of the class, does that mean that sitting in the back of a classroom causes one to perform poorly on exams?
a.
The reoccurrence of such a relationship is sufficient evidence that sitting in the back of a classroom will lead to lower grades.
b.
It is not possible for an economist to determine causation between variables.
c.
The reoccurrence of a certain relationship between two variables does not necessarily imply causation.
d.
The reoccurrence of such a relationship is sufficient evidence that students who receive low grades prefer to keep a low profile and always sit in the back of the classroom.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 6
BLM: Application
85. Ten-year-old Tommy observes that people who play hockey are larger than average and tells his mom that he's going to play hockey because it will make him big and strong. What is the problem with Tommy’s logic?
a.
He is committing the fallacy of composition.
b.
He is committing the fallacy of decomposition.
c.
He is violating the ceteris paribus assumption.
d.
He is mistaking correlation for causation.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Analysis
86. Many people have heard that the US stock market rises when a team from the National Football Conference (NFC) wins the Super Bowl, and falls when a team from the American Football Conference (AFC) is victorious. If you conclude that there is a causal relationship between the outcome of the Super Bowl and stock prices, you probably are making what mistake?
a.
You are committing the fallacy of composition.
b.
You are violating the ceteris paribus assumption.
c.
You are confusing correlation with causation.
d.
You are confusing the direction of causality; stock prices determine which team wins the Super Bowl.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Analysis
87. A student football team manager examined variables influencing the team's record and concluded that the best scores resulted when the "third-string" team played the most minutes. Therefore he recommended that the third-string team become the first team. Why is this conclusion probably erroneous?
a.
He failed to recognize that correlation is not causation.
b.
He did not review the entire game strategy carefully enough.
c.
He committed the fallacy of composition.
d.
He confused positive and normative analysis.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Analysis
88. If rain dancing is correlated with rain, does that necessarily mean rain dancing causes rain?
a.
No. This is an example of the fallacy of composition.
b.
No. Two variables may be correlated without one necessarily causing the other.
c.
Yes. This is an example of a failure to properly employ the ceteris paribus assumption.
d.
Yes. If it rains after individuals have engaged in rain dancing, then there is certainly causation at work.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Analysis
89. If Canadian consumers bought more gasoline in 2007 (when prices averaged $1.30 per litre) than they did in 1980 (when prices averaged $0.40 per litre), does that mean that people buy more gasoline at higher prices?
a.
Yes, because gasoline is a luxury good that consumers willingly purchase—even at higher prices.
b.
Yes, because gas is a necessity that is in short supply. Consumers are always willing to buy more gasoline—even at higher prices.
c.
No, because there is too little information provided about inflation, consumer income and other variables to make an appropriate comparison.
d.
No, because prices cannot be compared over time.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Analysis
90. What would an economist predict would happen if airfares to Europe were to increase?
a.
Airlines would make significantly greater profits.
b.
Most people would not change their travel and vacation plans.
c.
More individuals would choose to fly to Europe because now it is a more valuable experience.
d.
Many individuals would substitute toward other travel destinations.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 6
BLM: Application
91. "When one hockey team spends a large sum of money acquiring better players, it is better off. If all teams do the same thing, all of them are better off." What is this statement an illustration of?
a.
the fallacy of composition
b.
the ceteris paribus condition
c.
a misunderstanding of the direction of causality
d.
confusing correlation with causation
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 7
BLM: Application
92. Which of the following best illustrates the fallacy of composition?
a.
If Mr. Ahmad had more money, he would buy a new car; if he had a new car, he would have less money.
b.
If Mr. Mua had more money, he could buy more goods; if the Mua family had more money, it could buy additional goods.
c.
If Ms. Smith had more money, she would buy her children more gifts; if her children had more gifts, they would be happier.
d.
If Ms. Shiflet had more money, she could buy more scarce goods; if the nation had more money, everyone could buy more scarce goods.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 7
BLM: Application
93. What is the fallacy of composition?
a.
the idea that correlation need not imply causation
b.
the erroneous view that an economic activity can sometimes exceed the sum of its components
c.
the view that the aggregation of economic activity will necessarily lead to an outcome that is different from the outcome generated by each individual in the group
d.
the erroneous view that what is true for the individual will also be true for the group
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 7
BLM: Knowledge
94. Which of the following best illustrates the fallacy of composition?
a.
If the price of bread rose, consumers would buy less; if consumers bought less, the price of bread would rise.
b.
If Mr. Lewis produces more, he can consume more; if Mr. Lewis consumes more, he can produce more.
c.
If prices of houses went down, more people could afford houses; and if more people bought houses, the prices of houses would increase.
d.
If Mr. Lewis had more money, he would be wealthier; if a nation's money supply were larger, the people of the nation would be wealthier.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 7
BLM: Application
95. Which of the following is the erroneous view that is associated with the fallacy of composition?
a.
An increase in the supply of money will cause a general increase in the level of prices.
b.
When two events are correlated, the one observed first must have caused the second.
c.
If something is true for an individual, then it must also be true for a group.
d.
A small change in an economic variable will have an unrecognizable but significant effect on the economy.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
REF: p. 7
BLM: Knowledge
96. Which of the following best illustrates the fallacy of composition?
a.
If I talk loudly at a party, I have a better chance of being heard by my listeners. If everyone at the party talks loudly, everyone can be heard more clearly.
b.
Resources are scarce; therefore, there is no such thing as a free lunch.
c.
If the price of a product rises, the quantity supplied will decline.
d.
The average wage rate tends to increase at approximately the same rate as inflation; hence, wage increases must cause inflation.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 7
BLM: Application
97. Which of the following best illustrates the fallacy of composition?
a.
A great many people have been immunized against polio because it can be such a devastating disease. As a result, I probably do not personally need to be immunized against polio.
b.
I hate driving to work when the traffic is so heavy, so I decide to leave 30 minutes earlier than in the past. If everyone were to leave 30 minutes earlier for work, we'd all get to work faster.
c.
Whenever I attend a hockey game at the local arena, the home team wins. Therefore, if I attend all of the team's local games, they will achieve a perfect winning record at home.
d.
The parking at York University is in short supply on the main campus. It would be better for more people to ride the bus to school.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Difficult
REF: p. 7
BLM: Application
98. Which of the following statements best illustrates the fallacy of composition?
a.
the error of omitting relevant variables from an economic model
b.
the error of confusing normative economics with positive economics
c.
the error of generalizing from the individual to the whole
d.
the error of confusing correlation with causation
ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Moderate
REF: p. 7
BLM: Comprehension
99. “To do well and be at the top 10 percent of the class, one should study more. If everyone studies more then they all can do well and finish at the top of the class.” What is the problem with the logic in this statement?
a.
There is causation but no correlation.
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Part III Answer Key
Chapter 1
The Role and Method of Economics
Section 1.1 Economics: A Brief Introduction
1. The definition of economics must recognize the central parts of the economist’s point of view: Resources are scarce, scarcity forces us to make choices, and the cost of any choice is the cost of the lost opportunity with the highest value.
2. a. microeconomics
b. macroeconomics
c. microeconomics
d. macroeconomics
e. microeconomics
Section 1.2 Economic Theory
3. a. Both normative and positive statements. This first statement (positive statement) expresses a fact or a testable theory that a higher income tax rate would generate increased tax revenues. The second statement (normative statement) expresses an opinion regarding how any additional tax revenues should be used.
b. normative statements. Both statements are expressions of opinion, the first regarding the relative value of studying physics as opposed to sociology, and the second regarding the value of studying either physics or sociology.
c. positive statements. Both statements are expressions of facts or testable theories regarding the relationship between the price of wheat and how much wheat will be purchased and produced.
d. both normative and positive statements. The first statement (positive statement) expresses a fact or testable theory regarding the relationship between the price of butter and how much will be purchased. The second statement (normative statement) is an expression of opinion about the social value of buying butter.
e. positive statements. Both statements are expressions of fact or testable theory regarding demographic change.
4. a. Positive. The statement is a testable hypothesis.
b. Normative. Asserting that social assistance should be increased contains a value judgment about the costs and benefits of doing so.
c. Positive. The statement expresses a fact or a testable theory that higher tariffs will result in higher prices for domestic wine.
d. Positive. The statement could be confirmed or refuted by empirical data.
e. Normative. Placing provincial sales taxes will raise government revenue and level the playing field with non-Internet retailers at a cost of reducing total Internet-based sales and other negative effects. The statement implies a value judgment that the benefits outweigh the costs.
f. Positive. The statement is subject to empirical testing.
5. The statement illustrates the fallacy of composition—it assumes that what is true for one person must be true for all others.
6. a. This involves confusing correlation with causation.
b. This involves confusing correlation with causation.
c. This involves the fallacy of composition.
d. This is a violation of the ceteris paribus conditions.
e. There is no fallacy in this statement.
Section 1.3 Scarcity
7. Being poor means that you have access to few resources, which limits the goods and services you consume. Scarcity means you don’t have enough resources to do everything you want to do, so you have to make choices. Everyone experiences scarcity, because we can always think of more things that we want than we can produce with our resources.
8. The automobile freed Canadians to travel and helped to create the tourism business. New wants included motels, resorts, and theme parks. The increased importance of auto and truck transportation also created the desire for more and better roads and highways. The auto also allowed people to live farther from where they worked, so that people wanted more land and newer houses.
9. Scarce goods are those that people pay for in either time or money or, in other words, have an opportunity cost. Garbage and dirty air in the city are not scarce goods since we either pay to get rid of them or pay with the consequences of their presence. Similarly, salt water is not a scarce good—although it is in limited supply, there is no price you need to pay to obtain some (assuming you are on the shore). Clothes, clean air, and public libraries are scarce goods because their production requires the use of scarce resources that could be used for the production of other goods.
Section 1.4 Opportunity Cost
10. Since Sarah’s time is probably worth more during school (it would cost part of her salary), the opportunity cost of the trip is higher in February than in July.
11. No. First of all, Pizza Pizza uses scarce resources to produce the pizza slices, so a slice of pizza is not “free” to Pizza Pizza. Secondly, if people value their time at all, ten minutes standing in line to get the slice carries an opportunity cost equal to the value to those people of whatever else they could have done with the ten minutes.
12. a. The opportunity cost of going to college or university includes the income you could have earned by working instead, and money spent on school-specific expenses like tuition and textbooks. Room and board and transportation would not necessarily be included since you would need those services even if you were not going to school.
b. The opportunity cost of missing a lecture includes the potential damage to one’s grade in a course from not being present while important subject material is covered, as well as the knowledge’s forgone value in the “real world.” The magnitude of the opportunity cost depends partly on how much essential information the instructor provides during the missed class session.
c. The opportunity cost of spending $100 today is the $105 you could have spent next year. If you are withdrawing the money just to have cash in your pocket, the opportunity cost of holding money is the 5% interest you could have been earning.
d. The opportunity cost of snowboarding the weekend before examinations is the expected reduction in grades that will result, in addition to the cost of a lift ticket.
Section 1.5 Marginal Thinking
13. a. $50; $25
b. 3; 5; Mark would go as long as his marginal benefit was greater than the admission price.
c. Yes; 6; Mark would buy the pass because his total benefits exceed his total cost. Once he has the pass, the marginal cost of attending one more day becomes zero, so he will go as long as his marginal benefits exceed zero.
14. a. $57; $88
b. 43; 44; He would produce as long as the price (marginal benefit) exceeded the marginal cost.
15. The marginal benefits of jaywalking are the time savings and convenience of crossing the street where you want. The marginal costs are the additional risk of being hit by a car and the risk of being fined for jaywalking.
a. Increases cost by increasing the risk of being hit by a car.
b. Lowers cost by lowering the risk of being hit by a car and the risk of being fined.
c. Increases the benefit because of the higher value of time savings.
d. Increases cost because of a higher risk of receiving a fine.
e. The time and convenience benefits are larger.
f. The time and convenience benefits are smaller.
Section 1.6 Incentives Matter
16. Positive incentives are those that either increase benefits or reduce costs and thus tend to increase the level of an activity. Both of the following are examples of positive incentives: b. a trip to Hawaii paid for by your parents or significant other for earning an “A” in your economics course; d) a subsidy for installing solar panels on your house. Negative incentives either reduce benefits or increase costs, and thus tend to decrease the level of the related activity or behaviour. Both of the following are examples of negative incentives: a. a fine for not cleaning up after your dog defecates in the park; c. a higher tax on cigarettes and alcohol.
17. Singapore’s tough drug-trafficking penalty would clearly impact the cost-benefit ratios of would-be smugglers. Lighter sentences would probably result in more drug smuggling because the overall cost of breaking the law would be reduced.
Section 1.7 Specialization and Trade
18. Denying trade possibilities also eliminates the possibility of specialization. In autarky, a country must produce everything it consumes. Scarce resources will be wasted producing goods with higher opportunity costs. Trading would allow the country to produce more with the same resources.
19. The opportunity cost of growing soybeans is the lost value because Fran can’t grow corn worth $60. The opportunity cost of growing corn on her land is the lost opportunity to grow and sell soybeans, which equals $75. Fran should specialize in soybeans, which is the crop with the lowest opportunity cost. For each acre of corn Fran converts to soybeans, she will gain $15.
20. a. Canada has a comparative advantage in wheat.
b. Colombia has a comparative advantage in coffee.
c. British Columbia has a comparative advantage in lumber.
d. Alberta has a comparative advantage in oil.
21. If the country or region with the lower opportunity cost produces the good, the opportunity cost of consuming that good is minimized. Trade allows people, countries, and regions to specialize in producing those goods in which they have the lowest opportunity cost and so reducing trade restrictions will encourage specialization, thereby increasing efficiency.
Section 1.8 Market Prices Coordinate Economic Activity
22. Options a, b, and c would cause increases in the relative value and price of potatoes. In option d, the reduction in the prices of potato substitutes would make alternatives more attractive and reduce the relative value and price of potatoes.
23. a. Price of Jack Russell Terriers rises
b. price of housing in Tampa rises
c. price of coffee rises
d. price of wheat rises
e. wages of Canadian doctors fall
f. price of gasoline rises.
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Test Bank Exploring Geology 4th Edition
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TEST BANK QUESTIONS – This test bank is for Exploring Geology 4th edition. In addition to this Word file, the questions can be accessed via MH’s Connect system, and MH can provide them for various classroom-management systems (e.g., Blackboard).
At the end of this document are instructions for copying and pasting these questions to create a new test, as well as a description the self-numbering character of the questions and answers using Styles in Microsoft Word. Short descriptors that follow each question are summarized here:
Answer: Correct answer to question.
Section: The number of the relevant two-page spread in Exploring Geology, 4thedition.
Difficulty Level: Cognitive skills required to answer the question, selected from six categories in a version of Bloom’s Taxonomy. The six categories are Remember, Understand, Apply, Analyze, Evaluate, or Create.
Topic: The chapter or the part of a chapter (e.g., energy resources versus mineral resources) to which the question applies.
Section 1.0 – Nature of Geology
1. Which of the following was mentioned in the opening two-page spread of Chapter 1?
a) oil beneath the Arctic National Wildlife Reserve
b) the scenery of GlacierNational Park
c) earthquakes along the San Andres fault
d) oil beneath the GulfCoast of the United States
Answer: b
Section: 1.0
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
Section 1.1 – Where and How We Live
2. Which of the following is probably least at risk for geologic hazards?
a) next to a river in low areas
b) near an active fault
c) on soils that gently expand when wet
d) on gentle slopes away from mountains
e) close to, but upwind of, an active volcano
Answer: d
Section: 1.1
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
3. Which potential geologic hazard is NOT represented by a feature on this figure?
a) an earthquake
b) a volcano
c) contaminated groundwater
d) a landslide
e) flood-prone areas
Answer: c
Section: 1.1
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
4. Which of the following geologic aspects influence our lives based on the photograph showing horses and cows on a grassy field?
a) the presence of mountains, which influence the formation of clouds and precipitation
b) the steepness of slopes
c) the availability of water
d) all of these
Answer: d
Section: 1.1
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
5. The distribution of natural resources is influenced by the:
a) type of rocks
b) age of the rocks
c) way in which the rocks formed
d) all of these
Answer: d
Section: 1.1
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
6. Which of the following factors was most important in controlling the distribution of copper mines in the western U.S. versus iron mines in the Great Lakes region?
a) the amount of precipitation (rain and snow)
b) the time of year when precipitation occurs
c) different ages and geologic histories of the rocks
d) the latitude (distance south or north from the equator)
Answer: c
Section: 1.1
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
Section 1.2 – Geology Explains World
7. Geology can help us learn about Earth’s past by studying:
a) why continents and oceans are different
b) why a landscape looks the way it does
c) how life in the past was different than today
d) how global climate has changed since the ice ages
e) all of these
Answer: e
Section: 1.2
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
8. Which of the following is NOT a way geology informs us about Earth’s past?
a) how the first second of the universe differed from a second today
b) why continents and oceans are different
c) why a landscape looks the way it does today
d) how life in the past was different than today
e) how past global climate was different than today
Answer: a
Section: 1.2
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
9. Continents differ in appearance from ocean basins because:
a) each has its own geologic history
b) each contains different fossils
c) each has its own climate
Answer: a
Section: 1.2
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
10. Continental ice sheets were more common 28,000 years ago than they are today because:
a) the Earth had more water then than now
b) the Earth was cooler then than now
c) the Earth was further away from the Sun then than now
Answer: b
Section: 1.2
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
Section 1.3 – Inside Earth
11. The main layers of the Earth in correct order, from the surface moving down, are:
a) upper crust, outer core, inner core, mantle
b) outer core, inner core, upper mantle, lower crust
c) crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
d) upper mantle, lower mantle, inner core, crust
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
12. Which of the following Earth layers is the thinnest?
a) oceanic crust
b) upper mantle
c) lower mantle
d) outer core
e) inner core
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
13. Which layer on this figure is the upper mantle?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
14. Which layer on this figure is the continental crust?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
15. Which layer on this figure is the oceanic crust?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
16. Which layer in the earth is similar to the composition of granite?
a) continental crust
b) oceanic crust
c) upper mantle
d) lower mantle
e) core
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
17. Which layer in the earth is similar in composition to basalt, a dark lava rock?
a) continental crust
b) oceanic crust
c) upper mantle
d) lower mantle
e) core
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
18. Which layer in the earth is similar to the green mineral olivine?
a) continental crust
b) oceanic crust
c) mantle
d) core
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
19. Which layer in the earth is similar in composition to an iron-nickel meteorite?
a) continental crust
b) oceanic crust
c) upper mantle
d) lower mantle
e) core
Answer: e
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
20. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason for why a region is higher in elevation than adjacent regions?
a) the lithosphere is hotter
b) it has continental crust, but adjacent regions have oceanic crust
c) the crust is thicker
d) the crust is more dense
Answer: d
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
21. What is the most likely reason why a region is higher than adjacent regions?
a) there is a hot spot beneath it
b) the crust is thicker
c) it is underlain by oceanic crust
d) the asthenosphere is hotter
e) the crust is hotter
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
22. Which of the following is the best description of what the lithosphere contains?
a) continental and oceanic crust
b) both types of crust and the uppermost mantle
c) weak part of the upper mantle
d) upper and lower mantle
e) lower mantle and outer core
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
23. Which of the following Earth layers is the thickest?
a) continental crust
b) oceanic crust
c) mantle
d) outer core
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
24. The principle of isostasy refers to:
a) the difference in the strength of the mantle versus the crust
b) the relationship between regional elevations and thickness of crust
c) how the outer core differs from the inner core
d) how the upper mantle differs from the lower mantle
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
25. Which of the following is NOT an important difference between continents and oceans?
a) thickness of the crust
b) composition of the crust
c) density of the crust
d) whether it is part of the lithosphere
e) elevation
Answer: d
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
26. Which of the following combinations would result in the highest regional elevations?
a) thin, dense crust
b) thick, dense crust
c) thin, less dense crust
d) thick, less dense crust
Answer: d
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
27. Which layer on this figure is the outer core?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
Answer: e
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
28. Compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is:
a) thinner
b) more dense
c) lighter in color
d) all of these
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
29. The main difference between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere is the:
a) asthenosphere is less rigid
b) asthenosphere flows less easily
c) asthenosphere is cooler
d) asthenosphere has more oceanic crust
e) asthenosphere has more continental crust
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
30. Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has the thickest crust?
a) ColoradoRockies
b) Great Plains
c) Mississippi River
d) Appalachian Mountains
e) East Coast
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
31. Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has neither the thinnest nor thickest crust?
a) ColoradoRockies
b) Mississippi River
c) East Coast
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
32. Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has the thinnest crust?
a) ColoradoRockies
b) Great Plains
c) Mississippi River
d) Appalachian Mountains
e) East Coast
Answer: e
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
33. Which of these best describes the location of the core within the Earth?
a) The core is located in the central zone of the Earth, beneath the mantle.
b) The core is located between the thin surface crust and the thick mantle.
c) The core is located at the surface of the Earth, forming a thin skin.
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
34. What is the largest of Earth's concentric zones by volume?
a) the crust
b) the mantle
c) the core
Answer: b
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
35. The asthenosphere is part of the:
a) mantle
b) lithosphere
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
36. The asthenosphere is beneath the:
a) lithosphere
b) mantle
c) outer core
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
37. What happens to a mountain in terms of isostatic adjustment following a period of significant erosion?
a) The continent underneath will be uplifted.
b) The continent underneath will subside.
c) Erosion does not affect isostasy.
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
38. What is the condition of equilibrium or balance in a system called? Geologists often use this term to describe crustal blocks floating on the asthenosphere.
a) isostasy
b) convection
c) Curie point
d) geothermal gradient
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
39. The lithosphere is:
a) also called the crust
b) also called the mantle
c) the rigid portion of the Earth (crust and upper mantle)
d) where convection occurs in the mantle
Answer: c
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
40. Which type of crust has the greater thickness?
a) continental
b) oceanic
Answer: a
Section: 1.3
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
Section 1.4 – Processes Affect Planet
41. Which of the following is true about processes that affect Earth?
a) Atmospheric pressure is less at sea level than in high mountains.
b) Forces decrease downward within Earth.
c) Forces are imposed on deep rocks from all directions.
d) All heat inside Earth comes from magma.
e) None of these.
Answer: c
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
42. Which of the following is true about gravity?
a) Gravity of the Sun and Moon exert a pull on Earth.
b) The mass of the Earth causes a downward pull on objects on Earth.
c) Gravity causes ice, water, and rocks to move downhill.
d) All of these.
Answer: d
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
43. Which of the following is true about forces and energy imposed on Earth from space?
a) Internal processes within the Moon produce light during the night.
b) Sun’s electromagnetic energy is all blocked by Earth’s protective atmosphere.
c) Our massive Sun is the only object that exerts a gravitational pull on Earth.
d) All of these.
e) None of these.
Answer: e
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
44. Which arrows in this figure indicates infrared energy, which has been converted from ultraviolet energy?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: c
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
45. Which arrows in this figure indicates evaporation?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: d
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
46. Which arrows in this figure indicates ultraviolet energy, an external energy source?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Answer: b
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
47. Which of the following are ways that the atmosphere interacts with Earth’s surface?
a) Liquid water on the surface can evaporate, becoming water vapor in the atmosphere.
b) The atmosphere includes a low percentage of water vapor, most of which comes from the oceans.
c) Earth’s atmosphere blocks most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiation.
d) Some energy that strikes the earth is converted into infrared energy.
e) All of these.
Answer: e
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
48. What happens to material that is hotter than its surrounding material deep within the Earth?
a) The hot material slowly moves up toward the surface.
b) The hot material moves slowly down toward the core.
c) Nothing. The hot material doesn't move at all.
Answer: a
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
49. Radioactive decay in the Earth, especially in the Earth's crust, creates a tremendous amount of:
a) pressure
b) heat
Answer: b
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
50. Radioactive decay within the Earth produces heat; the other form of heat produced by the Earth comes from:
a) heat trapped when the Earth was formed
b) solar radiation trapped in the rock on the Earth's surface
c) heat produced by air as it moves across the oceans
Answer: a
Section: 1.4
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
Section 1.5 – Rocks Form
51. Which of the following locations would containa wide variety of sediment, from large angular blocks to fine rock powder, produced from grinding of the rocks?
a) location 1, along the margins of a glacier
b) location 2, along a steep mountain front
c) location 3, in sand dunes
d) location 4, along a beach
e) location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
Answer: a
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
52. Which of the following locations would contain large, angular rocks that broke away from bedrock and moved downhill?
a) location 1, along the margins of a glacier
b) location 2, along a steep mountain front
c) location 3, in sand dunes
d) location 4, along a beach
e) location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
Answer: b
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
53. Which of the following locations would contain sand, rounded stones, and broken shells?
a) location 1, along the margins of a glacier
b) location 2, along a steep mountain front
c) location 3, in sand dunes
d) location 4, along a beach
e) location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
Answer: d
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
54. Which of the following locations would contain mud and the remains of small creatures?
a) location 1, along the margins of a glacier
b) location 2, along a steep mountain front
c) location 3, in sand dunes
d) location 4, along a beach
e) location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
Answer: e
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
55. Which of the following locations would most likely contain large, angular rocks?
a) location 1, along the margins of a glacier
b) location 2, along a steep mountain front
c) location 3, in sand dunes
d) locations 1 and 2
e) locations 2 and 3
Answer: d
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
56. Which of the following locations would most likely contain a high percentage of sand?
a) location 2, along a steep mountain front
b) location 3, in sand dunes
c) location 4, along a beach
d) locations 2 and 3
e) locations 3 and 4
Answer: e
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
57. Which of the following surface environments is the most likely site for deposits in this photograph?
a) steep mountain front
b) river channel
c) sand dunes
d) beach
e) lake
Answer: a
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
58. Which of the following surface environments is the most likely site for deposits in this photograph?
a) steep mountain front
b) glacier
c) sand dunes
d) beach
e) lake
Answer: d
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
59. What type of rock would the materials shown in this photograph produce?
a) sedimentary
b) igneous
c) metamorphic
d) hydrothermal
Answer: a
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Apply/Analyze
Topic: Nature of Geology
60. Which of the following locations would form an igneous rock?
a) locations 1 and 2
b) locations 2 and 3
c) locations 3 and 4
d) locations 1, 2, and 3
e) locations 5 and 6
Answer: d
Section: 1.5
Difficulty Level: Remember/Understand
Topic: Nature of Geology
61. Which of the following locations would form a metamorphic rock?
a) locations 1 and 2
b) locations 2 and 3
c) locations 3 and 4
d) locations 1, 2, and 3
e) locations 5 and 6
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Test Bank Exploring Geology 2nd Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,
Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,
Contact us At: [email protected]
c1
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1.
Which of the following was talked about in the opening two-page spread of Chapter 1?
A.
oil beneath the Arctic National Wildlife Reserve
B.
the scenery of Glacier National Park
C.
earthquakes along the San Andres fault
D.
oil beneath the Gulf Coast of the United States
2.
Which of the following is probably least at risk for geologic hazards?
A.
next to a river in low areas
B.
near an active fault
C.
on soils that gently expand when wet
D.
on gentle slopes away from mountains
E.
close to, but upwind of, an active volcano
3.
Which potential geologic hazard is NOT represented by a feature on this figure?
A.
an earthquake
B.
a volcano
C.
contaminated groundwater
D.
a landslide
E.
flood-prone areas
4.
Which of the following geologic aspects influence our lives based on the photograph showing horses and cows on a grassy field?
A.
the presence of mountains, which influence the formation of clouds and precipitation
B.
the steepness of slopes
C.
the availability of water
D.
all of these
5.
The distribution of natural resources is influenced by the:
A.
type of rocks
B.
age of the rocks
C.
way in which the rocks formed
D.
all of these
6.
Which of the following factors was most important in controlling the distribution of copper mines in the western U.S. versus iron mines in the Great Lakes region?
A.
the amount of precipitation (rain and snow)
B.
the time of year when precipitation occurs
C.
different ages and geologic histories of the rocks
D.
the latitude (distance south or north from the equator)
7.
Geology can help us learn about Earth's past by studying:
A.
why continents have different regions
B.
why a landscape looks the way it does
C.
how life in the past was different than today
D.
how global climate has changed since the ice ages
E.
all of these
8.
Which of the following is NOT a way geology informs us about Earth's past?
A.
how the first second of the universe differed from a second today
B.
why continents have different regions today
C.
why a landscape looks the way it does today
D.
how life in the past was different than today
E.
how past global climate was different than today
9.
The main layers of the Earth in correct order, from the surface moving down, is:
A.
upper crust, outer core, inner core, mantle
B.
outer core, inner core, upper mantle, lower crust
C.
crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
D.
upper mantle, lower mantle, inner core, crust
10.
Which of the following Earth layers is the thinnest?
A.
oceanic crust
B.
upper mantle
C.
lower mantle
D.
outer core
E.
inner core
11.
Which layer on this figure is the upper mantle?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
E
12.
Which layer on this figure is the continental crust?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
E
13.
Which layer on this figure is the oceanic crust?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
E
14.
Which layer in the earth is similar to the composition of granite?
A.
continental crust
B.
oceanic crust
C.
upper mantle
D.
lower mantle
E.
core
15.
Which layer in the earth is similar in composition to basalt, a dark lava rock?
A.
continental crust
B.
oceanic crust
C.
upper mantle
D.
lower mantle
E.
core
16.
Which layer in the earth is similar to the green mineral olivine?
A.
continental crust
B.
oceanic crust
C.
mantle
D.
core
17.
Which layer in the earth is similar in composition to an iron-nickel meteorite?
A.
continental crust
B.
oceanic crust
C.
upper mantle
D.
lower mantle
E.
core
18.
Which of the following is NOT a possible reason for why a region is higher in elevation than adjacent regions?
A.
the lithosphere is hotter
B.
it has continental crust, but adjacent regions have oceanic crust
C.
the crust is thicker
D.
the crust is more dense
19.
What is the most likely reason why a region is higher than adjacent regions?
A.
there is a hot spot beneath it
B.
the crust is thicker
C.
it is underlain by oceanic crust
D.
the asthenosphere is hotter
E.
the crust is hotter
20.
Which of the following is the best description of what the lithosphere contains?
A.
continental and oceanic crust
B.
both types of crust and the uppermost mantle
C.
weak part of the upper mantle
D.
upper and lower mantle
E.
lower mantle and outer core
21.
Which of the following Earth layers is the thickest?
A.
continental crust
B.
oceanic crust
C.
mantle
D.
outer core
22.
The principle of isostasy refers to:
A.
the difference in the strength of the mantle versus the crust
B.
the relationship between regional elevations and thickness of crust
C.
how the outer core differs from the inner core
D.
how the upper mantle differs from the lower mantle
23.
Which of the following is NOT an important difference between continents and oceans?
A.
thickness of the crust
B.
composition of the crust
C.
density of the crust
D.
whether it is part of the lithosphere
E.
elevation
24.
Which of the following combinations would result in the highest regional elevations?
A.
thin, dense crust
B.
thick, dense crust
C.
thin, less dense crust
D.
thick, less dense crust
25.
Which layer on this figure is the outer core?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
E.
E
26.
Compared to oceanic crust, continental crust is:
A.
thinner
B.
more dense
C.
lighter in color
D.
all of these
27.
The main difference between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere is the:
A.
asthenosphere is less rigid
B.
asthenosphere flows less easily
C.
asthenosphere is cooler
D.
asthenosphere has more oceanic crust
E.
asthenosphere has more continental crust
28.
Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has the thickest crust?
A.
Colorado Rockies
B.
Great Plains
C.
Mississippi River
D.
Appalachian Mountains
E.
East Coast
29.
Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has neither the thinnest nor thickest crust?
A.
Colorado Rockies
B.
Mississippi River
C.
East Coast
30.
Based on this topographic profile across the central United States, which region probably has the thinnest crust?
A.
Colorado Rockies
B.
Great Plains
C.
Mississippi River
D.
Appalachian Mountains
E.
East Coast
31.
Which of the following is true about processes that affect Earth?
A.
Atmospheric pressure is less at sea level than in high mountains.
B.
Forces decrease downward within Earth.
C.
Forces are imposed on deep rocks from all directions.
D.
All heat inside Earth comes from magma.
E.
None of these.
32.
Which of the following is true about gravity?
A.
Gravity of the Sun and Moon exert a pull on Earth.
B.
The mass of the Earth causes a downward pull on objects on Earth.
C.
Gravity causes ice, water, and rocks to move downhill.
D.
All of these.
33.
Which of the following is true about forces and energy imposed on Earth from space?
A.
Internal processes within the Moon produce light during the night.
B.
Sun's electromagnetic energy is all blocked by Earth's protective atmosphere.
C.
Our massive Sun is the only object that exerts a gravitational pull on Earth.
D.
All of these.
E.
None of these.
34.
Which arrows in this figure indicates infrared energy, which has been converted from ultraviolet energy?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
35.
Which arrows in this figure indicates evaporation?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
36.
Which arrows in this figure indicates ultraviolet energy, an external energy source?
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
37.
Which of the following are ways that the atmosphere interacts with Earth's surface?
A.
Liquid water on the surface can evaporate, becoming water vapor in the atmosphere.
B.
The atmosphere includes a low percentage of water vapor, most of which comes from the oceans.
C.
Earth's atmosphere blocks most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.
D.
Some energy that strikes the earth is converted into infrared energy.
E.
All of these.
38.
Which of the following locations would contain a wide variety of sediment, from large angular blocks to fine rock powder, produced from grinding of the rocks?
A.
location 1, along the margins of a glacier
B.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
C.
location 3, in sand dunes
D.
location 4, along a beach
E.
location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
39.
Which of the following locations would contain large, angular rocks that broke away from bedrock and moved downhill?
A.
location 1, along the margins of a glacier
B.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
C.
location 3, in sand dunes
D.
location 4, along a beach
E.
location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
40.
Which of the following locations would contain sand, rounded stones, and broken shells?
A.
location 1, along the margins of a glacier
B.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
C.
location 3, in sand dunes
D.
location 4, along a beach
E.
location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
41.
Which of the following locations would contain mud and the remains of small creatures?
A.
location 1, along the margins of a glacier
B.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
C.
location 3, in sand dunes
D.
location 4, along a beach
E.
location 5, on relatively deep seafloor
42.
Which of the following locations would most likely contain large, angular rocks?
A.
location 1, along the margins of a glacier
B.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
C.
location 3, in sand dunes
D.
locations 1 and 2
E.
locations 2 and 3
43.
Which of the following locations would most likely contain a high percentage of sand?
A.
location 2, along a steep mountain front
B.
location 3, in sand dunes
C.
location 4, along a beach
D.
locations 2 and 3
E.
locations 3 and 4
44.
Which of the following surface environments is the most likely site for deposits in this photograph?
A.
steep mountain front
B.
river channel
C.
sand dunes
D.
beach
E.
lake
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Test Bank Explorations Introduction to Astronomy 7th Edition
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Chapter 01
The Cycles of the Sky
Multiple Choice Questions
1. After a full moon, about how long is it until the next new moon? A. A month B. Two weeks C. A week D. Six hours
2. If there is a full moon visible from Paris one evening, twelve hours later in Australia there will be a _________ visible. A. Full moon B. New moon C. First quarter moon D. Crescent moon
3. Directly above the Earth's equator lies the ______________ in the sky. A. North celestial pole B. South celestial pole C. Celestial equator D. Ecliptic
4. All celestial objects rise in the East and set in the West because A. The Earth is rotating from east to west. B. The Earth is rotating from west to east. C. The Earth is orbiting around the Sun from east to west. D. The celestial sphere is rotating from east to west.
5. In which season is the Earth farthest to the Sun? A. When it is winter in North America. B. When it is summer in North America. C. When it is autumn in North America. D. When it is spring in North America.
6. The equinox is the time when A. The number of daylight hours is longest in the Northern hemisphere. B. The number of daylight hours is shortest in the Northern hemisphere. C. The number of daylight hours equals the number of nighttime hours everywhere on the Earth. D. All the nights are equally long throughout the month.
7. When the Moon and the Sun lie exactly in the same direction in the sky, what phase of the Moon would you see? A. Full B. Half C. Gibbous D. Crescent E. New
8. Full Moon sets at A. Sunrise. B. Sunset. C. Midnight. D. Noon.
9. On what date/s does the Sun rise exactly due east and set exactly due west? A. June 21 and December 21. B. March 21 and September 22. C. Only on Mach 21. D. Only on June 21.
10. In the Northern Hemisphere, between what dates does the location of the Sun's rising and setting shift a little farther south each day? A. From March 20 until September 22. B. From June 21 until December 21. C. From September 22 until March 20. D. From December 21 until June 21.
11. Why do the constellations that are visible in the sky at night change with the seasons? A. Because the celestial sphere revolves around the Earth. B. Because the Earth is a sphere. C. Because the Earth rotates about an axis. D. Because the Earth revolves around the Sun.
12. What is the ecliptic? A. The line of the solar and lunar eclipses on the celestial sphere. B. The extension of the Earth's path on the celestial sphere. C. The elliptical shape of the Earth's orbit around the Sun. D. All of the above.
13. Which of the following statement(s) describes the ecliptic? A. The path of the Moon on the celestial sphere. B. The extension of the Earth's equator on the celestial sphere. C. The extension of the Earth's path on the celestial sphere. D. The apparent path of the Sun across the celestial sphere. E. Both C and D are correct.
14. What causes the seasons? A. The tilt of the celestial sphere with respect to the equator. B. The Earth's distance from the Sun varies throughout the year. C. The ecliptic is tilted with respect to the celestial equator. D. The motion of the equinoxes. E. None of the above.
15. What causes the seasons? A. The changing distance between the Earth and the Sun. B. The tilt of the Earth's spin axis relative to the Earth's orbit. C. The Earth's spin axis is tilted from the poles of the celestial sphere. D. The elliptical shape of the Earth's equator.
16. Which of the following is true during the equinoxes? A. The Sun is on the ecliptic. B. The Sun is on the celestial equator. C. The Sun rises due east and sets due west. D. All of the above.
17. Which phase of the Moon sets at noon? A. Full Moon B. Third quarter C. New Moon D. Waxing crescent E. None, the Moon always sets at sunrise.
18. When does the full Moon phase occur? A. When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon. B. When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon. C. When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun. D. When the Moon and the Sun are on the celestial equator.
19. When does the new Moon phase occur? A. When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon. B. When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon. C. When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun. D. When the Sun and the Moon are on the celestial equator.
20. Which phase of the Moon do you expect to see high in the sky at 6:00 pm? A. The first quarter. B. The new Moon. C. The full Moon. D. The third quarter.
21. Which phase of the Moon do you expect to see rising at dawn? A. Full Moon B. First quarter C. Waning crescent D. Third quarter
22. If the Moon sets at 10 a.m. today, approximately what time did the Moon set yesterday? A. 10:04 a.m. B. 9:56 a.m. C. 10:50 a.m. D. 9:10 a.m.
23. During which phase of the Moon do you expect to observe a lunar eclipse? A. Full Moon. B. New Moon. C. First quarter. D. Third quarter. E. Lunar eclipses can occur at any phase of the Moon.
24. During which phase of the Moon do you expect to observe a solar eclipse? A. Full Moon. B. New Moon. C. First quarter. D. Third quarter. E. Solar eclipses can occur at any phase of the Moon.
25. Suppose that the Earth's spin would suddenly reverse direction, but the direction of the Earth's motion around the Sun was preserved. Which of the following changes would you expect to observe? A. The Sun would rise in the West and set in the East. B. The stars would rise in the West and set in the East. C. The planets would rise in the West and set in the East. D. All of the above would be observed. E. Nothing would change.
26. Solar eclipses can occur during ____ Moon. A. The new B. The full C. The waning crescent D. The waxing crescent E. Any phase of the Moon
27. Relative to the stars, the Moon moves from _____ to ______. A. East; west B. West; east
28. For someone in the northern hemisphere stars rise in the east and set in the west. For someone in the southern hemisphere A. the situation is the same—stars also rise in the east and set in the west. B. the opposite is true—stars rise in the west and set in the east.
29. The motion of the Sun relative to the stars is from _____ to _____. A. East; west B. West; east
30. During a solar eclipse, the _____ casts a small circular shadow on the ____. A. Moon; Earth B. Sun; Moon
31. Lunar eclipses do not occur every full Moon, because the path of the ____ is tilted relative to the _____. A. Earth; ecliptic B. Moon; ecliptic C. Sun; ecliptic D. Moon; equator
32. Which of the following statements about eclipses is true? A. A total solar eclipse is visible from any location on the day-side of the Earth. B. A partial solar eclipse happens every month, but not the total solar eclipse. C. A lunar eclipse is visible from any location on the night-side of the Earth. D. All of the above.
33. An annular eclipse A. Is a solar eclipse that happens every November. B. Occurs when the Moon's shadow does not completely reach the Earth during a solar eclipse. C. A lunar eclipse that happens every November. D. Occurs when the Earth's shadow does not completely reach the Moon during a lunar eclipse.
34. At totality during the lunar eclipse, the Moon generally appears _______ in color. A. Bluish B. Yellowish C. Greenish D. Reddish
35. What is the maximum number of eclipses that can occur in a year? A. 2 (one solar and one lunar) B. 4 (two solar and two lunar) C. 7 (five solar and two lunar) D. 7 (four solar and three lunar) E. C or D.
36. Eclipses generally occur in pairs, with a solar eclipse about _________ before or after a lunar eclipse. A. A day B. A week C. Two weeks D. A month E. Two months
37. An annular solar eclipse occurs A. When the Moon in its orbit is farthest from the Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun. B. When the Moon in its orbit is closest to the Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun. C. Every year when the Sun is highest in the sky. D. None of the above.
38. Which of the following statements regarding the motion of objects on the celestial sphere is true? A. The Sun moves along the celestial equator. B. The Moon moves along the celestial equator. C. The stars move along the zodiac. D. The stars move parallel to the celestial equator.
39. Are the Sun and the Moon ever above the horizon at the same time? A. Yes, always. B. Yes, sometimes. C. No, never.
40. How much time is there between when a star rises and when it sets? A. Less than twelve hours. B. About twelve hours. C. More than twelve hours. D. It depends on the star.
True / False Questions
41. If there is a 1st quarter moon visible from Paris one evening, six hours later in New York there will be full moon visible. FALSE
42. The first-quarter moon is at its highest point at about 6pm. TRUE
43. The zodiac is tilted by 23.5 relative to the celestial equator. TRUE
44. The first quarter phase of the Moon in the northern hemisphere occurs at the time of the third quarter phase in the southern hemisphere. FALSE
45. During the June solstice, the sun rises in the southeast horizon in the Earth's northern hemisphere. FALSE
46. During the December solstice, the sun rises in the southeast horizon in the Earth's northern hemisphere and in the northeast horizon in the Earth's southern hemisphere. FALSE
47. An annular solar eclipse occurs every year. FALSE
48. There are constellations that are not visible for observers living in North America. TRUE
49. Temperatures in New York City are warmer in July than in January because the Earth is closer to the Sun in July than in January. FALSE
50. The reason that solar eclipses are not observed each month is that the Moon's shadow only covers a small portion of the Earth so very few people can actually see the monthly eclipses. FALSE
51. Although all known stars appear to rise from the eastern horizon, astronomers might someday discover a star that will rise from the western horizon. FALSE
52. It is possible for the Moon to rise at the same time as the Sun. TRUE
53. During totality of a lunar eclipse the Moon disappears from view on the night sky. FALSE
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Test Bank Experiencing the Worlds Religion 6th Edition
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Chapter 1 – Test Bank
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Literally, the word religion means
a. meditate on.
b. worship.
c. connect again.
d. rise above.
Answer: c
Page: 6
2. The prophetic orientation in religion emphasizes
a. ceremonies.
b. feelings of oneness with the universe.
c. traditions.
d. beliefs and moral codes.
Answer: d
Page: 17
3. The early anthropologist who saw religion as rooted in a belief in spirits and the worship of them was
a. E. B. Tylor.
b. James Frazer.
c. Sigmund Freud.
d. Carl Jung.
Answer: b
Page: 11
4. Sigmund Freud, when analyzing the origin of religion, emphasized
a. the human need for psychological security.
b. the certainty of an afterlife.
c. his belief that religions were essential to psychological health.
d. the valuable role that religions play in helping people find meaning in their lives.
Answer: a
Page: 11
5. The disciple of Freud who ultimately rebelled against him was
a. Carl Jung.
b. Wilhelm Schmidt.
c. Rudolf Otto.
d. Clifford Geertz.
Answer: a
Page: 12
6. Wilhelm Schmidt, an Austrian philologist, argued that human beings originally believed in
a. one God.
b. two gods of equal importance.
c. multiple gods of nature.
d. no God.
Answer: a
Page: 13
7. Belief in many gods is called
a. polytheism.
b. monotheism.
c. agnosticism.
d. atheism.
Answer: a
Page: 8
8. Belief in one God is called
a. monotheism.
b. polytheism.
c. atheism.
d. agnosticism.
Answer: a
Page: 8
9. A mystical orientation in religion is characterized by
a. an emphasis on mysterious happenings.
b. the seeking of a union with something greater than oneself.
c. the extensive use of holy water and statues.
d. a belief in alien origins of life forms.
Answer: b
Page: 17
10. A sacramental orientation in religion is characterized by
a. daily prayer.
b. the use of silent meditation.
c. the extensive use of bells and powders.
d. a belief that certain rituals and ceremonies help one achieve salvation.
Answer: d
Page: 16
11. Anthropology typically studies religions as
a. cultural creations with multiple aspects.
b. clusters of sacred buildings, rivers, and mountains.
c. systems of philosophical explanation of the universe.
d. artifacts of superior beings.
Answer: a
Page: 21
12. A universal religious symbol that is circular, or that blends a circle and a square, is called a
a. mandala.
b. mudra.
c. mantra.
d. megalith.
Answer: a
Page: 12
13. The prophetic orientation in religion is particularly strong in
a. Protestant Christianity.
b. Tibetan Buddhism.
c. Vedic Hinduism.
d. Taoism.
Answer: a
Page: 17
14. Pantheism is the belief
a. that all reality is divine.
b. in the ancient Greek religion that believed the god Pan was the source of cosmic order.
c. in endless reincarnation.
d. in a timeless realm of happiness at the top of the universe.
Answer: a
Page: 8
15. One religion that particularly values and makes use of silence is
a. Shinto.
b. Judaism.
c. Zen Buddhism.
d. Islam.
Answer: c
Page: 15
16. One name of an early female deity was
a. Wotan.
b. Mercury.
c. Astarte.
d. Izanagi.
Answer: c
Page: 18
17. In religious studies, the word myth means
a. a story that is historically true.
b. a story that is historically untrue.
c. a story that is psychologically meaningful and may be either historically true or not.
d. a story that is found in similar form in many religions.
Answer: c
Page: 7
18. Literally, philosophy in Greek means
a. great system.
b. world study.
c. careful analysis.
d. love of wisdom.
Answer: d
Page: 20
19. A Dutch Reformed Church clergyman left his religious calling for painting. The artist’s name was
a. Pierre Bonnard.
b. Vincent van Gogh.
c. Rosa Bonheur.
d. Claude Monet.
Answer: b
Page: 4
20. Among many reasons for the existence of religions, religions exist to help people
a. deal with the certainty of death.
b. find ways to express themselves in art.
c. select careers that are socially redeeming.
d. have valuable texts to study.
Answer: a
Page: 10
21. The Scottish anthropologist who was the author of the multivolume study of mythology called The Golden Bough was
a. James Frazer.
b. C. G. Jung.
c. Sigmund Freud.
d. E. B. Tylor.
Answer: a
Page: 11
22. The German theologian who held that religions originate in human response to the mysterious side of reality was
a. Rudolf Otto.
b. Carl Jung.
c. Karl Rahner.
d. Dietrich Bonhoeffer.
Answer: a
Page: 12
23. The social scientist who argued that religion brought a new vitality to people’s lives was
a. James Frazer.
b. William James.
c. E. B. Tylor.
d. Carl Jung.
Answer: b
Page: 12
24. Literally, psychology means
a. study of nature.
b. internal structure.
c. study of the soul.
d. procession of images.
Answer: c
Page: 20
25. What psychologist saw religion as a way for people to find their fulfillment as unique individuals, a process he called “individuation”?
a. Rudolf Otto
b. E. B. Tylor
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Carl Jung
Answer: d
Page: 12
26. Female imagery in religions may be seen in
a. lightning bolts.
b. spirals and eggs.
c. rocks.
d. mountains.
Answer: b
Page: 18
27. The approach that especially makes use of reason to find answers to religious questions is
a. psychology.
b. mythology.
c. philosophy.
d. anthropology.
Answer: c
Page: 20
28. The conception of time that is found in religions that emphasize a creation and a cosmic purpose is usually
a. cyclical.
b. linear.
c. repetitive
d. psychological.
Answer: b
Page: 15
29. That area of investigation that looks for and interprets religious evidence in ancient sites, buildings, and objects is
a. anthropology.
b. mythology.
c. sociology.
d. archeology.
Answer: d
Page: 21
30. Literally, “theology” means
a. discovery of the soul.
b. structure of society.
c. logic of pattern.
d. study of the divine.
Answer: d
Page: 21
31. The sociologist who emphasized that individual religions arise from and express the values of their societies was
a. Geertz.
b. Durkheim.
c. Malinowski.
d. Firth.
Answer: b
Page: 23
32. The anthropologist who lived in the Sudan among the Nuer and Azande peoples was
a. Boas.
b. Geertz.
c. Evans-Pritchard.
d. Durkheim.
Answer: c
Page: 24
33. The French thinker who recognized extraordinary structural similarities in stories told by tribal peoples of the Americas was
a. Foucault.
b. Sartre.
c. Derrida.
d. Lévi-Strauss.
Answer: d
Page: 24
34. The French thinker who sought to go behind and beyond ordinary interpretations, to in essence “deconstruct” texts and other phenomena in search of fresh ways of seeing, was
a. Foucault.
b. Derrida.
c. Lévi-Strauss.
d. Durkheim.
Answer: b
Page: 24
35. The French thinker who explored types of power in social and religious institutions and systems of thought that oppressed minority and other marginalized groups was
a. Durkheim.
b. Derrida.
c. Foucault.
d. Lévi-Strauss.
Answer: c
Page: 24
36. The analytical approach that carefully investigates individual elements in cultural phenomena, rejecting the quest for universal structures that might under-gird language or religion, is
a. structuralism.
b. existentialism.
c. post-structuralism.
d. linguistics.
Answer: c
Page: 24
37. The analytical approach to language, religions, and mythology that searches for universal underlying frameworks is
a. post-structuralism.
b. linguistics.
c. structuralism.
d. literary theory.
Answer: c
Page: 24
38. The analytical approach that studies written texts of religion and even non-written material as reflections of the cultural values and assumptions that produced them is
a. structuralism.
b. literary theory.
c. linguistics.
d. post-structuralism.
Answer: b
Page: 22
Essay Topics
39. Why do religions exist? Give at least three possible reasons, and defend them with good arguments (and, when appropriate, references to others who offer similar reasons).
40. List, and briefly describe, five characteristics that are typically associated with a “religion.”
41. Explain the difference between transcendent and immanent notions of sacredness. What emphases might we expect in a religion that acknowledges a transcendent god or gods? What emphases might we expect in a religion that emphasizes sacredness that is immanent?
42. Could we use the term religion for a belief system of only one person? Explain your answer.
43. Religions often speak of the sacred or treat people or places as sacred. Is there anything objectively “sacred,” or is this just an imaginative human projection? Defend your answer.
44. List four symbols typically thought of as religious and explain meanings with which each is typically associated.
45. Explain the distinctions among sacramental, prophetic, and mystical orientations of religions.
46. Describe the range of attitudes among religions toward words and special texts.
47. Explain how a continuum with “exclusivity” at one end and “inclusivity” at the other can be used to describe religious views.
48. How do we typically distinguish between religion and philosophy?
49. Offer, with evidence, an explanation for why males and male imagery came to dominate many of the religions of the past few thousand years.
50. Describe at least three contemporary examples of religious devotion to female deities or religious use of female imagery.
51. Describe three different discipline-based approaches to the study of religions, and explain the particular emphasis of each.
52. The term religion seems literally to mean “connect again.” What elements do you see being connected by a religion?
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Test Bank Experiencing the Lifespan 3rd Edition
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Essay
1.
List three normative and three non-normative influences in your life.
2.
Describe (and speculate) on the ways an 80-year-old and a 20-year-old might view the Great Recession and Obama's presidency.
3.
Joey and Jack are born on the same day in the same hospital. The socioeconomic status of Joey's family is higher than average. Jack comes from a poverty-level family. What differences between Joe and Jack might you predict as they travel through life?
4.
Explain how you might teach table manners to a 4-year-old, using operant conditioning.
5.
Brandi, a college sophomore, seeks help from the counseling center for her extreme shyness and is offered a choice of treatments. She can have sessions with a behavioral therapist, work with a psychoanalyst, or get therapy from a person who follows the developmental systems perspective. Explain in a sentence how each treatment would differ from the others.
6.
Dr. Ragan, a behaviorist, is the new director of an organization that prepares people to return to college after they have dropped out. Dr. Ragan's mission is to design a program to assist clients in their efforts to successfully reenter school. Using the principles of traditional behaviorism, modeling, and self-efficacy, spell out some strategies that Dr. Regan might employ.
7.
Spell out the main similarity and difference between John Bowlby's attachment theory and traditional psychoanalytic theory.
8.
As a psychologist, you want to determine the heritability (or genetic contribution) to political attitudes. Describe how you would design your study. What findings would suggest that political attitudes are highly genetic?
9.
Give an example each of evocative and active genetic/environment forces and how they have shaped the person you are. Then give an example of either an optimum or poor person-environment fit this semester in your life.
10.
Compare and contrast Erikson and Freud's ideas.
11.
Explain Piaget's concepts of assimilation and accommodation and give a concrete example of those processes.
12.
You are a developmentalist studying the relationship between parenting practices and children's sociability. Your plan is to watch each family's interactions at home, and then observe each child's relationships with peers at school. Name your type of measurement and spell out its advantage and disadvantages.
13.
Melissa and Ramon want to conduct a study to determine if exercise promotes health. Melissa plans to test this question using a correlational approach, while Ramon decides to conduct an experiment. Describe what each student's research might look like and discuss the respective pluses and minuses of each plan.
14.
After conducting a cross-sectional study, you find that older workers are more satisfied with their jobs than are younger workers. How should you interpret this finding?
15.
List the pluses and minuses of conducting longitudinal research.
16.
Take a specific concept, term, or theory in this chapter and discuss how it applies to your own life.
Answer Key
1.
Here, while answers will vary, normative influences would center on predictable culturally and biologically shared events, such as going to kindergarten, reaching puberty, having children, dying, and so forth. In cataloguing non-normative influences, students should refer to any major unexpected event in their lives.
2.
Students' answers could legitimately vary, but I'd suspect for the 80-year-old, this election of our first Black president might be an incredible surprise; not so for today's emerging adults. In contrast, the opposite might be true of the financial crisis: it is likely to be a shock for emerging adults, but all too familiar for people who were born during the Great Depression of the l930s.
3.
At every age, Joey might be healthier; Joey also may end up more well-educated; more likely to be married, and so forth.
4.
Answers will center on reinforcing the child for sitting still, using a fork, saying “please pass the peas,” etc.; and ignoring the child when he shows inappropriate behavior. You can also use time out when the child misbehaves.
5.
The behaviorist might focus on getting Brandi in positively reinforcing social situations to try to extinguish her shyness. The psychoanalyst would encourage Brandi to talk about her early life experiences and get insight into the unconscious roots of her shyness. A developmental systems proponent would attack the problem on several fronts—trying out medications and different types of therapy, exploring how everything from cultural and family values to genetic predispositions might be causing Brandi's symptoms.
6.
From traditional behaviorism—Reinforce clients step by step for making applications, going for interviews, either individually or as a group. From modeling—specifically bring in people who have successfully returned to college years after they dropped out, to talk to clients; have clients model each other in filling out applications, and so forth, in group sessions. Self-efficacy interventions—continually bring home the message “you can succeed” directly and also via using the other techniques mentioned previously.
7.
Bowlby agreed with the Freudians that our early experiences with caregivers shape our mental health; but he also believed in a nature explanation of behavior, namely, that the attachment response is biologically built in to promote species survival.
8.
Here you could conduct a twin study, soliciting a large sample of identical and fraternal twins and comparing the similarity of “identicals” attitudes on a test of political attitudes with those of “fraternals.” If the identical twins had much more similar views than the fraternal twins, your conclusion would be that political attitudes are highly genetically determined. Alternatively, you could select adopted children and compare their political views with their biological and adoptive parents' views. If you found a high correlation between adoptees' attitudes and their birth parents views and virtually no similarity between adoptees' attitudes and their adoptive parents' views, you could make the same conclusion.
9.
Answers will vary. Evocative influences, however, will relate to how personality traits—shyness, happiness, kindness, and so forth, naturally affect how other people relate to that student. In describing active forces, students should talk about talents and interests that propelled them to actively select environments where they learned to improve at that skill, such as. “I was good at sports, so I've been playing soccer since the age of 3.” Person/environment fit = “I'm terrible at math, so when I had to take statistics, I failed. . . . I really 'get' psychology so I'm getting all A's in my psych classes . . . I'm not a morning person, so why did I take all 8 AM classes?”
10.
Freud focused on the crucial importance of early childhood alone. Freud believed that our main life mission is to satisfy sexual feelings (libido) and that during early childhood we progress from the oral to the anal to the phallic stage. Erikson believed we develop throughout life and that our main life mission is to become an independent person and relate to others. His stages of development are lifelong and involve how well we have resolved each of eight “psychosocial tasks” linked to age.
11.
Piaget believed that that all learning occurs by fitting new information to what we know—assimilation—and, in the process, expanding what we know or growing mentally. So assimilation and accommodation ALWAYS take place together. For example, a baby can only suck, so he assimilates all objects, to what he knows—sucking—and in the process learns about the world of objects.
12.
Measurement approach = naturalistic observation
Advantage: gives a concrete record of the behavior
Disadvantage: very time-intensive; parents in particular may not reveal their true childrearing because they will be on good behavior while you are watching.
13.
Melissa would select a sample of adults who naturally vary in their exercise practices and relate these variations to scores on tests of health. On the plus side, this study would be easy to carry out and not pose ethical issues. On the minus side, this research design cannot prove that exercise leads to better health. Ramon would randomly assign people to either regularly exercise or not exercise, and then compare the health of the respective groups at a later date. On the plus side, Ramon's intervention could really prove that exercising promotes health. On the minus side, this study would have serious practical problems and may be unethical.
14.
You can conclude that yes, older COHORTS may be happier in their jobs, but that says nothing about whether job satisfaction really rises with age.
15.
Minuses: Longitudinal studies are incredibly expensive, take years, and involve the hassle of getting people to return. Subject attrition is nonrandom. Therefore, particularly with adults, these studies only sample how “elite” people develop.
Pluses: This is the only research method that can chart real age changes, and, more important, reveal individual patterns of development, and how earlier life experiences relate to later behavior.
16.
There are multiple possibilities.
Fill in the Blank
1.
Core disciplines of lifespan development include ________ and ________.
2.
The biological limit of human life, called the ________, is about ________ years.
3.
________ is the term referring to one's income and level of education.
4.
Harmonious family and group relationships are all important in ________. Independence and achievement are highly valued in ________.
5.
The name in developmental science for inborn biological forces is ________.
6.
________ theories focus on specific changes that occur at particular ages.
7.
In traditional operant behaviorist terminology, we learn ________.
8.
A person who has high ________ feelings will be more likely to accept a challenging task than will someone who anticipates failure.
9.
According to Bowlby, children's early experiences with ________ shape their ability to love.
10.
Evolutionary psychologists emphasize the ________ bases of human behavior.
11.
The field that explores the biological and environment contribution to human differences is called ________.
12.
For Erikson, each life stage involves a particular developmental challenge, or ________.
13.
A researcher who looks at many different influences on behavior advocates the ________ perspective.
14.
Scientists seek to find the “truth” through ________.
15.
The disadvantage of correlational studies is that they do not allow us to determine ________.
16.
In a(n) ________, the researcher assigns groups to different treatments and looks at the results.
17.
Cross-sectional studies tell researchers about differences between or among ________.
18.
The volunteers who remain in a longitudinal study for years tend to be a(n) ________ group, much better than average.
19.
Interview studies that don't use “numbers” or statistics are called ________.
Answer Key
1.
child development; adult development
2.
maximum lifespan; 105
3.
Socioeconomic status
4.
collectivist cultures; individualistic societies
5.
nature
6.
Stage
7.
reinforcement
8.
efficacy
9.
caregivers
10.
biological or inborn
11.
behavioral genetics
12.
psychosocial task
13.
developmental systems
14.
research
15.
what causes what
16.
experiment
17.
cohorts
18.
elite
19.
qualitative research
Multipal choice
1.
Gerontologists study:
A)
evolution.
B)
genes.
C)
diseases of the ancient world.
D)
aging.
2.
A developmental scientist, would MOST likely study:
A)
crimes committed by the mentally ill.
B)
cross-cultural ideas about the right age to toilet train children.
C)
cures for schizophrenia.
D)
causes of the American revolution.
3.
What area of the lifespan did scientists first study?
A)
child development
B)
adult development
C)
gerontology
D)
prenatal development
4.
If you were studying development a century ago, you would focus on which life stage?
A)
child development
B)
adult development
C)
gerontology
D)
prenatal development
5.
As a developmentalist, you might study all of these topics EXCEPT:
A)
when we typically reach certain milestones like walking or puberty.
B)
what drugs work best for heart disease or schizophrenia.
C)
what happens after retirement or divorce.
D)
how people's personalities change over time.
6.
Which is NOT a normative transition?
A)
Mary begins kindergarten at age 5.
B)
Sara has a child when she is in her twenties.
C)
Josephine has a terrible car accident at age 18.
D)
Manuel retires at age 65.
7.
Pick the normative transition.
A)
going to school
B)
divorcing
C)
sleeping in bed with a child
D)
experiencing a recession
8.
Which person is referring to his cohort?
A)
“We live in the same area of the country.”
B)
“We play tennis together every week.”
C)
“We were born around the same time.”
D)
“We are of the same ethnic group.”
9.
A cohort refers to a:
A)
group of friends.
B)
group of people who were born around the same time.
C)
family group.
D)
group of people who live in the same neighborhood.
10.
When Mellissa tells you she is a “millenial” she is referring to:
A)
her society.
B)
her cohort.
C)
her income.
D)
being in the top 1 percent.
11.
Millential, Generation X, Baby Boomer. All these terms refer to our:
A)
social class.
B)
cohort.
C)
society.
D)
group of friend.
12.
The MAIN quality that differentiates the baby boom cohort is its:
A)
size.
B)
narcissism.
C)
intelligence.
D)
social status.
13.
Pick the person who is NOT a baby boomer.
A)
Carlos, who was in college during the late l960s
B)
Callista, who is about to turn 65
C)
Cami, who is 40
D)
Corrine, who became a grandma last year
�� 14.
Pick the person who is definitely a baby boomer.
A)
Callista, who is about to turn 65
B)
Cami, who is in her late seventies
C)
Corrine, who became a grandma last year
D)
Carlos, who just got his Ph.D.
15.
Pick the person who is definitely NOT a baby boomer.
A)
Callista, who is about to turn 65
B)
Cami, who is in her late eighties
C)
Corrine, who became a grandma last year
D)
Carlos, who just got his Ph.D.
16.
All are true of the baby boomers EXCEPT they:
A)
were teenagers during the late l960s.
B)
are entering their young-old years.
C)
are an incredibly large cohort.
D)
have similar outlooks, philosophies, and world views.
17.
All are true of the baby boom cohort EXCEPT they:
A)
are now in the aging phase of life (that is, in their fifties and sixties).
B)
are now old-old.
C)
are an extremely large group.
D)
reached their teens during the 1960s.
18.
Which person is NOT a member of the baby boom cohort?
A)
David, who was born in l946, after his dad returned from World War II
B)
Margaret, who entered college at age l8, during the late 1960s
C)
Lynnette, who was born during the Great Depression
D)
Frank, who retired in 2013 at age 63
19.
If a woman tells you she is a baby boomer, she:
A)
grew up during World War II.
B)
grew up during the l980s.
C)
reached her teens during the l960s or l970s.
D)
reached her teens in the l980s.
20.
Give a main reason why childhood has gotten longer over the centuries.
A)
schooling—need for more education
B)
economic pressures—need for kids to stay at home
C)
biology—children mature physically at older ages
D)
family changes—more single-parent moms
21.
José is explaining some historical facts about childhood. He should say:
A)
“In previous centuries, we cared more about nurturing children than we do today.”
B)
“In previous centuries, we cared more about education than we do today.”
C)
“In previous centuries, people were defined as adults right after college.”
D)
“In previous centuries, activities we would see as child abuse were routine.”
22.
Which force was NOT influential in producing our modern “caring” view of childhood?
A)
religious leaders' sermons
B)
the writings of philosophers, such as Locke and Rousseau, who felt childhood was a special period
C)
medical advances, which dramatically reduced infant mortality
D)
universal education and the need for children to go to school
23.
In summarizing the “changing conceptions of childhood” section, you can make all of these points EXCEPT:
A)
Childhood has gotten “longer” over the past centuries.
B)
We now treat children better than “in the good old days.”
C)
Rates of child abuse have been rising.
D)
A century ago, no defined life stage called adolescence existed.
24.
All are true of emerging adulthood EXCEPT it:
A)
refers to the time from high school graduation age 18 through the late 20s.
B)
is the time when we are exploring our place in the adult world.
C)
was promoted by the fact we now live a long time.
D)
is an unhappy life stage.
25.
“If I am in my twenties, my life stage is ________. If I am in my sixties, I am ________.” (Pick the correct life-stage terms.)
A)
emerging adulthood; young-old
B)
early adulthood; a new senior citizen
C)
first adulthood; in early old age
D)
middle adulthood; a senior
26.
The age you have a fifty-fifty chance of surviving to is your:
A)
lifespan.
B)
average life expectancy.
C)
maximum life span.
D)
longevity.
27.
All are true of the twentieth century life-expectancy revolution EXCEPT it:
A)
was caused by dramatic medical advances in curing infectious disease.
B)
occurred in the first half of the twentieth century.
C)
allowed us to live beyond the maximum lifespan.
D)
allowed most of us to live to “the aging phase of life.”
28.
Why are deaths from heart disease much more common today than a century ago?
A)
We are living much longer.
B)
We are not taking as good care of our bodies.
C)
We are working harder.
D)
We are under more stress.
29.
Sam is describing some effects of the twentieth century life-expectancy revolution. Pick the statement he should NOT make.
A)
“People now often reach 'full' adulthood at an older age.”
B)
“People now often live beyond the maximum lifespan.”
C)
“People now more often survive to the old-old years.”
D)
“People now more often die of heart disease and cancer.”
30.
Clara is discussing characteristics of the young-old. Pick the statement she should NOT make.
A)
“They are in their sixties and seventies.”
B)
“They are often healthy.”
C)
“They may say they look and feel middle aged.”
D)
“They are in their late fifties.”
31.
Pick the MAIN DIFFERENCE between the young old and the old-old.
A)
health (illness and disability)
B)
wisdom
C)
discrimination
D)
living in the North vs. the South
32.
Phillipe is contrasting the young-old with the old-old. Pick the statement he should NOT make.
A)
“The young-old are more likely to be healthy.”
B)
“The young-old are in their fifites.”
C)
“The young-old are more likely to see themselves as middle aged.”
D)
“The young-old are more likely to be active.”
33.
Clarisa tells you, “My grandma is old-old.” What should you be thinking?
A)
This woman is in her eighties or beyond.
B)
This woman is more likely to be frail.
C)
This woman is more likely to live in a nursing home.
D)
All of the answers are correct.
34.
All are adult lifestyle changes that have occurred since the l960s EXCEPT:
A)
many more divorced couples and single parents.
B)
men doing much more housework and childcare.
C)
women totally moving into the workforce.
D)
more rigid ideas of how we should behave as adults.
35.
Sum up the main consequence of the lifestyle revolution of the 1960s.
A)
more freedom to live our lives the way we want
B)
more happiness
C)
more unhappiness
D)
more obesity
36.
Joe is discussing the causes of the Great Recession of 2008. He can make all of the following comments EXCEPT:
A)
“It began with a bursting of a housing bubble—and a dramatic decline in real estate prices.”
B)
“It caused strapped consumers to spend less.”
C)
“It produced widespread layoffs.”
D)
“Its effects are now confined to the United States.”
37.
José is discussing some fallout from the Great Recession of 2008. He should make all of these comments EXCEPT:
A)
“It is causing a huge increase in divorce.”
B)
“It is causing people to lose faith in the American dream—that hard work leads to success.”
C)
“It is causing people to rethink standard ideas like “You must leave home to go to college.”
D)
“It is leading to people retiring at older ages.”
38.
Income inequality refers to:
A)
the widening gap between the very rich (1 percent) and the rest of the population.
B)
the fact that we are losing our middle class and becoming a nation of very rich and poor.
C)
the fact that recent economic gains all went to the upper 10 (or 1 percent of the population).
D)
All of the answers are correct.
39.
If you want to know someone's socioeconomic status, you would ask:
A)
“What is your education level?”
B)
“What is your medical history?”
C)
“What is your income?”
D)
“What is your education level?” and “What is your income?”
40.
All of the following comments relate to a U.S. person's socioeconomic status, EXCEPT:
A)
“He is earning over $100,000 year.”
B)
“She is living under the poverty line.”
C)
“He has a shorter life expectancy; because he has no health insurance.”
D)
“She just turned 65.”
41.
Pick the developed nation.
A)
Zaire
B)
Pakistan
C)
Indonesia
D)
Japan
42.
“This country has a low median income and life-expectancy.” I am describing a(n):
A)
primitive society.
B)
developing nation.
C)
collectivist society.
D)
individualistic society.
43.
Mariah says, “Obedience to family comes first.” Mark tells you, “Honesty and independence are my main values in life.” Mariah's cultural worldview is ________, while Mark's is more ________.
A)
coercive; narcissistic
B)
caring; independent
C)
collectivist; individualistic
D)
individualistic; collectivist
44.
In collectivist cultures, people:
A)
value their own needs over the good of the community.
B)
tend to live in intergenerational extended families.
C)
care greatly about personal success.
D)
want to be rich.
45.
In individualistic cultures, people value:
A)
arranged marriages.
B)
independence.
C)
obedience.
D)
suppressing feelings.
46.
Who has MOST individualistic cultural worldview?
A)
José, who puts his college plans on hold, because his grandparents are ill and he feels “family comes first.”
B)
Kim, who is excitedly preparing for her wedding to Jules, the man her parents picked to be her husband.
C)
Marta, who wants to go to school to become a doctor, but will easily give up this plan to preserve family harmony, if her father and brothers object.
D)
Thomas, who wants to raise his daughters to be self-sufficient and to openly speak their mind.
47.
Which collectivist nation is becoming more individualistic and affluent?
A)
the United States
B)
Haiti
C)
England
D)
China
48.
Pick the nation that does NOT have a collectivist worldview.
A)
the United States
B)
India
C)
China
D)
Bangladesh
49.
If you met an emerging adult from a collectivist culture, she might:
A)
be more reticent about sharing her feelings.
B)
not want to leave home to go to college.
C)
place enormous value on subordinating her needs to the group.
D)
All of the answers are correct.
50.
Maya has a collectivist worldview. And Marrisa has an individualistic worldview. You might predict:
A)
Maya values obedience more than Marrisa.
B)
Marissa values independence more than Maya.
C)
Marrisa values self-assertion more than Maya.
D)
Maya is more unhappy than Marrisa.
51.
Which of these people is likely to live the longest?
A)
Donald, a farmer in the American Midwest
B)
Raquel, who works in a shoe factory in the Philippines
C)
Abdul, who runs a shop in Morocco
D)
Sarah, a third-grade teacher, in Canada
52.
Pick the largest U.S. minority group:
A)
Asian Americans
B)
Latinos
C)
Blacks
D)
Native Americans
53.
If you have a Latino friend, you can assume:
A)
she is almost certainly living in poverty.
B)
she has the same general world view if she immigrated from Cuba or Brazil.
C)
not much—as a broad label, it doesn't tell us about a person's ideas or life.
D)
she feels “not quite” American.
54.
Imagine you time traveled to the United States in the mid-twenty-first century. You would probably see all of the following EXCEPT:
A)
many more Latino Americans.
B)
many more “mixed race” couples.
C)
more Asian Americans.
D)
more African Americans.
55.
Each major ethnic minority group in the United States is:
A)
very similar, having the same values and attitudes.
B)
composed of people from a variety of countries, with different attitudes and worldviews.
C)
becoming more isolated.
D)
growing dramatically as a fraction of the U.S. population.
56.
Imagine you are living 30 years from now, in 2040, in the United States. You will see all of the following changes in the population EXCEPT:
A)
minorities may outnumber whites.
B)
more old-old people.
C)
more biracial and multiracial adults and children.
D)
African Americans may outnumber whites.
57.
The basic marker that shapes life that is MOST enduring and the LEAST likely to change is our:
A)
cultural worldview.
B)
gender.
C)
cohort.
D)
label as a single ethnic group.
58.
The statement, “Women are better than men at doing housework” is an example of a:
A)
scientific finding.
B)
stereotype.
C)
marketing strategy used by industry.
D)
universal trait.
59.
Gender differences in attitudes and lifestyles:
A)
are mainly biological.
B)
are mainly shaped by society.
C)
are both shaped by biology and society.
D)
basically stay the same over time.
60.
Which statement about the lifespan is most TRUE?
A)
Most people's lives are the same, no matter where in the world they live.
B)
Throughout history, people's day-to-day lives have not changed very much.
C)
Most ideas about proper behavior are universal.
D)
Our lifespan varies dramatically depending on our cohort, our socioeconomic status, our cultural background, and our gender.
61.
Theories in developmental science:
A)
help us understand and predict why people act the way they do.
B)
tell us about our genes.
C)
are only useful in isolated cases.
D)
involve conducting statistical tests.
62.
Dr. Kleine believes in a nature (not nurture) explanation of development. Which statement would he be MOST likely to make?
A)
“Our personality depends on how we are treated during infancy.”
B)
“Gender differences in friendship styles are programmed at birth.”
C)
“Good teachers can raise IQ scores in children from impoverished homes.”
D)
“With effort we can be anything we want in life.”
63.
Pick the statement that a traditional behaviorist would make.
A)
“I can explain human behavior by looking at its reinforcers (or reinforcement).”
B)
“It's very important to understand people's feelings and inner motivations.”
C)
“Each person perceives reality differently.”
D)
“Human behavior is very complicated.”
64.
According to B. F. Skinner, behaviors that are ________ will be learned.
A)
stopped
B)
reinforced
C)
observed
D)
beneficial
65.
JoJo, at the mall, sees a big lollipop, and asks Daddy to get it. When daddy says “no,” JoJo falls to the floor, kicking and screaming. After ignoring JoJo's tantrum for a few minutes, Daddy gives in and buys the lollipop. JoJo immediately becomes quiet. If you were a traditional behaviorist observing this scene, you would make all of the following comments EXCEPT:
A)
“JoJo has learned 'If I scream long enough, I will be reinforced.'”
B)
“If Daddy had ignored JoJo's tantrum, the screaming would extinguish.”
C)
“JoJo is basically a bad girl.”
D)
“Daddy has put JoJo on a variable reinforcement schedule, which should cause huge problems the next time they visit the mall!”
66.
Pick the variable reinforcement schedule.
A)
Sometimes I get A's when I study and sometimes I don't. So if I happen not to get an A on this test, I know I have to keep studying and eventually I will succeed.
B)
If I don't get an A on this text, I will just give up.
C)
If I get an A on this test, this means I'm a genius.
D)
I love teachers who give mainly A's!
67.
Pick the example of operant conditioning.
A)
when Tiffany cries the family rushes over and gives her attention, so she has learned to cry a lot
B)
you give your husband a big kiss whenever he does yard work, so now he mows the grass every few days
C)
after your car accident, you refuse to drive
D)
All of these are examples.
68.
If a traditional behaviorist notices that a nursing home resident's memory has seriously declined, she would say:
A)
“The resident is not being reinforced for remembering anything.”
B)
“The resident has developed Alzheimer's disease.”
C)
“The resident is being overmedicated.”
D)
“The resident is lonely and depressed.”
69.
A traditional behaviorist is giving childrearing advice. She would say all of the following EXCEPT:
A)
“Pay attention to good behaviors.”
B)
“Be consistent. Never reward the child when she is acting inappropriately.”
C)
“Don't pay attention to your child when she is acting up.”
D)
“Above all give your child lots of love.”
70.
A couple comes to your office for therapy. As a traditional behaviorist you would focus on:
A)
increasing the number of reinforcing comments the spouses make to each other.
B)
understanding the inner motivations from childhood that are keeping this couple from relating to each other in a positive way.
C)
increasing efficacy feelings.
D)
providing medications.
71.
A friend asks what a behaviorist might advise about how to raise her son. Pick the tip she would NOT give.
A)
Ignore bad behavior (or don't reinforce it) by paying attention to your child.
B)
Pay attention when your child does something positive and reinforce him for good behavior.
C)
If you want your child to learn to persist at an activity, reinforce him every time he performs that action.
D)
To discipline your child, be consistent. Never give in because he whines!
72.
Link statements 1, 2, and 3 to the correct behavioral term.
1. “Sometimes when I study, I get A's and sometimes I don't. So I keep plugging along.”
2. “Even though I failed this test, I know I'm a terrific student. So I keep studying because I have faith in myself.”
3. “I watched my brother studying—that's how I learned to study hard.”
A)
1 = high self-efficacy; 2 = modeling; 3 = variable reinforcement schedule
B)
1 = variable reinforcement schedule; 2 = high self-efficacy; 3 = modeling
C)
1 = reinforcement; 2 = variable schedule; 3 = modeling
D)
1 = variable reinforcement schedule; 2 = modeling; 3 = high self-efficacy
73.
Dr. Academic is a cognitive behaviorist. Which statement(s) would he make?
A)
“I believe we can predict behavior by looking at a person's feelings of competence.”
B)
“I believe that we learn by watching and imitating people.”
C)
“I believe that we learn only when personally rewarded for our actions.”
D)
“I believe we can predict behavior by looking at a person's feelings of competence.” and “I believe that we learn by watching and imitating people.”
74.
Jorge is an 8-year-old boy. According to social learning theory/cognitive behaviorism, which person would he be MOST likely to model?
A)
Marisa, a 4-year-old girl who lives down the street
B)
Uncle Pedro, who is incredibly kind and involved with Jorge
C)
Mr. Taylor, the principal at the high school in town
D)
Spot, Jorge's dog
75.
Phyllis's son, who is worried about his 72-year-old mom, suggests that she attend activities at the local senior center. Phyllis resists this idea, saying that she is too old to meet new people. How might a cognitive behaviorist interpret Phyllis's reluctance?
A)
Phyllis is seriously depressed, and ought to see a counselor.
B)
Phyllis needs to come to terms emotionally with her husband's death.
C)
Phyllis may have low efficacy feelings with regard to making new friends.
D)
Phyllis is right. At her age, it's difficult to make new friends.
76.
Which person is showing high self-efficacy?
A)
Annie, who is very smart, enrolls in a challenging Italian course.
B)
Beth turns down a chance to audition for a starring role in a local play.
C)
David tells you “I have a math phobia.”
D)
Chaz wants to socialize with people he knows well, rather than joining new groups.
77.
Pick the correct examples of: (1) modeling and (2) self-efficacy, with regard to studying:
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Test Bank Experiencing MIS 4th Canadian Edition
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Experiencing MIS, Cdn. Ed., 4e (Kroenke)
Chapter 2 Business Processes and Decision Making
1) Business processes are synonymous with business systems.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 26
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
2) You should always ask yourself "how can I use my time in school to enhance those skills I already have?"
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 44
Topic: Q8
Skill: RECALL
3) The inventory management process includes placing orders and receiving goods into inventory.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 26
Topic: Q2
Skill: APPLIED
4) In the payment process, the invoice is compared to the purchase order.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: APPLIED
5) A copy of the purchase order is sent to the customer.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
6) A business process consists of activities, resources, facilities, and information.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
7) Any item of value can be considered to be a potential resource for a business process.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
8) Activities transform resources and data into different kinds of resources and data.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
9) An inventory database would be considered to be an example of a facility in the inventory management process.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
10) The fact that it rained 1.2 inches today is an example of information.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
11) The fact that the sun rose this morning at 6:25 a.m. is an example of data.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
12) Data is another word for information.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
13) When data is presented with a meaningful context, it becomes information.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
14) The information that is the output of one process can be viewed as a data input to another process.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
15) Each activity within a business process must use one, and only one, information system.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
16) It is good business practice for a payment activity to have a single person assigned to approve payments and generate checks.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Type: TF Page Ref: 33
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
17) Strategic decisions involve long term actions whose consequences may not be realized for years.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
18) A structured decision involves an understood and accepted method for making the decision.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
19) A transaction processing system helps managers allocate and utilize resources.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
20) During intelligence gathering, the decision makers determine what is to be decided, what the criteria for the decision will be, and what data are available.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
21) While weather is an unstructured phenomenon, weather forecasting is an example of structured decision making.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Type: TF Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
22) The quality of your thinking is a large part of the quality of the information system.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 39
Topic: Q8
Skill: RECALL
23) The review step may lead to another decision and another iteration of the decision making process.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
24) Your mind and your thinking are not merely a component of the information systems you use; they are the most important component.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Type: TF Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q8
Skill: RECALL
25) Information needs to be just barely sufficient for the purpose for which it is generated.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 30
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
26) For information to be worth its cost, there must be an appropriate relationship between the cost of information and its value.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Type: TF Page Ref: 30
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
27) A business process is
A) a network of activities used to accomplish business goals.
B) a set of required steps in a production process.
C) a network of activities, resources, facilities, and information that interact to achieve some business function.
D) a set of actives in a value chain.
E) a set of activities in a supply chain.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
28) An information system must produce information that is
A) worth its cost, relevant, barely sufficient, accurate.
B) relevant, timely, all encompassing, worth its cost.
C) just barely sufficient, only a year old, worth its cost.
D) timely and accurate.
E) accurate and worth its cost.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
29) Which of the following are characteristics of good information?
A) Worth its cost, timely, relevant, all encompassing
B) Timely, expensive but complete, relevant
C) Relevant, not many important errors, worth its cost
D) Timely, expensive but complete, accurate
E) Timely, relevant, worth its cost, barely sufficient, accurate
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
30) Relevant information refers to information that is
A) worth the value paid to generate it.
B) useful to both the context and the subject at hand.
C) good for the purpose for which it is generated.
D) produced in time for its intended use.
E) correct and complete.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
31) Just barely sufficient information refers to information that is
A) correct and complete.
B) produced in time for its intended use.
C) good for the purpose for which it is generated.
D) not useful to the decision being made.
E) useful to both the context and the subject at hand.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
32) "Worth its cost" refers to information
A) that is produced in time for its intended use.
B) that is good for the purpose for which it is generated.
C) that is collected in a low-cost manner.
D) that has an appropriate relationship between its cost and its value.
E) that is useful to both the context and the subject at hand.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
33) Operational decisions refer to
A) the control of resources and activities over a time period of less than one month.
B) day-to-day activities.
C) an understood and accepted method for making decisions.
D) the allocation and utilization of resources.
E) broader-scope, organizational issues.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
34) Managerial decisions refer to
A) day-to-day activities.
B) broader-scope, organizational issues.
C) an understood and accepted method for making decisions.
D) the allocation and utilization of resources.
E) the control of resources and activities.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
35) Strategic decision refer to
A) the allocation and utilization of resources.
B) broader-scope, organizational issues.
C) day-to-day activities.
D) transactions details.
E) an understood and accepted method for making decisions.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
36) A Transaction Processing System supports
A) transactional decisions.
B) operational decisions.
C) strategic decisions.
D) executive decisions.
E) managerial decisions.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
37) A Management Information System supports
A) operational decisions.
B) managerial decisions.
C) strategic decisions.
D) unstructured decisions.
E) executive decisions.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
38) Operational Decisions involve
A) long term actions.
B) short term actions.
C) allocation of resources.
D) product line development.
E) staffing quotas.
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
39) An understood and accepted method for making decisions is used to make
A) managerial decisions.
B) operational decisions.
C) strategic decisions.
D) executive decisions.
E) structured decisions.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 38
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
40) An unstructured decision making process
A) is one for which there is an agreed upon decision-making method.
B) is one for which there is no documentation required.
C) is one for which there are no structured steps.
D) is one for which there are no formal procedures.
E) is one for which there is no agreed-on decision-making method.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
41) The step in a decision making process where decision markers determine what is to be decided, what the criteria for the decision will be, and what data are available is called
A) alternatives formulation.
B) decision analysis.
C) intelligence gathering.
D) the review step.
E) the choice step.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
42) The stage in a decision making process where decision makers lay out various alternatives is called
A) decision analysis.
B) intelligence gathering.
C) alternatives formulation.
D) the choice step.
E) the review step.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
43) The stage in a decision making process which a decision maker analyze the alternatives and selected one is called
A) alternatives formulation.
B) the choice step.
C) intelligence gathering.
D) decision step.
E) the review step.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
44) An activity can be defined as
A) the carrying out of a business procedure.
B) a series of steps in a business process.
C) an action that supports a business strategy.
D) transforming resources and information of one type into resources and information of another type.
E) action performed by an actor.
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
45) Items of value are referred to as
A) money.
B) valuables.
C) resources.
D) facilities.
E) equipment.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
46) The HELM system improves efficiency by eliminating
A) computers aboard tugboats.
B) multiple dispatcher log sheets.
C) multiple data entries for each job.
D) accurate paper work.
E) the large number of people involved in completing a job.
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Type: MC Page Ref: 39
Topic: Q8
Skill: APPLIED
47) Knowledge derived from data can be described as
A) wisdom.
B) information.
C) knowledge.
D) data.
E) context.
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
48) Recorded facts or figures is (are)
A) context.
B) information.
C) data.
D) knowledge.
E) processed information.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
49) Data presented in a meaningful context can be described as
A) processed information.
B) knowledge.
C) information.
D) processed knowledge.
E) processed data.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
50) Which of the following is arguably the most important component of an Information System?
A) Software
B) Hardware
C) Processes
D) Information
E) People
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
51) The review step
A) is when the organization makes a decision.
B) is when the organization makes a decision and may lead to another decision.
C) may lead to another decision.
D) is when the organization reviews the results of the decision.
E) is when the organization reviews the results of the decision and may lead to another decision.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
52) Which of the following is a structured decision?
A) Fortune telling
B) Performance appraisals
C) Stock marketing forecasting
D) Predicting the Super Bowl winner
E) Weather forecasting
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
53) Which of the following is an unstructured decision?
A) Allocating furniture and equipment to employees
B) Weather forecasting
C) Determining the future book value of assets
D) Stock marketing forecasting
E) Airline pricing
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
54) Which of the following is a managerial decision?
A) Which invoices should be paid today?
B) Determining next year's IT budget
C) Should we extend credit to a customer?
D) Determining how many daily transactions have occurred in a specified period
E) Should our firm acquire a competing firm?
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
55) Which of the following is an operational decision?
A) Determining next year's IT budget
B) Should we extend credit to a customer?
C) What are our production goals for the next three months?
D) Which invoices should be paid today?
E) Should our firm acquire a competing firm?
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
56) Which of the following is a strategic decision?
A) Should we extend credit to a customer?
B) Determining next year's IT budget
C) What wage should we pay a particular employee?
D) Should our firm acquire a competing firm?
E) Which invoices should be paid today?
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
57) Which is the following is most useful to a company?
A) Knowledge
B) Observations
C) Decisions
D) Information
E) Data
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
58) The average wage for a factory worker is an example of (a)
A) data.
B) business process.
C) knowledge.
D) strategy.
E) decision.
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
59) The statement that Jeff Parks earns less than half the average hourly wage of the Garden Department is
A) policy.
B) strategy.
C) data.
D) information.
E) decision.
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
60) Which systems are typically used during the alternatives formulation step?
A) Word processors
B) Digital imaging systems
C) Presentation software
D) Statistics packages
E) Collaborative systems
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
61) Which systems are typically used to analysis data and information during the choice step?
A) Word processing packages
B) Financial modeling tools
C) Databases
D) Digital imagining packages
E) Presentation software
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
62) Customer numbers and their names would be an example of the ________ component of an order management information system.
A) software
B) information
C) procedure
D) hardware
E) people
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
63) Business systems are sometimes referred to as business
A) networks.
B) models.
C) channels.
D) processes.
E) webs.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 26
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
64) A business process is a network of information, resources, facilities, and
A) hardware.
B) activities.
C) systems.
D) data.
E) knowledge.
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
65) In the inventory management process, quality inspection would be viewed as a(n)
A) activity.
B) information output.
C) data input.
D) resource.
E) facility.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
66) An activity can be ________ or ________ and sometimes blended, depending on how the procedures are executed.
A) external, internal
B) manual, automated
C) internal, automated
D) automated, integrated
E) integrated, manual
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
67) In an automated activity the computer hardware receives its instructions from (the)
A) version control program.
B) network protocols.
C) people.
D) software.
E) Web services.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
68) Because they have input into the inventory management process, both suppliers and customers are viewed as
A) information outputs.
B) data inputs
C) resources.
D) facilities.
E) activities.
Answer: C
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
69) The truck that delivers the orders to the receiving and stocking activity would be viewed in the inventory management process as a(n)
A) facility.
B) information output.
C) activity.
D) resource.
E) data input
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
70) Inventories, databases, factories, and equipment are all examples of
A) resources.
B) information.
C) transactions.
D) facilities.
E) activities.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
71) The on-time performance of all your vendors for a specific item would be an example of
A) inventory
B) data.
C) communication.
D) information.
E) resource.
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
72) For General Motors, the quantity of tire rims received would be an example of
A) communication.
B) knowledge.
C) data.
D) information.
E) resource.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
73) In an information system, the software and ________ components are both sets of instructions.
A) data
B) software
C) people
D) procedure
E) hardware
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
74) Business processes generate information by combining key data in a specific
A) context.
B) activity.
C) procedure.
D) relevance.
E) process.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
75) In an information system the people and ________ components are considered to be actors since they can take specific actions.
A) hardware
B) data
C) people
D) procedure
E) software
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
76) ________ would be one of the factors that lead to designing fully automated systems.
A) High skill employee positions
B) Tasks that require significant employee data inputs
C) Low turnover employee positions
D) High turnover employee positions
E) Tasks that require significant human judgement
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 33
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
77) ________ is (are) instructions for hardware and ________ is (are) instructions for people.
A) Procedures, software
B) Software, processes
C) Data, processes
D) Machine instructions, user manuals
E) Software, procedures
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Type: MC Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
78) If you do not know what to do with the information that your IS produces (even if it is a perfectly functioning IS)
A) you likely started with faulty data.
B) you probably have the wrong communications software.
C) ask a techie for a translation.
D) you can still make decisions based on that information.
E) you are wasting your time and money.
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Type: MC Page Ref: 39
Topic: Q8
Skill: APPLIED
79) Business Process Modeling Notation provides ________ graphical elements that can be used to document a process.
Answer: four
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
80) Human resources personnel say that ________ is one of the most effective ways of finding a job.
Answer: networking
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 44
Topic: Q8
Skill: RECALL
81) A ________ lists the items ordered and the quantity requested of each item.
Answer: purchase order
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
82) The ________ process works to balance the demands from customers with the inventory purchased from suppliers.
Answer: inventory management
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
83) When stock in inventory hits a critical point, it is called the ________ point.
Answer: reorder
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
84) The most common definition of information is that it is derived from data, where data is defined as ________.
Answer: recorded facts
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
85) Good information is based on ________ and correct data.
Answer: complete
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
86) ________ information is produced in time for its intended use.
Answer: timely
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
87) Information should be ________ to both the context and the subject.
Answer: relevant
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 30
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
88) For information to be ________ there must be an appropriate relationship between the cost of information and its value.
Answer: worth its cost
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 30
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
89) Software and procedure components are both sets of ________.
Answer: instructions
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
90) ________ decisions concern the allocation and utilization of resources.
Answer: Managerial
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
91) An employee's name and number would be an example of ________.
Answer: data
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
92) The average compensation for sales agents in a company would be an example of ________.
Answer: information
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
93) ________ are raw, unprocessed facts such as inventory levels.
Answer: Data
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
94) ________ is the process of moving human work to the computer side of the information system.
Answer: Automation
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 33
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
95) Data becomes information when it has a(n) ________.
Answer: context
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
96) The fact that oil costs $74.25 a barrel is an example of ________.
Answer: data
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
97) ________ is the bridge between the human and computer components of an information system.
Answer: Data
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
98) The way in which you run a program such as a spreadsheet program is called a(n) ________.
Answer: procedure
Diff: 3 Type: SA Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
99) Instructions for how a computer should perform specific tasks is (are) called ________.
Answer: software
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 32
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
100) From a business process view, order placement in an inventory management process would be a(n) ________.
Answer: activity
Diff: 3 Type: SA Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
101) A customer acts as a(n) ________ in the inventory management process.
Answer: resource
Diff: 3 Type: SA Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
102) A network of activities, resources, facilities, and information that interact to achieve some business function is a(n) ________.
Answer: business process
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 27
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
103) From a business process viewpoint, a warehouse that stores inventory would be a(n) ________.
Answer: facility
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
104) The payment ________ transforms invoice information into payment information.
Answer: activity
Diff: 3 Type: SA Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
105) An example of a(n) ________ payment activity is seen when an accounts payable clerk receives and checks the accuracy of invoices against the purchase orders before issuing a payment.
Answer: manual
Diff: 2 Type: SA Page Ref: 34
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
106) Provide an example of a managerial decision.
Answer: Any decisions that involves the allocation and utilization of resources. Typical managerial decisions are: How much should we budget for computer hardware and programs for department A next year? How many engineers should we assign to project B?
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
107) Provide an example of an operational decision.
Answer: Operational decisions concern day-to-day actives. Typical operational decisions are: How many widgets should we order from vendor A? Should we extend credit to vendor B? Which invoices should we pay today?
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
108) Provide an example of a strategic decision.
Answer: Strategic decisions concern broader-scope, organizational issues. Typical decisions at the strategic levels are: Should we start a new product line? Should we open a centralized warehouse in Calgary?
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
109) Provide an example of an unstructured decision.
Answer: An unstructured decision process is one for which there is no agreed-on decision-making method.
Predicting the future direction fo the economy or the stock market is a famous example.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
110) Provide an example of a structured decision.
Answer: A structured decision is one for which there is an understood and accepted method for making the decision. A formula for computing the reorder quantity of an item in inventory is an example of a structured decision process.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
111) Describe the types of systems used during the intelligence gathering step.
Answer: During intelligence gathering, email and video conferences facilitate communication among the decision markers. Also, during the first phase, decision makers use query and reporting systems as well as other types of data analysis applications to obtain relevant data.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
112) Describe the types of systems used during the choice step.
Answer: During the choice step, analysis applications such as spreadsheets and financial and other modelling applications help decision makers to analyze alternatives.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
113) Describe the types of systems used during the implementation step.
Answer: The implementation stage involves the use of communications applications, and all types of information systems can be used during review.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 37
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
114) What does a transaction processing system support?
Answer: A transaction processing system supports operational decisions.
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 35
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
115) Describe the types of systems used during the review step.
Answer: During the review step, communications applications, analysis applications such as spreadsheets and financial and query and reporting systems help decision makers to analyze alternatives.
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 36
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
116) What is meant by a business process? Give an example.
Answer: A business process is defined as being a network of activities, resources, facilities, and information that interact to achieve some business function. Sometimes they are also referred to as business systems. The text describes an example of the inventory management process which starts with Purchasing activities and ends with the Payment activity. Other common processes might include the sales order management process and the employee recruiting process.
Diff: 2 Type: ES Page Ref: 26
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
117) What is data and how is it different from information?
Answer: Data are simply the raw recorded facts and figures. Data is one of the five basic components of an information system. The system turns data into information by classifying, summarizing, sorting it and giving it a meaningful context.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 29
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
118) What are the components of a business process? Give examples of each.
Answer: The components of a business process include activities, resources, facilities, and information. Activities transform resources and information from one type into another. This happens when a clerk checks a customer credit rating before entering in a sales order for that customer. Resources are items of interest to the process. They interact with the process but are not under direct control of the organization. These could be customers and vendors. Facilities include databases, inventories, factories and equipment. Information is what activities use to determine how to transform the inputs they receive into outputs they produce.
Diff: 3 Type: ES Page Ref: 28
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
0 notes
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Test Bank Experiencing MIS 3rd Canadian Edition
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1) MIS only matters to MIS majors and not to students in other business disciplines.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
2) Information systems are not created for the sheer joy of exploring technology.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 7; 9
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
3) You must be a technology wizard to achieve the company’s goals and objectives using IT.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q5
Skill: RECALL
4) Moore's Law can be expressed as "the speed of a computer chip doubles every 20 months."
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
5) In the next decade unlimited storage will be almost free.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
6) Google uses a function called "content extraction" for Gmail accounts to understand the content of users’ e-mails.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
7) Information system is a group of components that interact to produce information.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
8) Information systems must include the use of a computer.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
9) According to Industry Canada, Canada's ICT industry has grown faster than the country's overall GDP since 2002.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
10) Information technology (IT) refers to methods, inventions, standards, and products.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
11) Most managers will get involved in purchasing computer hardware and building systems.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
12) MIS stands for "Management Information Sciences."
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 3
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
13) MIS is synonymous with IT.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
14) Information systems are created to solve business needs.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: APPLIED
15) E-mail is an example of an information system.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 13
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
16) To gain a competitive advantage it is important that one be an IT developer.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 13 & 14
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
17) An important skill in business is to be able to identify opportunities for innovation through the use of information systems.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 13 & 14
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
18) MIS is the development and use of information systems to help organizations accomplish their goals and objectives.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
19) Most innovative uses of IT have already been invented.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: VARIOUS IMPLIED
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
20) The decreasing price and increasing power of computer chips is one of the main drivers for improvements in information systems.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
21) Moore's Law states that the price of microprocessors will be cut in half every 12 months.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
22) Understanding the implications of technological change allows for greater effectiveness of business professionals.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
23) A combination of business and technology skills can open a number of doors in the new Canadian economy.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
24) This class is solely about learning how to use Excel and Access.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
25) According to "Outlook on Human Resources in the ICT Labour Market: 2008 - 2015" satisfactory communications and other business skills are important core skills for individuals looking for a career in this industry sector.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: TF
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q5
Skill: RECALL
26) You can maximize the value of this course by personalizing the material
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: TF
Page Reference: 22
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
27) The basic premise of Moore's law is
a. IT makes people more efficient.
b. the density of transistors on a computer chip doubles roughly every 20 months.
c. people tend to want more information than they need.
d. IT makes people more productive.
e. computer memory is getting bigger.
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
28) Social Networking sites generate revenue through
a. government subsidy.
b. subscription fees.
c. social networking sites do not generate revenue.
d. advertising.
e. corporate sponsorship.
Answer: d
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q2
Skill: APPLIED
29) Which of the following is an example of a social networking site?
a. Youtube
b. Yahoo.ca
c. Facebook.com
d. Wikipedia
e. Google.ca
Answer: c
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
30) Which of the following is not considered a function of a social networking site?
a. A repository for personal profiles.
b. Video sharing.
c. Searching for new / unused books.
d. Indirect selling of products.
e. Searching for friends.
Answer: c
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 9
Topic: Q1
Skill: APPLIED
31) What is an Information System?
a. An information system is a group of components that interact to produce information.
b. Computer hardware and software.
c. Software development process.
d. A framework describing human computer interaction.
e. An information gathering application.
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
32) How does IT differ from IS?
a. IT costs money while IS doesn't.
b. IT is a newer word for IS.
c. IT refers to methods, invention, standards and products while IS is a system of hardware, software, data, procedures and people that produces information.
d. IT and IS are the same.
e. IT doesn't matter but IS does.
Answer: c
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
33) Which of the following best describes the five-component framework of IS?
a. Hardware, software, data, procedures, and people
b. Networks, software, servers, programmers, and managers
c. Applications, people, standards, budgets, and software
d. Storage, processing, input, output, and control
e. Applications, processes, processing, data, and standards
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
34) Information systems exists to help businesses to
a. save money.
b. better organize our lives.
c. be more profitable.
d. be more competitive.
e. archieve goals and objectives.
Answer: e
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
35) As a business professional, one needs to look at information systems only through the lens of
a. business need.
b. technology.
c. cost savings.
d. software.
e. business processes.
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
36) Which of the following is the federal government agency responsible for categorizing industry sectors and collecting information about them?
a. Industry Canada
b. Bank of Canada
c. Ministry of Finance
d. Canada Revenue Agency
e. Ministry of Defense
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
37) According to Industry Canada, the Canadian ICT sector in 2011 included over
a. 30 000 companies.
b. 32 000 companies.
c. 40 000 companies.
d. 10 000 companies.
e. 28 000 companies.
Answer: b
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
38) According to Industry Canada, what were the revenues of the Canada's ICT sector in 2010?
a. 162 billion
b. 1 billion
c. 140 billion
d. 150 billion
e. 125 billion
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
39) According to Industry Canada, the average annual growth rate in the Canadian ICT sector since 2002 has been around
a. 4%.
b. the GDP growth rate.
c. 5%.
d. 6%.
e. 8%.
Answer: a
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
40) What was the total number of Canadian workers employed by the ICT sector in 2010 according to Industry Canada?
a. 563 000
b. 442 000
c. 592 000
d. 420 000
e. 223 000
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
41) How much did the average Canadian ICT worker earned in 2010 according to Industry Canada?
a. $90 000
b. $49 000
c. $75 000
d. $67 000
e. $59 000
Answer: d
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
42) Which of the following segments of the ICT sector in Canada is responsible for the majority of this sectors revenue, according to Industry Canada?
a. Software
b. Manufacturing
c. Services
d. Export
e. Hardware
Answer: c
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
43) Google uses Gmail's "content extraction" to
a. to track all the online activities of gmail users.
b. target advertising to Gmail users.
c. sell advertising.
d. find out the interests of gmail users.
e. track IP addresses.
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
44) Gordon Moore is one of the founders of
a. Intel Corporation.
b. Adobe Systems.
c. Cisco Systems.
d. Microsoft Corporation.
e. National Semiconductors.
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
45) Moore's Law states that
a. the price of a computer drops by 50% every 20 months.
b. the number of transistors on a microprocessor doubles every 12 months.
c. the price of a computer drops by 50% every 12 months.
d. the number of transistors per square inch on an integrated chip doubles every 20 months.
e. the price of a microprocessor decreases by 50% every 20 months.
Answer: d
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
46) Which ratio has fallen dramatically over the years due to Moore's Law?
a. Speed/reliability
b. Price/performance
c. Transistor/performance
d. Price/Megahertz
e. Cost/benefit
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
47) Which of the following will essentially be free within the next decade?
a. Web sites
b. Data storage
c. Routers
d. PCs
e. Networks
Answer: b
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
48) Hal Varian suggests that mobility devices will change “what it means to go to work.” What does he mean by this?
a. There will be less work.
b. Networks are a thing of the past.
c. You will have to go to the work.
d. You will deal with work at home.
e. The work will come to you.
Answer: e
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 17
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
49) Which of the following is an example of a company that offers a large amount of free IT resources?
a. Wal-Mart
b. Amazon
c. Google
d. Gartner
e. Pearson Publishing
Answer: c
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
50) What does ICT stand for?
a. Information Communications Terminology
b. Information Computing Technology
c. Information Communications Technology
d. Industrial Communications Technology
e. Industrial Computing Technology
Answer: c
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q5
Skill: RECALL
51) Which of the following are not the responsibilities of the user of an Information System?
a. Backing up data.
b. Programming the system.
c. Learn how to employ the system to accomplish your goals.
d. Help recover the system.
e. Protecting the security of the system and its data.
Answer: b
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
52) The Running Room web site
a. handles online purchases.
b. provides unique services that are not available in stores.
c. provides discussion groups.
d. provides information efficiently to customers.
e. all of the above.
Answer: e
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 21
Topic: Q5 Q6
Skill: APPLIED
53) ________ is (are) often the most important part of an information system.
a. People
b. Processes
c. Hardware
d. Data
e. Software
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
54) MIS can be defined as
a. the development and use of information systems that achieve business goals and objectives.
b. the use of information systems to develop business strategies.
c. the use of information systems that achieve business goals and objectives.
d. the development of information systems that helps a business to save money.
e. the development and use of information systems to cut cost.
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
55) The critical difference between information systems and information technology is?
a. The computers.
b. The way computers are used.
c. The people.
d. The information and data.
e. The computer programs.
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
56) Google's use of "content extraction" with Gmail is a concern for?
a. Academics
b. Google
c. Privacy advocates
d. Governments
e. Competitors
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
57) According to Industry Canada, the percentage of all Canadian ICT workers working in ICT software and computer services in 2010 was
a. 27%
b. 73%.
c. 75%.
d. 67%.
e. 69%.
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
58) According to Industry Canada, the total number of jobs in the Canadian ICT user industries sector was about
a. 678,000
b. 71,000
c. 17,000
d. 563,000
e. 580,000
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q5
Skill: RECALL
59) Which of the following sectors in Canada's ICT industry had the greatest amount of employment in Canada in 2007, according to Industry Canada?
a. Law enforcement
b. Manufacturing
c. Pharmaceutical Research
d. Education
e. Software and computer services industries
Answer: e
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
60) According to Industry Canada, what is the percentage of workers who have a degree in the software and computer services industry?
a. 29%
b. 23%
c. 53%
d. 43%
e. 47%
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
61) According to Industry Canada, the average earnings of a software and computer services worker in Canada in 2006 is
a. about $62 000.
b. about $85 000.
c. about $72 000.
d. about $55 000.
e. about $67 000.
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
62) According to Industry Canada, in 2010 the percentage of Canadian ICT workers who have a university degree is
a. 44%.
b. 40%.
c. 41%.
d. 43%.
e. 42%.
Answer: a
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
63) All of the following are components of an information system except
a. procedures.
b. culture.
c. people.
d. software.
e. hardware.
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
64) According to Moore's Law, an integrated chip's speed and power should ________ every 20 months.
a. grow 50%
b. increase exponentially
c. increase 1%
d. grow 100%
e. gradually increase
Answer: d
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
65) The cost as measured per 10 000 transistors on computer chips has been ________ steadily over time.
a. gradually increasing
b. dropping
c. keeping pace
d. unchanged
e. increasing drastically
Answer: b
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
66) It is expected that the price and power of computer chips will ________ over the next decade.
a. stay about the same
b. obey Moore's Law
c. shrink
d. continue to grow slowly
e. grow more dramatically
Answer: b
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
67) An information system helps businesses achieve
a. its goals and objectives.
b. parity.
c. waking up employees.
d. security.
e. fairness.
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
68) Information technology focuses on the hardware, software, and ________ components of an information system.
a. data
b. security
c. procedures
d. software
e. people
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
69) Information technology only becomes useful when it is combined with the people and ________ components of an information system.
a. process
b. software
c. hardware
d. data
e. procedure
Answer: e
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
70) One example of a simple information system that business people use would be
a. instant messaging.
b. a hard drive.
c. a cell phone.
d. a keyboard.
e. a wireless mouse.
Answer: a
Diff: 2
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
71) A blog would be an example of
a. IT procedures.
b. an information technology.
c. an information system.
d. an email system.
e. an infrastructure system.
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
72) The "Outlook on Human Resources in the ICT Labour Market: 2008-2015" reports that there is a dramatic need for individuals with core skills that include
a. communications skills.
b. non-technical skills.
c. basic computer skills.
d. accounting skills.
e. marketing skills.
Answer: a
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
73) Hal Varian notes that for business people
a. the ability to handle data will be important for decades to come.
b. learning about technology is not important.
c. information technology does not change business.
d. basic computer skills will be important for decades to come.
e. information systems do not affect the way we work.
Answer: a
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
74) A secondary focus of this class is
a. learning to use Access.
b. learning to use tools like Excel and Access.
c. learning how to use tools like Excel and Access to accomplish a business purpose.
d. learning to use Excel.
e. to better understand business.
Answer: c
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q7
Skill: APPLIED
75) David Ticoll suggests that
a. we will continue to see a divide between the real and the virtual world.
b. we have already seen the pinnacle of network development.
c. the technology trends of today will make performance-enhancing innovations available in almost every industry.
d. we will continue to have problems in finding the hidden meaning from data.
e. the cost of storage will almost be free in the next decade.
Answer: e
Diff: 3
Type: MC
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
76) Social media applications include
a. email.
b. spreadsheets.
c. videos.
d. databases.
e. social networking sites.
Answer: e
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
77) The ICT sector revenues in Canada in 2010 were $162 billion.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
78) Moore's Law tells us that the price/performance ratio of computers has fallen dramatically for years.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
79) The term software is used to refer to computer components that are not hardware.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
80) When using an information system, you will have responsibilities for protecting the security of the system and its data.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
81) The definition of MIS is that information systems exist to help businesses achieve their ________.
Diff: 3
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q2
Skill: APPLIED
82) The Running Room has used its web site to increase its reach to customers.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
83) Moore's Law states that the number of transistors per square inch on an integrated chip doubles every 20 months.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
84) Moore's Law has proved generally accurate for more than 40 years.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
85) MIS is a group of components that interact to produce information.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
86) The ICT sector in Canada, has had twice the overall growth of the national GDP since 2002.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 11
Topic: Q4
Skill: RECALL
87) MIS stands for management information system.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 7
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
88) ________ are defined as the development and use of information systems that help businesses to achieve their goals and objectives.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 8
Topic: Q2
Skill: RECALL
89) A(n) information is a group of components designed to produce information.
Diff: 1
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
90) Every information system can be thought of as consisting of five components.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: APPLIED
91) Every information system contains hardware, software, people, data and procedures.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
92) Every information system contains hardware, software, people, data, and procedures.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
93) The study of MIS is not just about learning to use spreadsheets and databases, but about learning how to use these tools to accomplish a(n) business purpose.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 13
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
94) Information technology (IT) concerns only the hardware, software, and data components of an information system.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
95) Although simple, e-mail would be an example of a(n) information system.
Diff: M
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q3
Skill: APPLIED
96) Changes in technology have advanced to a point where the content of an individual's email can now be used to determine the advertising that individual sees in their web mail account. This has resulted in privacy concerns.
Diff: 3
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 16
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
97) To understand MIS you need to both understand and relate business and technology to one another.
Diff: 3
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 13
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
98) The ability to use basic information systems is essential in today's work environment.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 13
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
99) To gain a competitive advantage in today's work place your skills need to go beyond the basic use of information systems.
Diff: 3
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 13
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
100) In the next decade David Ticoll suggests that unlimited storage will almost be free.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: RECALL
101) The collision of the real world and the virtual world will be the result of cheap, reliable, and widely available networks.
Diff: M
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
102) You can maximize the value of this course by personalizing the material.
Diff: 2
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 22
Topic: Q7
Skill: RECALL
103) What does Moore's law have to do with the amount of data being generated today? Do you see this trend continuing?
Answer:
Gordon Moore's famous observation was made in 1965. It projects the doubling of transistors every couple of years. Moore's Law has been maintained and still holds true today. With respect to storage devices, their capacity has been growing just as rapidly which, in turn, is driving down the price of storage. So now it is feasible to have many exabytes of storage for things like audio and video files. Yes this will most definitely continue to expand, and it is difficult to see where it will end, but things like real time video feeds and real time virtual reality simulations will take huge amounts of processing power and memory in order to store them.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 15
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
104) Why is it important for business professionals to know about MIS?
Answer:
The decisions concerning what functions should be included in corporate information systems is too important to be simply left to the techies. Every business professional should have some knowledge about MIS so that they can be intelligent users and help the system designers to design better systems. Knowing what systems are capable of doing will help when they are interviewed by the systems analysts to determine what the system requirements of the new system will be. They will also have to frequently interact with techies in order to help debug existing systems and even to generate ideas for new applications to improve the company's competitive position.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 18
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
105) How is IT different from an information system? Why is this important?
Answer:
Whereas IT is concerned with computer hardware, software, and data, which are certainly part of an information system, an information system is a broader concept than IT by itself. Information systems include IT, but also focus on the people that use it and the procedures for using it properly. This is important because IT is just a tool and to get the most out of it, we need to realize that people have to be trained and that proper procedures for using it have to be in place.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
106) Explain the difference between Information Technology (IT) and Information Systems (IS).
Answer:
Information technology and information systems are two closely related terms, but they are different. Information technology refers to methods, inventions, standards, and products. As the term implies, IT refers to raw technology, and it concerns only the hardware, software, and data components of an information system. In contrast, an information system is a system of hardware, data, procedures, and people that produce information.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q3
Skill: RECALL
107) Describe the functions of a social networking site.
Answer:
Social Networking sites provides users with the ability not only to create his/her own personal profile, but also to link this profile to friends, family, team members, and other web acquaintances with similar sites.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q1 Q2
Skill: APPLIED
108) What does the 5 component framework of Information Systems entail?
Answer:
The 5 component framework of Information Systems consist of hardware, software, data, procedures, and people.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 10
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
109) What are the responsibilities of a user of Information Systems?
Answer:
In addition to learning how to use a system, a user is also responsible for protecting the security of the system and its data. When the system fails, a user will have tasks to perform while the system is down, as well as tasks accomplish to help recover the system correctly and quickly.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q5
Skill: APPLIED
110) Describe the essence of Moore's Law.
Answer:
In 1965, Gordon Moore said that because of technology improvements in electronic chip design and manufacturing, "The number of transistors per square inch on an integrated chip doubles roughly every 2 years (20 months)."
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 14
Topic: Q6
Skill: APPLIED
111) What is the definition of MIS?
Answer:
MIS is the development and use of information systems that help businesses achieve their goals and objectives. This definition has three key elements: development and use, information systems, and business goals and objectives.
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 6
Topic: Q1
Skill: RECALL
112) Describe an example of a company taking advantage of IT resources to further its business interests.
Answer:
Google uses "content extraction" to better it target its advertising on Gmail to users that may more likely be interested in the ads that they are being shown. The Running Room is using the web to create a better sense of community among its online customers.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: VARIOUS
Topic: Q5
Skill: RECALL
113) What are the required qualifications for those who would like to take advantage of the jobs created by the software and computer services industry?
Answer:
It is a knowledge-intensive industry where approximately half of all workers process university degrees. Students in the Canadian economy who are working toward becoming business professionals cannot ignore the importance of understanding and working with information systems.
Diff: 3
Type: ES
Page Reference: 12
Topic: Q4
Skill: APPLIED
0 notes
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Test Bank Experience Psychology 2nd Edition
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Chapter 01
The Science of Psychology
Multiple Choice Questions
1. (p. 2) Dr. Amani is interested in investigating why women are more able to correctly interpret emotional expressions than men. He is most interested in the scientific goal of _____. A. explaining B. predicting C. describing D. deciding
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
2. (p. 2) Behavior is _____; mental processes are _____. A. private/personal B. personal/observable C. personal/private D. observable/private
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
3. (p. 2) Which of the following is an example of behavior? A. Thinking of a family vacation. B. Two people holding hands. C. A student's memory of a motorcycle trip. D. A baby's feelings when its mother leaves the room.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
4. (p. 3) According to the text, which of the following attitudes are central to the scientific approach to psychology? A. Critical thinking, curiosity, skepticism, and objectivity B. Critical thinking, curiosity, skepticism, and subjectivity C. Critical thinking, curiosity, political correctness, and objectivity D. Critical thinking, curiosity, political correctness, and subjectivity
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
5. (p. 3) The core of the scientific method is based on critical thinking, curiosity, objectivity, and _____. A. skepticism B. anachronistic thinking C. political correctness D. subjectivity
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
6. (p. 3) Which of the following statements about critical thinking is false? A. Critical thinking is the process of thinking deeply and actively, asking questions, and evaluating the evidence. B. Critical thinking comes into play when scientists consider the conclusions they draw from research. C. Critical thinking increases the likelihood that conclusions will be based on unreliable personal beliefs, opinions, and emotions. D. Critical thinkers question and test what some people say are facts.
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
7. (p. 4) The empirical method best fulfills which of the following goals of science? A. Expectations B. Objectivity C. Subjectivity D. Political correctness
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
8. (p. 6) Psychology began as a science in the discipline of _____. A. philosophy B. physics C. chemistry D. sociology
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
9. (p. 6) Which of the following theorists used the structuralism approach to studying human behavior? A. William James B. Wilhelm Wundt C. Charles Darwin D. Sigmund Freud
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
10. (p. 6) With which school of psychology is Wilhelm Wundt associated? A. Functionalism B. Structuralism C. Humanism D. Behaviorism
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
11. (p. 6) If you were a psychologist who adopted the structuralism approach, you would be interested in the _____ of the mind, using _____ as your primary research method. A. function/experimentation B. structures/externalization C. function/retrospection D. structures/introspection
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
12. (p. 6-7) Wilhelm Wundt was the founder of _____, whereas William James was the founder of _____. A. structuralism/behaviorism B. behaviorism/functionalism C. functionalism/behaviorism D. structuralism/functionalism
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
13. (p. 7) _____ is considered the "founding father" of modern psychology. A. William James B. Wilhelm Wundt C. Sigmund Freud D. Charles Darwin
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
14. (p. 6-7) _____ involves using introspection to investigate the components of the mind, whereas _____ probed the functions and purposes of the mind and behavior in the individual's adaptation to the environment. A. Structuralism/functionalism B. Functionalism/structuralism C. Functionalism/psychodynamic theory D. Behaviorism/structuralism
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
15. (p. 8) Psychologists who adopt a _____ approach examine behavior and mental processes through focusing on the body, especially the brain and nervous system. A. biological B. psychodynamic C. behavioral D. evolutionary
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
16. (p. 8) Dr. Zimand is studying the association between the functioning of specific brain structures and depression. It is likely that Dr. Zimand specializes in the _____ approach to psychology. A. behavioral B. cognitive C. evolutionary D. biological
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
17. (p. 9) Neuroscience studies are based on which of the following theoretical approaches to psychology? A. Behavioral B. Psychodynamic C. Biological D. Evolutionary
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
18. (p. 9) The _____ approach emphasizes the scientific study of observable behavioral responses and their environmental determinants. A. humanistic B. psychodynamic C. evolutionary D. behavioral
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
19. (p. 9) J. B. Watson and B. F. Skinner believed that _____. A. consciousness should always be investigated through the process of individual introspection B. psychology should focus on an organism's visible interactions with the environment—that is, behaviors C. psychology should study both outwardly observed behaviors and inborn mental motivations D. psychological methods could be developed to study the process of human cognition
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
20. (p. 9) _____ believed that psychology should be about what people do, and should not concern itself with what cannot be seen (e.g., internal states such as thoughts, feelings, and goals). A. B.F. Skinner B. Wilhelm Wundt C. Sigmund Freud D. Carl Rogers
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
21. (p. 9) In his practice, Dr. Wagner stresses the role of unconscious processes and unresolved childhood conflicts. With which psychological approach does this align? A. Behavioral B. Cognitive C. Psychodynamic D. Evolutionary
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
22. (p. 9-10) The _____ approach to psychology views the mind as an active and aware problem-solving system. This view contrasts with the _____ approach to psychology, which focuses on an organism's visible interactions with the environment. A. behavioral/cognitive B. cognitive/behavioral C. psychodynamic/humanistic D. humanistic/psychodynamic
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
23. (p. 10) Which of the following schools of thought involves an analyst's unlocking a person's unconscious conflicts by talking with the individual about his or her childhood memories, dreams, thoughts, and feelings? A. Behaviorism B. Humanistic psychology C. Cognitive psychology D. Psychoanalysis
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
24. (p. 10) According to the _____, people have the ability to control their lives and are not simply controlled by the environment. A. humanistic approach B. psychodynamic approach C. evolutionary approach D. behaviorism approach
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
25. (p. 10) The _____ approach emphasizes a person's positive qualities, the capacity for positive growth, and the freedom to choose one's destiny. A. humanistic B. psychodynamic C. evolutionary D. behavioral
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
26. (p. 10) The humanistic approach to psychology focuses on _____. A. higher human values and free will B. unconscious childhood conflicts C. the consequences of behavior D. thinking, memory, decision making, and problem solving
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
27. (p. 10) According to _____ psychologists, your brain houses a "mind" whose mental processes allow you to remember, make decisions, plan, set goals, and be creative. A. psychodynamic B. cognitive C. evolutionary D. humanistic
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
28. (p. 10) Dr. Daack has spent a lifetime studying how adults solve mathematical problems. It is likely that Dr. Daack specializes in _____ psychology. A. evolutionary B. cognitive C. biological D. psychodynamic
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
29. (p. 10) Which of the following approaches to psychology focuses on how we direct our attention, perceive, remember, think, and solve problems? A. Sociocultural B. Behavioral C. Cognitive D. Psychodynamic
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
30. (p. 10) The _____ approach relies on concepts such as adaptation, reproduction, and natural selection when explaining human behavior. A. humanistic B. psychodynamic C. evolutionary D. behavioral
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
31. (p. 11) The _____ approach focuses on comparisons of behavior across countries as well as on the behavior of individuals from different ethnic and cultural groups within a country. A. psychodynamic B. sociocultural C. cognitive D. evolutionary
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
32. (p. 11) Dr. Badal is a psychologist who studies achievement motivation among groups of African American, Latino, and Asian American people. Dr. Badal likely practices the _____ to psychology. A. sociocultural approach B. biological approach C. evolutionary approach D. cognitive approach
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
33. (p. 13) Which of the following is NOT a step of the scientific method? A. Formulating hypotheses and predictions B. Drawing and evaluating conclusions C. Observing some phenomenon D. Publishing politically correct results
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
34. (p. 13) Which is the first step in conducting a scientific inquiry? A. Testing through empirical research B. Observing some phenomenon C. Drawing conclusions D. Formulating hypotheses and predictions
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
35. (p. 13) Which of the following is the second step in the scientific method? A. Testing through empirical research B. Evaluating conclusions C. Drawing conclusions D. Formulating hypotheses and predictions
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
36. (p. 14) A(n) _____ is a broad idea or closely related set of ideas that attempts to explain observations and to make predictions about future observations. A. theory B. hypothesis C. operational definition D. experimental bias
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
37. (p. 14) Which of the following statements is false? A. A theory gains credibility when the related hypotheses turn out to be true. B. A hypothesis is logically derived from a theory. C. Every theory generates only one hypothesis. D. A hypothesis is a testable prediction.
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
38. (p. 15) _____ provide an objective description of how variables are going to be measured and observed in a particular study. A. Independent variables B. Operational definitions C. External validity checks D. Experimenter biases
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
39. (p. 15) Which of the following statements is false? A. An operational definition provides an objective description of how a variable is going to be measured and observed in a particular study. B. In order to eliminate ambiguity, every variable should have only one operational definition. C. Describing the operational definitions for the variables in a study is a crucial step in designing psychological research. D. Operational definitions eliminate the fuzziness that might creep into thinking about how to measure an abstract variable.
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
40. (p. 15) Tamika hypothesizes that women are more helpful than men. She decides to conduct an experiment to see if she's right. During lunchtime, she goes to the crowded food court and deliberately drops her notebook. She then notes whether the person standing closest to her helps her pick up her papers and whether the person is male or female. What is the operational definition of "helpful" in Tamika's study? A. The gender of the person B. Saying "hey, you dropped your notebook" C. Making eye contact D. Bending down to pick up the papers
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
41. (p. 17) Which of the following is NOT an example of a descriptive research method? A. Surveys and interviews B. Observations C. Experiments D. Case studies
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
42. (p. 17) The goal of _____ research is to determine the basic definitions and dimensions of the phenomenon under investigation. A. descriptive B. normative C. experimental D. applied
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
43. (p. 18) Dr. Okawa is interested in studying the effect that neurological trauma can have on short-term memory. First, he collects detailed information from a small number of individuals who have experienced brain damage. Then, using information provided by medical records, interviews, and observations, Dr. Okawa attempts to create an in-depth portrait of each individual. What type of research method was used in this study? A. Case study B. Naturalistic observation C. Experimental method D. Surveys
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
44. (p. 18) A case study _____. A. is an indepth look at a single individual B. is useful for studying large populations C. involves random assignment of participants D. relies on the experimental method
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
45. (p. 20) Which of the following statements about correlational research is false? A. Correlational methods involve the study of naturally occurring relationships among two variables. B. Correlational methods rely on observing and measuring. C. Correlational methods are useful for establishing cause-and-effect relationships between two variables. D. The degree of relationship between two variables is expressed as a numerical value called a correlational coefficient.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
46. (p. 20) A correlation coefficient indicates the _____. A. strength and direction of association between two variables B. direction of the causal relationship between two variables C. extent to which demand characteristics have biased the results of the study D. extent to which experimenter bias has influenced the results of the study
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
47. (p. 20) Professor Jordan has suggested to his students that as study time increases, grades increase. The professor is describing a _____. A. mean score B. positive correlation C. negative correlation D. standard deviation
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
48. (p. 20) Professor Mendez found that the correlation between students' life stress scale score and his or her final grade was -.80. This correlation coefficient indicates a _____ relationship between the two variables. A. high positive B. high negative C. low positive D. low negative
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Hard Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
49. (p. 20) Professor Izadi is interested in the association between sleep and cognitive performance. He surveyed his students about the number of hours they slept the night before the exam and then correlated these scores with their test grades. He found a +.81 correlation between these two variables. What does this result mean? A. There is a high negative correlation between sleep and exam performance. B. There is a low negative correlation between sleep and exam performance. C. There is a high positive correlation between sleep and exam performance. D. There is a low positive correlation between sleep and exam performance.
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Hard Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
50. (p. 21) Dr. Simpson finds a positive .50 correlation between ice cream cone sales and violent crimes in a community. Which of the following represents the best interpretation of this result? A. Ice cream causes people to become more violent and aggressive. B. A third variable, such as heat, may account for the association between ice cream sales and violent crime. C. Violent people like ice cream more than non-violent people. D. Ice cream consumption is not related to violent crime.
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
51. (p. 21) Pretend that you want to determine the relationship between caffeine intake and performance on a midterm exam. As students sit down to take the exam, you ask them to write the number of cups of tea, soda, or coffee they ingested two hours prior to the exam. You also obtain their exam scores. You calculate the correlation coefficient between the two variables to be +0.82. What can you conclude? A. The more caffeine students consumed, the better their scores. B. 82 percent of the students consumed caffeine prior to the exam. C. Students with low scores didn't consume caffeine. D. Students who drink caffeine are smarter than those who don't drink caffeine.
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
52. (p. 22) Third variables are also called _____. A. confederates B. confounds C. allies D. boosters
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
53. (p. 22) Longitudinal research involves _____. A. observing and measuring the same variables periodically over time B. randomly assigning participants to the control and experimental groups C. the random selection of participants within a particular population D. uncovering unconscious motives and conflicts
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
54. (p. 22) Professor Wong measured the intelligence and temperament of a group of preschoolers. He plans to follow the same group of participants over time and collect similar data when the children are in 3rd grade, 6th grade, and 9th grade. This is an example of which type of research design? A. Sampling design B. Experimental design C. Longitudinal design D. Double-blind experiment
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
55. (p. 23) _____ provide ways by which correlational researchers may attempt to demonstrate causal relations among variables, even though the causal relationship may still be somewhat unclear. A. Random selection techniques B. Sampling designs C. Longitudinal designs D. Survey designs
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
56. (p. 23) Dr. Steinguard wants to demonstrate a cause and effect relationship between stress and memory. Which of the following research methods should he use? A. Correlational studies B. Survey method C. Naturalistic observation D. Experimental method
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
57. (p. 23) _____ refers to researchers' allocation of participants to groups by chance, to reduce the likelihood that an experiment's results will be due to preexisting differences between groups. A. Selection bias B. Experimenter bias C. Random assignment D. Random selection
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
58. (p. 23) Which of the following research methods allow(s) researchers to determine causality? A. Survey method B. Observations C. Experimental studies D. Case study
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
59. (p. 24) A researcher is conducting an experiment to test the effects of violent video game play on aggression. Which of the following could be the dependent variable in this example? A. Frequency of violent video game play B. Video game preferences C. Scores on an aggressive behavior survey D. The number of hours spent playing video games
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
60. (p. 24) The _____ is a manipulated experimental factor and _____ is the outcome. A. dependent variable/ independent variable B. independent variable/ dependent variable C. confounding variable/ independent variable D. dependent variable/ confounding variable
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
61. (p. 24) A(n) _____ is a person who is given a role to play in a study so that the social context can be manipulated. A. confederate B. henchman C. accessory D. control group member
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
62. (p. 24) Independent variables are _____. A. measured by researchers B. manipulated by researchers C. confounds that are not relevant to the hypothesis being tested D. the outcome or "effect" of interest
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
63. (p. 24) In an experiment, the _____ is conceptualized as the "potential cause" and the _____ is conceptualized as the "effect." A. dependent variable/independent variable B. independent variable/dependent variable C. third variable/independent variable D. third variable/dependent variable
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
64. (p. 24) In an experiment, the group that is NOT subjected to a treatment condition is known as the _____ group. A. control B. treatment C. experimental D. dependent
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
65. (p. 24) Dr. Grant is conducting research on stress management. Group A received progressive relaxation training prior to test taking, while Group B received no training. Group A is the _____, while Group B is the _____. A. treatment group/placebo group B. experimental group/control group C. control group/treatment group D. placebo group/control group
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
66. (p. 25) _____ refers to the soundness of the conclusions that a researcher draws from an experiment. A. Validity B. Reliability C. Accuracy D. Stability
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
67. (p. 25) _____ refers to the degree to which an experimental design actually reflects the real-world issues it is supposed to address. A. Internal validity B. External validity C. Face validity D. Reliability
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
68. (p. 25) _____ refers to the degree to which changes in the dependent variable are due to the manipulation of the independent variable. A. Internal validity B. External validity C. Face validity D. Reliability
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
69. (p. 25) In the case of _____, one wants to know whether the experimental methods are free from biases and logical errors that may render the results suspect. A. internal validity B. external validity C. face validity D. reliability
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
70. (p. 26) Demand characteristics can threaten the _____ of a study. A. meta-analysis B. hypothesis C. internal validity D. external validity
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Hard Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
71. (p. 26) Aspects of a study that communicate to the participants how the experimenter wants them to behave are known as _____. A. research cues B. participant effects C. confederates D. demand characteristics
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
72. (p. 26) The placebo effect is an example of a(n) _____. A. experimenter bias B. participant bias C. random assignment bias D. random selection bias
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
73. (p. 26) The placebo effect can weaken the _____ of an experiment. A. internal validity B. external validity C. hypothesis D. meta-analysis
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Hard Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
74. (p. 26) Sonja believes the pill her doctor gave her has cured her of her anxiety disorder, even though the pill contained no active ingredients. Sonja's belief that she is better now is an example of the _____ effect. A. control B. double-blind C. confound D. placebo
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
75. (p. 26) In a _____, neither the experimenter nor the participants are aware of which participants are in the experimental group and which are in the control group until the results are calculated. A. double-blind experiment B. correlational research C. longitudinal design D. case study
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
76. (p. 26) Margaret is the new director of research at a well-known pharmaceutical company. She has been asked to design a set of research studies that will test the effectiveness of the new drugs that are being developed. Because Margaret is concerned about ensuring that experimenter bias and research participant bias do not influence the results, she should design a set of _____. A. case studies B. correlational studies C. naturalistic observations D. double-blind experiments
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
77. (p. 26) Dr. Aoki used double-blind procedures in his experiments to reduce the potential for _____. A. poor operational definitions B. experimenter bias and selection bias C. participant bias and social desirability D. experimenter bias and participant bias
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
78. (p. 29) A _____ is the entire group about which the investigator wants to draw conclusions, whereas a _____ is the subset of the population selected to participate in the study. A. sample/population B. population/sample C. sample/confederate D. population/confederate
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Research Samples and Settings
79. (p. 29) A population is _____. A. the entire group about which researchers want to draw conclusions B. a smaller subset of a group of people researchers want to draw conclusions about C. the small number of individuals who agree to participate in the study D. randomly defined
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Research Samples and Settings
80. (p. 30) Choosing a group of 50 students from a roster of all students in a nearby school and inviting them to participate in a study would be an example of one way to _____. A. execute a pilot study B. obtain a random sample C. obtain a sample of convenience D. reduce the potential for demand characteristics
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Research Samples and Settings
81. (p. 30) A _____ is a sample that gives every member of the population an equal chance of being selected. A. stratified sample B. random sample C. convenience sample D. cluster sample
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Research Samples and Settings
82. (p. 30) _____ is about making sure experimental and control groups are equivalent, and _____ is about selecting participants from a population so that the sample is representative of that population. A. Internalization/Externalization B. External validity/internal validity C. A random sample/a random assignment D. A random assignment/a random sample
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Research Samples and Settings
83. (p. 33-34) The _____ establishes ethical guidelines for its members. The _____ evaluates the ethical nature of research conducted at their colleges and universities. A. Institutional Review Board (IRB)/American Psychological Association (APA) B. American Psychological Association (APA)/Institutional Review Board (IRB) C. county government/state government D. state government/county government
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
84. (p. 34) According to the principle of _____, all participants must know what their participation will involve and what risks might develop. A. deception B. informed consent C. confidentiality D. freedom from harm
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
85. (p. 34) According to the principle of _____ researchers are responsible for keeping all of the data they gather on individuals completely, when possible, anonymous. A. deception B. informed consent C. confidentiality D. freedom from harm
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
86. (p. 33-34) According to the text, if an Institutional Review Board were to consider reality TV from the perspective of the APA ethical guidelines, which of the following issues would be of greatest concern? A. Reality shows usually do not debrief their participants once the show is over. B. Some reality shows pose a great deal of psychological and/or physical risk. C. In reality TV shows, it is not possible to keep data gathered on individuals confidential. D. In reality TV shows, participants are usually not representative of the general population.
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
87. (p. 34) After the study has been completed, the researchers should inform the participants of its purpose and the methods they used. This is in accordance to the principle of _____. A. deception B. informed consent C. confidentiality D. debriefing
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
88. (p. 35) Deception in research is ethically allowed _____. A. under no circumstances B. only when a double-blind study is used and all of the participants are over 18 C. in medical research only D. if the anticipated benefits outweigh the anticipated costs and participants are debriefed
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
89. (p. 38) According to the text, what can you do to become a better consumer of psychology in everyday life? A. Stay up-to-date by reading about psychological research online and blogs available from all sources. B. Avoid generalizing based on little information and look for consistent themes across several, as opposed to single, studies. C. Only believe in psychological principles that have been derived on the basis of personal experience. D. Draw causal conclusions from correlational studies.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Learning About Psychology Means Learning About You
90. (p. 38) Researchers usually must submit their findings to a journal for review by their colleagues, who make a decision about whether to publish the paper, depending on its scientific merit. This process is known as a _____. A. publishing review B. literature review C. peer review D. subject review
Blooms: Remember Difficulty: Easy Learning Objectives: Learning About Psychology Means Learning About You
Essay Questions
91. (p. 6-7) Summarize the three approaches (structuralism, functionalism, evolutionary approach) that shaped the history of psychology.
Wilhelm Wundt founded the structuralism approach. Structuralism involves identifying the structures of the human mind through the method of introspection. William James founded the functionalist approach. From James's perspective, the key question for psychology is not so much what the mind is (that is, its structures) as what it is for (its purpose or function). James's view was eventually named functionalism. Structuralism is focused on understanding the "what" of the mind, whereas functionalism is focused on understanding the "why." Functionalism fits well with Charles Darwin's evolutionary theory. According to evolutionary theory, species change through random genetic mutation. That means that essentially by accident, some members of a species are born with genetic characteristics that make them different from other members.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots
92. (p. 9-10) Compare and contrast the behavioral and psychodynamic approaches to psychology.
According to behaviorists, rewards and punishments determine our behavior. Behavior is primarily seen as driven by the environmental forces. Skinner believed that psychology should focus on explicit behaviors and should not concern itself with that which cannot be seen and/or measured. In contrast, the psychodynamic approach suggests that unconscious conflicts and drives determine our behavior. Behavior is primarily seen as driven by unconscious conflicts and early childhood experiences. Freud believed that psychology must go beyond measuring conscious thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. He used psychoanalysis, a therapeutic technique for helping individuals tap into the unconscious aspect of their psyche.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
93. (p. 10) Write a note on the cognitive approach to psychology.
According to cognitive psychologists, your brain houses a "mind" whose mental processes allow you to remember, make decisions, plan, set goals, and be creative. The cognitive approach, then, emphasizes the mental processes involved in knowing: how we direct our attention, perceive, remember, think, and solve problems. Cognitive psychologists view the mind as an active and aware problem-solving system. This view contrasts with the behavioral outlook, which portrays behavior as controlled by external environmental forces. In the cognitive perspective, an individual's mental processes are in control of behavior through memories, perceptions, images, and thinking.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
94. (p. 11) Summarize the seven contemporary approaches to psychology with the help of a suitable example.
These seven approaches to studying psychology provide different views of behavior, and therefore each may contribute uniquely valuable insights. Think about the simple experience of seeing a cute puppy. Looking at that puppy involves physical processes in the eyes, nervous system, and brain—the focus of the biological approach to psychology. The moment you spot that puppy, though, you might smile without thinking and reach down to pet the little guy. That reaction might be a learned response based on your past learning with your own dog (behavioral perspective), or unconscious memories of a childhood dog (psychodynamic perspective), or conscious memories that you especially like this breed of dogs (cognitive perspective), or even evolutionary processes that promoted cuteness to help offspring survive (evolutionary approach). You might find yourself striking up a conversation with the puppy's owner, based on your shared love of dogs (humanistic perspective). Further, sociocultural factors might play a role in your decision about whether to ask the owner if holding the puppy would be okay, whether to share those warm feelings about the puppy with others, and even whether (as in some cultures) to view that puppy as food.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Contemporary Approaches to Psychology
95. (p. 13-16) Summarize the five steps of the scientific method.
Step 1 involves observing a phenomenon and thinking about theories that can explain these observations. Step 2 involves formulating an educated guess or hypothesis. A hypothesis is derived from a theory, and offers a prediction that can be tested. Step 3 requires that the researchers provide operational definitions of the variable they are studying. The researchers then begin the process of empirical research by collecting and analyzing data. In step 4 researchers draw conclusions from their results. It is important that research is replicated using different investigators and different methods. Replicable research results strengthen the validity and reliability of the scientists' conclusions. Finally, in step 5 of the scientific method, researchers submit their work for publication and it undergoes peer review. The research community is constantly evaluating and questioning conclusions in that after step 5, researchers begin the scientific method over again as they seek to revise their theory, methods, and so on.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Psychology's Scientific Method
96. (p. 17-26) Compare and contrast the three types of research methods (descriptive, correlational, experimental) used by psychologists.
Descriptive research methods involve discovering the basic dimensions of the variables being studied (for example, how often do teens play video games). Observations, interviews, surveys, and case studies are examples of descriptive research methods. Correlational research methods examine the relationships between variables (for example, is video game play associated with aggression?). Correlations inform researchers about the magnitude and direction of association between two variables. However, correlation is not causation. Experimental research methods are useful for establishing causal relationships between variables (for example, does video game play cause aggression?). In an experiment, a researcher manipulates the independent variable and examines the effect on the dependent variable. Participants are randomly assigned to either the control group or experimental group. In sum, these research methods correspond to the major goals of the science of psychology. Descriptive methods allow researchers to describe human behavior, correlational methods allow researchers to predict human behavior, and experimental studies allow researchers to explain human behavior.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
97. (p. 18) Write a note on surveys and interviews as descriptive research methods.
Sometimes the best and quickest way to get information about people is to ask them for it. One technique is to interview them directly. A related method that is especially useful when information from many people is needed is the survey, or questionnaire. A survey presents a standard set of questions, or items, to obtain people's self-reported attitudes or beliefs about a particular topic. Although surveys can be a straightforward way to measure psychological variables, constructing them requires care. One particular problem with surveys and interviews is the tendency of participants to answer questions in a way that will make them look good rather than in a way that communicates what they truly think or feel. Another challenge in survey construction is that when questionnaires are used to operationally define variables, it is crucial that the items precisely probe the specific topic of interest and not some other characteristic. The language used in surveys therefore must be clear and understandable if the responses are to reflect the participants' actual feelings. Surveys and interviews can cover a wide range of topics, from religious beliefs to sexual habits to attitudes about gun control. Some survey and interview questions are unstructured and open-ended. Such questions allow for unique responses from each person surveyed. Other survey and interview questions are more structured and ask about quite specific things.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Hard Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
98. (p. 21-22) Describe the third variable problem with a suitable example.
Sometimes some other variable that has not been measured accounts for the relationship between two others. Researchers refer to this circumstance as the third variable problem. Third variable problem refers to a circumstance where a variable that has not been measured accounts for the relationship between two other variables. To understand the third variable problem, consider the following example. A researcher measures two variables: the number of ice cream cones sold in a town and the number of violent crimes that occur in that town throughout the year. The researcher finds that ice cream cone sales and violent crimes are positively correlated, to the magnitude of + .50. This high positive correlation would indicate that as ice cream sales increase, so does violent crime. Would it be reasonable for the local paper to run the headline "Ice Cream Consumption Leads to Violence"? Should concerned citizens gather outside the local Frosty Freeze to stop the madness? Probably not. Perhaps you have already thought of the third variable that might explain this correlation—heat. Third variables are also called confounds.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
99. (p. 20-21) Your local newspaper publishes the result of a current scientific study that shows exercise is positively correlated with happiness (the correlation coefficient is +.72). Interpret what this result means.
This result suggests that exercise and happiness are associated. As exercise increases, happiness increases. If an individual's score on one variable is known, the score on the other variable can be predicted. Although exercise and happiness are related, one should not conclude that exercise causes happiness.
Blooms: Apply Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Types of Psychological Research
100. (p. 34-35) Describe the four issues that American Psychological Association (APA) guidelines address?
▪ Informed consent: All participants must know what their participation will involve and what risks might develop. Participants also should be informed that in some instances a discussion of the issues might improve their relationships but that in others it might worsen the relationships and possibly end them. Even after informed consent is given, participants must retain the right to withdraw from the study at any time and for any reason. ▪ Confidentiality: Researchers are responsible for keeping all of the data they gather on individuals completely confidential and, when possible, completely anonymous. Confidential data are not the same as anonymous. When data are confidential, it is possible to link a participant's identity to his or her data. ▪ Debriefing: After the study has been completed, the researchers should inform the participants of its purpose and the methods they used. In most cases, the experimenters also can inform participants in a general manner beforehand about the purpose of the research without leading the participants to behave in a way that they think that the experimenters are expecting. ▪ Deception: This is an ethical issue that psychologists debate extensively. In some circumstances, telling the participants beforehand what the research study is about substantially alters the participants' behavior and invalidates the researcher's data. In all cases of deception, however, the psychologist must ensure that the deception will not harm the participants and that the participants will be told the true nature of the study (will be debriefed) as soon as possible after the study is completed.
Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Medium Learning Objectives: Conducting Ethical Research
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Test Bank Excellence in Business Communication 5th Edition
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1) Communication and effective communication are basically the same thing.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 2
2) Unclear communication not only results in errors and missed deadlines, but also lies at the root of many other serious workplace issues.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 3
3) Employers start judging your ability to communicate on the day you show up for the first interview.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 3
4) Most often you will be communicating with people who are similar to you in age, profession, and ethnic background.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 5
5) The formal communication network is typically shown as the organizational chart.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 9
6) Most of the information that flows downward in an organization is geared toward helping employees do their jobs.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 9
7) Grapevines flourish when employees don’t receive information they want or need.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 10
8) Although companies often communicate with outsiders in a formal manner, informal contacts with outsiders are not important.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 10
9) The "grapevine" is another name for formal horizontal communication.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 10
10) Some executives are wary of the informal communication network.
a. True
Correct: Incorrect
b. False
Incorrect: Correct
Answer: a
Page Reference: 10
11) The grapevine helps employers determine if their formal means of communication are effective.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 10
12) The first step in the communication process is “the sender has an idea.”
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 11
13) A diverse workforce can yield a significant competitive advantage by bringing more ideas and broader perspectives to bear on business challenges.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 13
14) Most messages aimed at important external receivers, such as the press, investors, and customers are drafted by the president of the company.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 9
15) Information has become one of the most important resources in business today.
a. True
Correct: Incorrect
b. False
Incorrect: Correct
Answer: a
Page Reference: 13
16) Company outsiders may form an impression of your organization based on subtle, unconscious clues you transmit through your tone of voice, facial expression, and general appearance.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 10
17) Whether you're listening or speaking, communication is a two-way process.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 10
18) The communication process is a simple one consisting of two phases: the sender transmits the message and the receiver gets the message.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 11
19) Technology always helps a company.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 13
20) A message is interpreted correctly when the receiver assigns to the words the same meaning as the sender intended and then responds in the desired way.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 12
21) Your communication efforts will also be influenced by the organization’s corporate culture.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 14
22) When interference in the communication process distorts or obscures the sender’s meaning, it is called noise.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 15
23) A major barrier to effective communication is competing messages.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 15
24) The more your audience members share your experiences—personal, professional, and cultural—the more likely they are to extract the same meanings that you encode in your messages.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 15
25) Setting aside time to attend to email and telephone messages all at once is one way to help minimize distractions.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 16
26) Sending more messages is usually better than not sending enough.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 17
27) With the audience-centred approach, communicators try to learn as much as possible about their receivers.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 16-17
28) Your ability to empathize with, be sensitive to, and generally consider your audience's feelings is the best way to be effective in your communication.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 17
29) It is best to react emotionally when you receive constructive feedback.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 20
30) Constructive feedback focuses on the process and not the outcomes of communication.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 19-20
31) Three principles of etiquette that will get you through almost any situation are respect, fun, and courtesy.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 20-21
32) Communicating in today’s business environment nearly always requires some level of technical competence.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 22
33) Inappropriate web surfing while at work can leave employers open to lawsuits for sexual harassment if inappropriate images are displayed.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 24
34) When people must choose between conflicting loyalties and weigh difficult trade-offs, they are facing an ethical lapse.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 26
35) A message that means to mislead or manipulate the audience is unethical.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 25
36) Because of technology's speed and efficiency, it is the best choice for every communication situation.
a. True
Incorrect: Incorrect
b. False
Correct: Correct
Answer: b
Page Reference: 24
37) "Knowledge workers" are those employees that specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 13
38) Your own skills as a communicator will be as much a factor in your business success as anything else.
a. True
Correct: Correct
b. False
Incorrect: Incorrect
Answer: a
Page Reference: 2-3
39) The stakeholders in an organization do NOT include _____________
a. employees.
b. competition.
c. supervisors.
d. government.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 3
40) To make your messages effective __________
a. give facts rather than impressions.
b. present a lot of information.
c. use a lot of body language.
d. use arguments.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 6
41) Multitasking _____________
a. creates communication distractions.
b. is an effective way to increase productivity.
c. does not adversely affect the communication process.
d. is not a common habit among workers.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 15
42) Employers often express frustration at the poor communication skills of many employees—particularly ____________
a. managers.
b. recent graduates.
c. sales personnel.
d. contract employees.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 2
43) One example that is NOT an example of horizontal communication is communication that flows _________
a. from the Sales department to the Accounting department.
b. from the V.P. Finance to the V.P. Marketing.
c. from one project team member to another project team member.
d. from a Warehouse manager to a Warehouse employee.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 9
44) An example of downward communication flow is ___________
a. a junior staff person giving information to a staff supervisor.
b. a sales manager giving instructions to a salesperson.
c. an email message about sick leave sent from one staff secretary to another.
d. a company briefing held on the organization's top floor.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 9
45) Technonlogy is ________
a. a replacement for interpersonal communication.
b. the only way to communicate.
c. Reduces the need for personal contact.
d. an aid to interpersonal communication.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 9
46) The director of advertising writing a memo to the plant manager is an example of _______________
a. upward communication flow.
b. downward communication flow.
c. horizontal communication flow.
d. informal communication flow.
Answer: c
Page Reference: 9
47) A casual conversation between co-workers is an example of ______________
a. upward communication.
b. downward communication.
c. interdepartmental communication.
d. informal communication.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 9
48) How many steps are there in the communication process?
a. six steps
b. ten steps
c. eight steps
d. none of the above
Answer: c
Page Reference: 10-11
49) Some executives are wary of informal communication channels, possibly because they ______________
a. fear the spread of misinformation.
b. believe only formal channels are efficient carriers of information.
c. object to casual conversations on company time.
d. fear a loss of their control over the flow of information.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 10
50) An example of external communication would be ____________________
a. an email from a salesperson to a customer.
b. a memo from a manager at headquarters to a manager at a store in another state.
c. a teleconference among company sales representatives in several states.
d. talking on a cell phone to a colleague.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 8
51) In the first step of the communication process, ________________
a. the sender decides what to say.
b. the sender has an idea.
c. the sender chooses a medium of transmission.
d. the sender transmits the message.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 11
52) The final link in the communication process is _________________
a. sending the message.
b. receiving the message.
c. giving feedback to the sender.
d. interpreting the message.
Answer: c
Page Reference: 12
53) Communication is effective only when _____________________
a. the sender has a meaningful idea, sends it, and it is received.
b. the idea becomes a message.
c. the message gets transmitted without noise.
d. others understand your message correctly and respond to it in the way you would like.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 2
54) One example of a deceptive tactic is _________________
a. texting at a meeting.
b. not making eye contact.
c. stating opinions as facts.
d. have opposing political views.
Answer: c
Page Reference: 16
55) Companies that restrict the flow of information limit their _______________
a. competitive potential.
b. potential employee promotions.
c. audience base.
d. management control.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 15
56) Bad connections, poor acoustics, and illegible copy are all examples of _______________
a. problems with feedback.
b. physical distractions.
c. problems with background differences.
d. overload problems.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 15
57) Work on your communication skills ___________________________
a. when you have been with the company for a while.
b. When you get a promotion.
c. before starting your business career.
d. when you are assigned to a team.
Answer: c
Page Reference: 19
58) The term “corporate culture” refers to ______________________
a. the number of organizational levels within a corporation.
b. the extent to which corporations dominate a particular culture.
c. the mixture of values, traditions, and habits that give a company its atmosphere or personality.
d. a company's sponsorship of cultural events.
Answer: c
Page Reference: 14
59) A flatter organizational structure ___________________
a. decreases the chance of misunderstandings occurring.
b. increases costs and reduces productivity.
c. can reduce profit.
d. creates more opportunities in middle management.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 14
60) Unethical communication includes __________________
a. carrying out plagiarism.
b. borrowing money from a colleague.
c. failing to introduce a colleague.
d. acting with transparency.
Answer: a
Page Reference: 17
61) Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma?
a. Deciding whether or not to inform employees that layoffs are coming, when a big project needs to be finished
b. Deciding whether or not to sell company stock when you have inside information on a coming downturn
c. Deciding whether or not to use the copy machine for your personal papers
d. Deciding whether or not to declare the costs of your vacation travel as a deductible business expense
Answer: a
Page Reference: 26
62) Which of the following is an example of an ethical lapse?
a. Putting suggestions in the company suggestion box without signing your name
b. Informing a new employer about your previous (competing) employer's major clients
c. Telling your supervisor that another employee is stealing office supplies
d. Providing incorrect data in a report, even though you didn't know it was incorrect at the time
Answer: b
Page Reference: 26
63) An organization can foster ethical communication by _______________
a. helping top managers to become more frequent communicators.
b. setting ethical examples with ethical company leadership.
c. using an ethical lapse.
d. creating a mission statement.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 26
64) Regardless of your specialty, most companies also expect you to be a competent communicator. Which of the following is NOT a communication skill desired by most businesses?
a. Organizing ideas logically
b. Presenting ideas persuasively
c. Communicating forcefully
d. Listening effectively
Answer: c
Page Reference: 5
65) To make your business messages more effective you should _______________.
a. include as many details as possible.
b. give facts not impressions.
c. use "smart" words.
d. be sure to put in a lot of pictures.
Answer: b
Page Reference: 6
66) Plagiarism includes ___________
a. selectively misquoting.
b. misrepresenting numbers.
c. distorting visuals.
d. violating a copyright.
Answer: d
Page Reference: 25
67) There are many new technologies available to improve Business Communications. Which of the list below are NOT among them?
a. Blogging
b. Email
c. Online chats
d. Ergonomic offices
Answer: d
Page Reference: 23
68) Ethics in the workplace is an increasingly important issue. Which of the following examples is not considered unethical?
a. Self promotion
b. Plagiarism
c. Misrepresenting numbers
d. Distorting visuals
Answer: a
Page Reference: 24
69) Collectively, the people with whom you interact—your colleagues, employees, supervisors, customers, and so on—are referred to as stakeholders .
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 3
70) Whether exchanging emails, giving a formal presentation, or chatting with co-workers at lunch, you are engaging in communication.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 2
71) Soft skills (communication, teamwork, problem solving) are just as important as technical abilities, as employers look for well-rounded individuals who will integrate well into their companies.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 5
72) Increased globalization and workforce diversity mean that employees must be able to communicate with people from other cultures.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 12
73) The exchange of information within an organization is referred to as internal communication.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 7
74) The informal communication network within an organization is referred to as the grapevine .
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 9
75) When you put your idea into a message that your receiver will understand, you are encoding the message.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 11
76) Your receiver must cooperate by decoding your message—absorbing and understanding it.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 11
77) After getting a message, a receiver responds by giving the sender feedback .
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 12
78) Noise is interference in the communication process that distorts or obscures the sender's meaning.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 14-15
79) Some business communicators try to manipulate their receivers by using deceptive tactics.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 16
80) An organization's corporate culture is the mixture of values, traditions, and habits that give a place its atmosphere or personality.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 14
81) An ethical dilemma involves choosing among conflicting alternatives that aren't clear-cut.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 26
82) An ethical lapse involves making a clearly unethical or illegal choice.
Type: FIB
Page Reference: 26
83) How does the primary function of upward-flowing communication differ from that of downward-flowing communication?
Answer:
Communication that flows upward mainly helps managers solve problems and make intelligent decisions. On the other hand, communication that flows downward is geared primarily toward helping employees do their jobs.
Page Reference: 8-9
84) List at least three examples of formal external communication.
Answer:
Page Reference: 8-9
85) When is the grapevine most active within an organization?
Answer:
Page Reference: 10
86) Describe three things you can pay attention to in an attempt to improve the odds that your message will be successfully perceived by your audience.
Answer:
Page Reference: 17-18
87) Briefly explain the nature and importance of the final phase in the communication process.
Answer:
Page Reference: 12
88) Briefly define "knowledge workers."
Answer:
Page Reference: 13
89) Discuss the evolution of organizational structures and how these structures affect communication.
Answer:
Page Reference: 13-14
90) What is a restrictive communication environment?
Answer:
Page Reference: 15
91) How can the exchange of many messages become a barrier to effective communication?
Answer:
Page Reference: 14-16
92) To adopt an audience-centred approach to communication, what do you need to learn about your audience? List at least three specific examples.
Answer:
Page Reference: 17
93) Briefly explain the difference between an ethical dilemma and an ethical lapse.
Answer:
Page Reference: 26
94) Describe at least five common characteristics of effective business messages.
Answer:
Page Reference: 6-7
95) Describe the various directions communication flows through an organization's formal hierarchy, and give an example of each one.
Answer:
Page Reference: 9
96) Describe the eight phases of the communication process.
Answer:
Page Reference: 11-12
97) Describe four common types of communication barriers.
Answer:
Page Reference: 15-16
98) Describe five strategies for overcoming communication barriers and briefly explain what each one of these strategies requires.
Answer:
Page Reference: 17-21
99) Describe “constructive feedback” and compare it with “destructive feedback.”
Why is feedback important? How should you receive feedback?
Answer:
Page Reference: 19-20
0 notes
Text
Test Bank Excellence in Business Communication 4th Canadian Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
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Test Item File for Excellence in Business Communication, Fourth Canadian Edition
Chapter 1
1) Communication and effective communication are basically the same thing.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 2
2) Unclear communication not only results in errors and missed deadlines, but also lies at the root of many other serious workplace issues.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 3
3) Employers start judging your ability to communicate on the day you show up for the first interview.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 3
4) Most often you will be communicating with people who are similar to you in age, profession, and ethnic background.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 5
5) The formal communication network is typically shown as the organizational chart.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 9
6) Most of the information that flows downward in an organization is geared toward helping employees do their jobs.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 9
7) Grapevines flourish when employees don’t receive information they want or need.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
8) Although companies often communicate with outsiders in a formal manner, informal contacts with outsiders are not important.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
9) The "grapevine" is another name for formal horizontal communication.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
10) Only 20 percent of the information that travels along the grapevine in an organization pertains to business.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
11) The grapevine helps employers determine if their formal means of communication are effective.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
12) The first step in the communication process is “the sender has an idea.”
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 11
13) A diverse workforce can yield a significant competitive advantage by bringing more ideas and broader perspectives to bear on business challenges.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 13
14) Most messages aimed at important external receivers, such as the press, investors, and customers are drafted by the president of the company.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 9
15) Information has become one of the most important resources in business today.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 13
16) Company outsiders may form an impression of your organization based on subtle, unconscious clues you transmit through your tone of voice, facial expression, and general appearance.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 10
17) Whether you're listening or speaking, communication is a two-way process.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Question ID: 1-17
Type: TF Page Reference: 11
18) The communication process is a simple one consisting of two phases: the sender transmits the message and the receiver gets the message.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 11
19) Technology always helps a company.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 14
20) A message is interpreted correctly when the receiver assigns to the words the same meaning as the sender intended and then responds in the desired way.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 12
21) Your communication efforts will also be influenced by the organization’s corporate culture.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 14
22) When interference in the communication process distorts or obscures the sender’s meaning, it is called noise.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 15
23) A major barrier to effective communication is competing messages.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 15
24) The more your audience members share your experiences—personal, professional, and cultural—the more likely they are to extract the same meanings that you encode in your messages.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Question ID: 1-24
Type: TF Page Reference: 16
25) Setting aside time to attend to email and telephone messages all at once is one way to help minimize distractions.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 17
26) Sending more messages is usually better than not sending enough.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 17
27) With the audience-centred approach, communicators try to learn as much as possible about their receivers.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 17
28) Your ability to empathize with, be sensitive to, and generally consider your audience's feelings is the best way to be effective in your communication.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 19
29) React emotionally when you receive constructive feedback.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 20
30) Constructive feedback focuses on the process and not the outcomes of communication.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 20
31) Three principles of etiquette that will get you through almost any situation are respect, fun, and courtesy.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 21
32) Communicating in today’s business environment nearly always requires some level of technical competence.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 22
33) Inappropriate web surfing while at work can leave employers open to lawsuits for sexual harassment if inappropriate images are displayed.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 23
34) When people must choose between conflicting loyalties and weigh difficult trade-offs, they are facing an ethical lapse.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 25
35) A message that means to mislead or manipulate the audience is unethical.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 24
36) Because of technology's speed and efficiency, it is the best choice for every communication situation.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Type: TF Page Reference: 23
37) "Knowledge workers" are those employees that specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 13
38) Your own skills as a communicator will be as much a factor in your business success as anything else.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Type: TF Page Reference: 2-3
39) The stakeholders in an organization do NOT include _____________
A) employees.
B) competition.
C) supervisors.
D) government.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 2
40) To make your messages effective __________
A) give facts rather than impressions.
B) present a lot of information.
C) use a lot of body language.
D) use arguments.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 6
41) Today's successful companies _____________
A) use teams and collaborative work groups to arrive at quick decisions.
B) limit decisions to a few managers at the top of a formal hierarchy.
C) realize that the traditional management structure still works best.
D) make all important decisions by going through a painstaking, careful, time-consuming process.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 15
42) Employers often express frustration at the poor communication skills of many employees—particularly ____________
A) managers.
B) recent graduates.
C) sales personnel.
D) contract employees.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 2
43) One example that is NOT an example of horizontal communication is communication that flows _________
A) from the Sales department to the Accounting department.
B) from V.P. Finance to the V.P. Marketing.
C) from one project team member to another project team member.
D) from a Warehouse manager to a Warehouse employee.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 9
44) An example of downward communication flow is ___________
A) a junior staff person giving information to a staff supervisor.
B) a sales manager giving instructions to a salesperson.
C) an email message about sick leave sent from one staff secretary to another.
D) a company briefing held on the organization's top floor.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 9
45) Statements to the press, letters to investors, advertisements, and price announcements require ________
A) group meetings.
B) vendors.
C) annual reports.
D) extremely careful planning.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 9
46) The director of advertising writing a memo to the plant manager is an example of _______________
A) upward communication flow.
B) downward communication flow.
C) horizontal communication flow.
D) informal communication flow.
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 10
47) A casual conversation between co-workers is an example of ______________
A) upward communication.
B) downward communication.
C) interdepartmental communication.
D) informal communication.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 8
48) How much of the information that travels along the grapevine actually pertains to business?
A) almost none of it
B) half of it
C) more than three-quarters of it
D) none of the above
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 10
49) Some executives are wary of informal communication channels, possibly because they ______________
A) fear the spread of misinformation.
B) believe only formal channels are efficient carriers of information.
C) object to casual conversations on company time.
D) fear a loss of their control over the flow of information.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 10
50) An example of external communication would be ____________________
A) an email from a salesperson to a customer.
B) a memo from a manager at headquarters to a manager at a store in another state.
C) a teleconference among company sales representatives in several states.
D) talking on a cell phone to a colleague.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 8
51) In the first step of the communication process, ________________
A) the sender decides what to say.
B) the sender has an idea.
C) the sender chooses a medium of transmission.
D) the sender transmits the message.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 11
52) The final link in the communication process is _________________
A) sending the message.
B) receiving the message.
C) giving feedback to the sender.
D) interpreting the message.
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 12
53) Communication is effective only when _____________________
A) the sender has a meaningful idea, sends it, and it is received.
B) the idea becomes a message.
C) the message gets transmitted without noise.
D) others understand your message correctly and respond to it in the way you want.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 2
54) The most extreme example of how backgrounds can impede communication occurs when the communicators _________________
A) are different ages.
B) are of different social status.
C) come from different countries or cultures.
D) have opposing political views.
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 16
55) Companies that restrict the flow of information limit their _______________
A) competitive potential.
B) potential employee promotions.
C) audience base.
D) management control.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 16
56) Bad connections, poor acoustics, and illegible copy are all examples of _______________
A) problems with feedback.
B) physical distractions.
C) problems with background differences.
D) overload problems.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 15
57) On a typical day, the average office worker sends and receives about __________ email messages.
A) 20
B) 50
C) 90
D) 120
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 16
58) The term “corporate culture” refers to ______________________
A) the number of organizational levels within a corporation.
B) the extent to which corporations dominate a particular culture.
C) the mixture of values, traditions, and habits that give a company its atmosphere or personality.
D) a company's sponsorship of cultural events.
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 14
59) A flatter organizational structure ___________________
A) decreases the chance of misunderstandings occurring.
B) increases costs and reduces productivity.
C) can reduce profit.
D) creates more opportunities in middle management.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 14
60) To make your messages more effective __________________
A) send fewer of them.
B) mark all your messages with HIGH PRIORITY.
C) send messages frequently.
D) include as much detail as possible, even if it is not immediately needed.
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 17
61) Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma?
A) Deciding whether or not to inform employees that layoffs are coming, when a big project needs to be finished
B) Deciding whether or not to sell company stock when you have inside information on a coming downturn
C) Deciding whether or not to use the copy machine for your personal papers
D) Deciding whether or not to declare the costs of your vacation travel as a deductible business expense
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 25
62) Which of the following is an example of an ethical lapse?
A) Putting suggestions in the company suggestion box without signing your name
B) Informing a new employer about your previous (competing) employer's major clients
C) Telling your supervisor that another employee is stealing office supplies
D) Providing incorrect data in a report, even though you didn't know it was incorrect at the time
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 25
63) An organization can foster ethical communication by _______________
A) helping top managers to become more frequent communicators.
B) setting ethical examples with ethical company leadership.
C) using an ethical lapse.
D) creating a mission statement.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 25
64) Regardless of your specialty, most companies also expect you to be a competent communicator. Which of the following is NOT a communication skill desired by most businesses?
A) Organizing ideas logically
B) Presenting ideas persuasively
C) Communicating forcefully
D) Listening effectively
Answer: C
Type: MC Page Reference: 5
65) To make your business messages more effective you should _______________.
A) include as many details as possible.
B) give facts not impressions.
C) use "smart" words.
D) be sure to put in a lot of pictures.
Answer: B
Type: MC Page Reference: 6
66) Plagiarism includes ___________
A) selectively misquoting.
B) disrepresenting numbers.
C) distorting visuals.
D) violation of a copyright.
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 24
67) There are many new technologies available to improve Business Communications. Which of the list below are NOT among them?
A) Blogging
B) Email
C) Online chats
D) Ergonomic offices
Answer: D
Type: MC Page Reference: 23
68) Ethics in the workplace is an increasingly important issue. Which of the following examples is not considered unethical?
A) Self promotion
B) Plagiarism
C) Misrepresenting numbers
D) Distorting visuals
Answer: A
Type: MC Page Reference: 24
69) Collectively, the people with whom you interact—your colleagues, employees, supervisors, customers, and so on—are referred to as __________.
Answer: stakeholders
Type: FB Page Reference: 2
70) Whether exchanging emails, giving a formal presentation, or chatting with co-workers at lunch, you are engaging in __________.
Answer: communication
Type: FB Page Reference: 12
71) __________ (communication, teamwork, problem solving) are just as important as technical abilities, as employers look for well-rounded individuals who will integrate well into their companies.
Answer: Soft skills
Type: FB Page Reference: 5
72) Increased globalization and workforce __________ mean that employees must be able to communicate with people from other cultures.
Answer: diversity
Type: FB Page Reference: 12-13
73) The exchange of information within an organization is referred to as __________ communication.
Answer: internal
Type: FB Page Reference: 8
74) The informal communication network within an organization is referred to as the __________.
Answer: grapevine
Type: FB Page Reference: 10
75) When you put your idea into a message that your receiver will understand, you are __________ the message.
Answer: encoding
Type: FB Page Reference: 11
76) Your receiver must cooperate by __________ your message—absorbing and understanding it.
Answer: decoding
Type: FB Page Reference: 12
77) After getting a message, a receiver responds by giving the sender __________.
Answer: feedback
Type: FB Page Reference: 12
78) __________ is interference in the communication process that distorts or obscures the sender's meaning.
Answer: Noise
Type: FB Page Reference: 15
79) Some business communicators try to manipulate their receivers by using __________ tactics.
Answer: deceptive
Type: FB Page Reference: 16
80) An organization's __________ is the mixture of values, traditions, and habits that give a place its atmosphere or personality.
Answer: corporate culture
Type: FB Page Reference: 14
81) An ethical __________ involves choosing among conflicting alternatives that aren't clear-cut.
Answer: dilemma
Type: FB Page Reference: 25
82) An ethical __________ involves making a clearly unethical or illegal choice.
Answer: lapse
Type: FB Page Reference: 25
83) How does the primary function of upward-flowing communication differ from that of downward-flowing communication?
Answer: Communication that flows upward mainly helps managers solve problems and make intelligent decisions. On the other hand, communication that flows downward is geared primarily toward helping employees do their jobs.
Type: ES Page Reference: 8-9
84) List at least three examples of formal external communication.
Answer: Any formal communication with outsiders (announcements, email messages, meetings, etc.) constitutes formal external communication.
Type: ES Page Reference: 9
85) When is the grapevine most active within an organization?
Answer: Grapevines tend to be most active when employees believe the formal network is not providing the information they want or need.
Type: ES Page Reference: 10
86) Describe three things you can pay attention to in an attempt to improve the odds that your message will be successfully perceived by your audience.
Answer: Consider audience expectations (deliver messages using the media and channels your audience expects), ensure ease of use (don’t make messages hard to find as in a poorly designed website), emphasize familiarity (use words, images, and designs that are familiar to your audience), practice empathy (address your audiences’ wants and needs), design for compatibility (technical compatibility with your audience).
Type: ES Page Reference: 18
87) Briefly explain the nature and importance of the final phase in the communication process.
Answer: The final phase in the communication process occurs when the receiver provides feedback for the sender. Feedback enables the sender to evaluate the effectiveness of the message.
Type: ES Page Reference: 12
88) Briefly define "knowledge workers."
Answer: Knowledge workers are employees who specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.
Type: ES Page Reference: 13
89) Discuss the evolution of organizational structures and how these structures affect communication.
Answer: Organizations with tall structures may unintentionally restrict the flow of information. Tall structures may have many layers of management between the lowest and the highest positions, so they can suffer communication breakdowns and delays as messages are passed up and down through multiple layers. To overcome such problems, many businesses are now adopting flatter structures that reduce the number of layers. Flatter organizational structures usually make it easier to communicate effectively. In the pursuit of speed and agility, some businesses have adopted flexible organizations that pool the talents of employees and external partners. Regardless of the particular structure a company uses, communication efforts will be influenced by the organization’s corporate culture. Successful companies encourage employee contributions by ensuring that communication flows freely down, up, and across the organizational chart.
Type: ES Page Reference: 14
90. What is a restrictive communication environment?
Answer: Restrictive environments occur when companies limit the flow of information, either intentionally or unintentionally.
Type: ES Page Reference: 16
91) How can the exchange of many messages become a barrier to effective communication?
Answer: The sheer number of messages that people receive on the job can be distracting. Too many messages can result in information overload, which not only makes it difficult to discriminate between useful and useless information but also amplifies workplace stress.
Type: ES Page Reference: 15-16
92) To adopt an audience-centred approach to communication, what do you need to learn about your audience? List at least three specific examples.
Answer: An audience-centred approach requires learning as much as possible about the receiver's biases, education, age, social status, style, and point of view.
Type: ES Page Reference: 17
93) Briefly explain the difference between an ethical dilemma and an ethical lapse.
Answer: You face an ethical dilemma when you must choose between two or more conflicting alternatives that both seem valid and ethical. An ethical lapse, on the other hand, occurs when you make a choice that is clearly unethical and or illegal. An ethical dilemma can lead to an ethical lapse, but doesn't necessarily do so.
Type: ES Page Reference: 25
94) Describe at least five common characteristics of effective business messages.
Answer: Effective business messages provide practical information that immediately helps receivers in concrete ways. They also give facts rather than impressions, focusing on what is rather than on what could, should, or might be. While ill-conceived messages create confusion and waste time, effective messages present information in a concise, efficient manner and clarify expectations and responsibilities. They also offer compelling, persuasive arguments and recommendations rather than simply pointing out problems.
Type: ES Page Reference: 6-7
95) Describe the various directions communication flows through an organization's formal hierarchy, and give an example of each one.
Answer: Communication travels upward, downward, and horizontally through an organization's formal hierarchy. An example of upward flowing communication would be an employee sending an email to his or her supervisor requesting clarification of a new company policy. The manager's response would flow downward. Horizontal communication would include a memo from the production manager to the shipping manager warning of an impending delay.
Type: ES Page Reference: 9
96) Describe the seven phases of the communication process.
Answer: Communication is a two-way process that begins when someone conceives an idea and decides to convey it. This individual—the sender—then encodes the idea, putting it into a message the intended receiver will understand. Next, the sender chooses a medium for transmitting the message and then transmits the message via a specific communication channel and medium. The receiver gets the message and decodes it, seeking to absorb and understand it. Finally, the receiver provides feedback so that the sender can decide whether or not the message has been correctly understood.
Type: ES Page Reference: 11-12
97) Describe four common types of communication barriers.
Answer: The common types of communication barriers are distractions, competing messages, perceptual differences, language differences, restrictive environments, and deceptive tactics. Distractions, both physical and emotional, are particularly common in today's round-the-clock business world. Information overload (based on the sheer number of messages that people receive on the job) can make it difficult to discriminate between useful and useless information. Perceptual and language differences occur when two or more stakeholders develop different mental images of a single event or situation. Restrictive environments are those that limit the flow of communication. Stakeholders create another type of communication barrier when they seek to manipulate their receivers by using deceptive tactics.
Type: ES Page Reference: 15-16
98) Describe five strategies for overcoming communication barriers and briefly explain what each one of these strategies requires.
Answer: The first strategy for overcoming common communication barriers is to minimize distractions by reducing noise and interruptions and sending fewer messages. Second, adopt an audience-centred approach. Doing so requires learning as much as possible about your audience and tailoring your message to suit the receiver's needs and point of view. Third, effective communication requires fine-tuning your business communication skills. Fourth, provide and respond to constructive feedback. This involves focusing on the process and outcomes of communication (not the people involved) and learning to view your work as something you can improve. Finally, be sensitive to business etiquette, since the way you conduct yourself can have a profound impact on your company's success and reputation.
Type: ES Page Reference: 17-21
99) Describe “constructive feedback” and compare it with “destructive feedback.”
Why is feedback important? How should you receive feedback?
Answer: Constructive feedback sometimes called “constructive criticism” focuses on the process and outcomes of communication, not on the people involved. In contrast, destructive feedback delivers criticism with no effort to stimulate improvement. When you receive feedback, resist the immediate urge to defend your work or deny the validity of the feedback. Remaining open to criticism isn’t always easy, but feedback is a valuable opportunity to learn and improve. Disconnect your emotions from the work and view it simply as something you can improve.
Type: ES Page Reference: 20
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Text
Test Bank Evolutionary Analysis 5th Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,
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Chapter 1 A Case for Evolutionary Thinking: Understanding HIV
1) In which of the following regions has AIDS killed the largest number of individuals?
A) India
B) Sub-Saharan Africa
C) United States
D) China
E) United Kingdom
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) The HIV virus contains all of the following components except ________.
A) integrase
B) double-stranded RNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) reverse transcriptase
E) protease
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) The acronym HIV stands for which of the following?
A) human intercellular virus
B) human immune virus
C) human immunodeficiency virus
D) human immunity virus
E) human immunodeficiency vector
Answer: C
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for transcribing viral RNA into DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) DNA polymerase
D) reverse integrase
E) RNA duplicase
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) The proteins that enable the HIV virus to bind to cells are typically CD4 and CCR5. On what type of cells are these proteins typically observed?
A) plasma cells
B) dendritic cells
C) effector helper T cells
D) memory helper T cells
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) The AIDS phase of HIV infection begins when the concentration of CD4 T cells in the blood drops below what concentration?
A) 2,000 cells per cubic millimeter
B) 1,000 cells per cubic millimeter
C) 500 cells per cubic millimeter
D) 200 cells per cubic millimeter
E) No CD4 T cells are observed.
Answer: D
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) Which of the following drug categories are used to treat HIV infections?
A) integrase inhibitors
B) protease inhibitors
C) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D) DNAse inhibitors
E) fusion inhibitors
Answer: D
Section: 1.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) Coreceptor inhibitors block HIV infection by preventing which of the following?
A) binding of the HIV virion onto the plasma membrane
B) binding of the HIV virion onto the CCR5 receptor
C) binding of the HIV virion onto the gp120 protein
D) degrading the coreceptor so the virion cannot attach
E) binding of the HIV virion onto the CD4 receptor
Answer: B
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
9) What is the effect of the ∆32 allele of CCR5 on HIV binding?
A) appears on the surface of CD4 T cells, but the HIV virion is unable to infect the host cell
B) does not appear on the surface of CD4 T cells
C) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and inactivates the virion upon binding
D) interferes with binding of the virion to the CD4 receptor protein
E) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and causes the virion to lyse upon binding
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
10) The ∆32 allele of CCR5 is found at the highest frequency in which of the following populations?
A) Africans
B) Japanese
C) North Americans
D) Europeans
E) South Americans
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) HIV-1 is believed to have been transmitted to humans from which of the following organisms?
A) gorillas
B) sooty mangabeys
C) African green monkeys
D) chimpanzees
E) baboons
Answer: D
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12) HIV-1 Group M is responsible for 95% of human infections. When is it estimated that HIV-1 Group M was transferred to humans?
A) 1980
B) 1960
C) 1930
D) 1995
E) 1900
Answer: C
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) Antibodies and killer T cells recognize HIV or HIV-infected cells by binding to short pieces of viral proteins displayed on the virus or the infected host cell. These short pieces of viral proteins are called ________.
A) coat proteins
B) virosomes
C) proteosomes
D) epitopes
E) episomes
Answer: D
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
14) Tetherin is an important protein produced by the host. What is the function of tetherin in protecting a host cell from HIV?
A) ties maturing virions to the membrane of the host cell, thereby preventing the release of the mature virus
B) binds the virus to the external host cell membrane, thereby preventing the virus from entering the host cell
C) binds the viral RNA to reverse transcriptase, thus preventing synthesis of the viral DNA
D) binds the two viral RNA strands together, thus preventing the transcription of viral DNA in the host cell
E) causes the maturing virions to aggregate together, thus preventing their release from the host cell
Answer: A
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
15) Early in the infection with HIV, most virions bind to the host cell using CCR5 as a coreceptor. As the infection progresses, the HIV population evolves to use an alternate coreceptor. What is the alternate coreceptor these X4 viruses utilize?
A) Tetherin
B) CCR5α
C) vpu
D) TRIM5α
E) CXCR4
Answer: E
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
16) In what region of the world is the incidence of infection with HIV highest?
Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) Originally, HIV was thought to be restricted to transmission during homosexual contact between gay men. List other ways in which HIV is currently known to be transmitted.
Answer: HIV can be transmitted by heterosexual sex, oral sex, needle sharing, transfusion with contaminated blood products, other unsafe medical procedures, childbirth and breast-feeding.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
18) What does the acronym AIDS stand for?
Answer: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) What viral coat protein typically binds first to the CD4 receptor on helper T cells?
Answer: gp120
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
20) When AZT is used to treat HIV infections, why does resistance to AZT usually develop?
Answer: Mutations present in the viral population, due to the lack of proofreading and high error rate of the viral reverse transcriptase, enable mutant virions to discriminate against the incorporation of AZT during transcription.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
21) It has been observed that viral particles often revert (back mutate to non-AZT-resistant populations when treatment with AZT is discontinued. What is the most likely reason for this observation?
Answer: There is no more selective pressure applied to the viral population, and in the absence of AZT the viral particles that reproduce most efficiently have not evolved enough to have the ability to discriminate against AZT.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
22) What is the molecular mechanism by which reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT, prevent viral replication?
Answer: These molecules are analogues of the nucleotide building blocks of DNA, and typically prevent binding or elongation of the of the transcribed DNA molecule.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
23) In what host cell protein is the Δ32 mutation found, and what type of mutation is this?
Answer: The Δ32 mutation is found in the CCR5 coreceptor on CD4 helper T cells, and is a 32-base pair deletion.
Section: 1.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) Explain the phylogenetic relationship between humans, chimpanzees, and monkeys in the transmission of the current predominant deadly strain in humans, HIV-1.
Answer: HIV-1 is believed to have originated in monkeys as an SIV (simian immunodeficiency virus); SIV was passed from monkeys to chimpanzees, and SIV was passed to and mutated into HIV-1 sometime around 1930.
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) Explain the mechanism HIV uses to avoid destruction by antibodies present in the human immune system.
Answer: The virus is constantly mutating its surface proteins, and these frequent changes in epitopes on the viral surface prevent the host cell from being able to recognize the virus over time.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
26) Following long periods of infection with HIV, an X4 strain often evolves. What evolutionary advantage does the X4 strain confer on the viral population, and what specific protein does this strain interact with?
Answer: The evolutionary advantage of this strain is that it can infect a different population of T cells. The alternate population of T cells contains the coreceptor CXCR4 instead of the CCR5 coreceptor.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
27) What is the function of the product of the viral gene vpu in human infections of HIV?
Answer: The viral gene vpu (in a similar manner to the viral protein nef) blocks the action of the host protein tetherin, which normally adheres to viral particles and attaches them to the host cell membrane and prevents their release.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
28) What steps are involved in producing the HIV GP120 protein? List all processes and host cellular structures involved from the point of initial infection with viral RNA to the production of the mature virion outside of the host cell.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Application/Analysis
29) Highly active antiretroviral therapies (HAART) have become the treatment method of choice in treating human HIV infections. What is required for a treatment to be classified as HAART, and why have these treatments proven so effective in the treatment of HIV infections?
Section: 1.2
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
30) If an individual is infected with HIV that goes undetected and untreated, the infection follows a standard clinical course of progression. Explain the three sequential phases of untreated HIV infection, the approximate times over which these phases occur, and the corresponding levels of both HIV RNA and CD4 T cells circulating in the host bloodstream.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
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Test Bank Ethics in Information Technology 5th Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
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1. Anorganization’smissionstatementhighlightsitskeyethicalissuesandidentifiestheoverarchingvaluesand
principlesthatareimportanttotheorganizationanditsdecisionmaking.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
2. Lineoperationspersonnelcanbeappointedascorporateethicsofficers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
3. Inanonprofitorganization,theboardofdirectorsreportstothelocalcommunitythatitserves.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
4. Consistencymeansthatshareholders,customers,suppliers,andthecommunityknowwhattheycanexpectofan
organization—thatitwillbehaveinthefuturemuchasithasinthepast.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
5. Thegreaterrelianceofinformationsystemsinallaspectsoflifehasdecreasedtheriskthatinformationtechnologywillbeusedunethically.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. Increasingly,managersareincludingethicalconductaspartofanemployee’sperformanceappraisal.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
7. Employeesmaysuppresstheirtendencytoactinamannerthatseemsethicaltothemandinsteadactinamannerthatwillprotectthemagainstanticipatedpunishment.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
8. Thetermmoralityreferstosocialconventionsaboutrightandwrongthataresowidelysharedthattheybecomethebasisforanestablishedconsensus.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
9. Lawscanproclaimanactaslegal,althoughmanypeoplemayconsidertheactimmoral.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. Fairnessandgenerosityareexamplesofvirtues.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
11. LawrenceKohlbergfoundthatthemostcrucialfactorthatstimulatesaperson’smoraldevelopmentismonetary
rewardforgoodbehavior.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
12. Multinationalandglobalorganizationsmustnotpresentaconsistentfacetotheirshareholders,customers,andsuppliersbutinsteadmustoperatewithadifferentvaluesystemineachcountrytheydobusinessin.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
13. Legalactsconformtowhatanindividualbelievestobetherightthingtodo.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
14. Ethicshasrisentothetopofthebusinessagendabecauserisksassociatedwithinappropriatebehaviorhaveincreased,bothintheirlikelihoodandintheirpotentialnegativeimpact.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
15. Settingcorporatesocialresponsibility(CSR)goalsencouragesanorganizationtoachievehighermoralandethicalstandards.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
16. Thefairnessapproachtoethicaldecisionmakingstatesthatoneshouldchoosetheactionorpolicythathasthebestoverallconsequencesforallpeoplewhoaredirectlyorindirectlyaffected.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
17. Theboardofdirectorsofanorganizationisnormallyresponsibleforday-to-daymanagementandoperationsoftheorganization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
18. Anindividual’smanagerhasverylittleimpactonhisorherethicalbehavior.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
19. Inthebusinessworld,importantdecisionsaretoooftenlefttothetechnicalexperts;generalbusinessmanagersmustassumegreaterresponsibilityforthesedecisions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
20. ThegoaloftheSarbanesOxleyActwastorenewinvestor’strustincorporateexecutivesandtheirfirm’sfinancial
reportsfollowingnumerousfinancialscandalsintheearly2000s.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
21. Individualviewsonwhatismoralaresostronglyheldthatthereisnearlyuniversalagreementinspiteofdifferencesinage,culturalgroup,ethnicbackground,religion,lifeexperience,education,andgender.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
22. Mostpeoplehavedevelopedadecision-makingprocesstheyusealmostautomatically,withoutthinkingaboutthestepstheygothrough.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
23. ThecountrieswiththehighestsoftwarepiracyrateintheworldincludeLuxembourg,Japan,andNewZealand.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
24. Stakeholderswhostandtoloseorgainfromasituationshouldbekeptoutofthedecisionmakingprocessastheywillsimplyintroducetheirpersonalbiases.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
25. Thetermethicsdescribesstandardsorcodesofbehaviorexpectedofanindividualbyagrouptowhichtheindividualbelongs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
26. Ifthedesiredresultsarenotachieveduponimplementationofasolution,oneshouldreturntothe“identifyalternatives”stepofthedecisionmakingprocessandreworkthedecision.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
27. Greaterglobalizationhasdecreasedthelikelihoodofunethicalbehavior.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
28. ThegeneralpublicneedstodevelopabetterunderstandingofthecriticalimportanceofethicsastheyapplytoIT;currently,toomuchemphasishasbeenplacedontechnicalissues.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
29. Supplychainsustainabilitytakesintoaccountsuchissuesasfairlaborpractices,energyandresourceconservation,humanrights,andcommunityresponsibility.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
30. Thevirtuesethicsapproachtodecisionmakingfocusesonhowoneshouldbehaveandthinkaboutrelationshipsifheorsheisconcernedwithhisorherdailylifeinthecommunity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31. istheconceptthatanorganizationshouldactethicallybytakingaccountabilityfortheimpactofitsactionsontheenvironment,thecommunity,andthewelfareofitsemployees.
a. Corporate socialresponsibility b.Corporategovernance
c.Corporatesocialentrepreneurship d.Corporatesustainability
ANSWER: a
32. Whichofthefollowingstepsinthedecision-makingprocessgathersandanalyzesfactsandalsoidentifiesstakeholdersaffectedbythedecision?
a. Develop problemstatement b.Evaluateresult
c.Identifyalternatives d.Implementdecision
ANSWER: a
33. Asetofbeliefsaboutrightandwrongbehaviorwithinasocietyiscalled .
a. ethics b.moralcode
c.law d.vicesandvirtues
ANSWER: a
34. Whichofthefollowingstatementsbestdescribesareasonwhyorganizationspursuecorporatesocialresponsibility(CSR)goalsandpromoteaworkenvironmentinwhichemployeesareencouragedtoactethicallywhenmakingbusinessdecisions?
a. To enjoy higheremployee turnover rates b.Todefineavariableapproachfordealingwithstakeholders
c.Togain thegoodwill ofthecommunity d.Toincreaseunfavorablepublicity
ANSWER: c
35. A(n) isahabitofunacceptablebehavior.
a. moral b.virtue
c.ethic d.vice
ANSWER: d
36. Acomplicationofthe approachtodecisionmakingisthatmeasuringandcomparingthevaluesofcertainbenefitsandcostsisoftendifficult,ifnotimpossible.
a. fairness b.virtueethics
c.commongood d.utilitarian
ANSWER: d
37. describesstandardsorcodesofbehaviorexpectedofanindividualbyagroup(nation,organization,profession)towhichanindividualbelongs.
a. Ethics b.Virtues
c.Laws d.Morals
ANSWER: a
38. Everysocietyformsasetofrulesthatestablishestheboundariesofgenerallyacceptedbehavior.Theserulesareoftenexpressedinstatementsabouthowpeopleshouldbehave,andtheyfittogethertoformthe bywhichasocietylives.
a. laws b.ethics
c.virtuesandvices d.moralcode
ANSWER: d
39. hadoneofthelowestsoftwarepiracyratesin2011.
a. Moldova b.Bangladesh
c.Libya d.NewZealand
ANSWER: d
40. Companiesthatdevelopandmaintainstrongemployeerelations:
a. buildindifferencetotheorganization'sgoals.
b. erodeemployeeinvolvement.
c. enjoylowerturnoverrates.
d. facelowemployeemorale.
ANSWER: c
41. InthecaseofUnitedStatesv.NewYorkCentral&HudsonRiverRailroadCo.,theU.S.SupremeCourtestablishedthat:
a. executivesinanorganizationwithaneffectiveethicsprogramcanreceivelessersentencesforunethicalactions.
b. anemployercanbeheldresponsiblefortheactsofitsemployeeseveniftheemployeesactinamanner
contrarytotheiremployer’sdirections.
c. organizationscanescapecriminalliabilityiftheymakestrongeffortstopreventanddetectmisconductintheworkplace.
d. officersofcompaniescannotbegivenlightsentencesiftheirethicsprogramfailtodetercriminalactivitywithintheirfirms.
ANSWER: b
42. Arapidincreaseintheappointmentofcorporateethicsofficerstypicallyfollows:
a. theacquisitionofonecompanybyanother.
b. therevelationofamajorbusinessscandal.
c. theappointmentofanewCEO.
d. asubstantialdecreaseinthestockpriceofafirm.
ANSWER: b
43. Basedona2009NationalBusinessEthicsSurvey,thepercentageofemployeeswhosaidtheyreportedmisconductintheworkplacewhentheysawit .
a. increasedfrom2007to2009 b.decreasedfrom2007to2009
c.stayed essentiallythe same d.increasedbymorethan10percentagepointsfrom2007to2009
ANSWER: a
44. The thatsociallyresponsibleactivitiescreatecanmakeiteasierforcorporationstoconducttheirbusiness.
a. profits b.alliances
c.incentives d.goodwill
ANSWER: d
45. Thestepinthedecision-makingprocessduringwhichthedecisionmakersconsiderlaws,guidelines,policies,andprinciplesthat might applyto the decision isthe step.
a. developproblemstatement b.implementdecision
c.identifyalternatives d.evaluateandchoosealternative
ANSWER: d
46. Whichofthefollowingisthemostcriticalstepinthedecision-makingprocess?
a. Evaluationoftheresults
b. Identificationofalternativesolutions
c. Developmentofaproblemstatement
d. Implementationofadecision
ANSWER: c
47. Adiscrepancybetweenemployee'sownvaluesandanorganization'sactions:
a. encouragesemployeecommitment. b.increasesemployeeinvolvement.
c.fosterspoor performance. d.createshighmorale.
ANSWER: c
48. The chairmanof ,anIndianbasedoutsourcingfirm,admittedhehadoverstatedthecompany’sassetsbymorethan$1billioninIndia’slargestevercorporatescandal.
a. TataConsultancyServices b.WiproConsultancyServices
c.Genpact d.SatyamComputerServices
ANSWER: d
49. Someone whostandstogain orlose,dependingonhow asituationisresolved iscalleda .
a. negotiator b.figurehead
c.stakeholder d.philanthropist
ANSWER: c
50. Ina(n) ,anorganizationreviewshowwellitismeetingitsethicalandsocialresponsibilitygoals,andcommunicatesitsnewgoalsfortheupcomingyear.
a. ethicsreview b.performanceappraisal
c.socialaudit d.moralsassessment
ANSWER: c
51. Awell-implementedethicsandcomplianceprogramandastrongethicalculturecanleadto:
a. morefearofretaliationbymanagement. b.lesscomfortforemployeesreportingmisconduct.
c.morenegativeviewsontheorganization. d.lesspressureonemployeestomisbehave.
ANSWER: d
52. Anapproachtoethicaldecisionmakingthatisbasedonavisionofsocietyasacommunitywhosemembersworktogethertoachieveageneralsetofvaluesandgoalsisthe approach.
a. commongood b.fairness
c.virtue ethics d.utilitarian
ANSWER: a
53. In a forprofitorganization, itis the primary objective ofthe tooverseetheorganization’sbusinessactivities
andmanagementforthebenefitofshareholders,employees,customers,suppliers,andthecommunity.
a. negotiator b.boardofdirectors
c.corporateethicsofficer d.corporatecomplianceofficer
ANSWER: b
54. A providesanorganizationwithvisionandleadershipintheareaofbusinessconduct.
a. spiritualleader b.corporateethicsofficer
c.disseminator d.disturbancehandler
ANSWER: b
55. Section404oftheSarbanes-OxleyActstatesthat:
a. annualreportsmustcontainastatementsignedbytheCEOandCFOattestingthattheinformationinallof
thefirm’sSECfilingsisaccurate.
b. publiccompaniesmustdisclosetheircodeofethicsaswellasanywaiverofthecodeforcertainmembersofseniormanagement.
c. acodeofethicsmustbeeasilyaccessiblebyemployees,shareholders,businesspartners,andthepublic.
d. thecodeofethicsmustcontinuallybeappliedtoacompany’sdecisionmakingandemphasizedasan
importantpartofitsculture.
ANSWER: a
56. The isresponsibleforthecarefulandresponsiblemanagementofanorganization.
ANSWER: boardofdirectors
57. Apersonwhoactswith actsinaccordancewithapersonalcodeofprinciples.
ANSWER: integrity
58. Inanenvironmentwhereemployeesareencouragedtodo“whateverittakes”togetthejobdone,employeesmayfeelpressuretoengagein conducttomeetmanagement’sexpectations.
ANSWER: unethical
59. The approachtodecisionmakingsuggeststhatwhenfacedwithacomplexethicaldilemma,peopledoeitherwhattheyaremostcomfortabledoingorwhattheythinkapersontheyadmirewoulddo.
ANSWER: virtueethics
60. The goalof the approachtoethicaldecisionmakingistofindthesinglegreatestgoodbybalancingtheinterestsofallaffectedparties.
ANSWER: utilitarian
61. areone’spersonalbeliefsaboutrightandwrong.
ANSWER: Morals
62. A(n) isahabitthatinclinespeopletodowhatisacceptable.
ANSWER: virtue
63. A(n) isastatementthathighlightsanorganization’skeyethicalissuesandidentifiestheoverarchingvalues
andprinciplesthatareimportanttotheorganizationanditsdecisionmaking.
ANSWER: codeofethics
64. In the decision-making process of implementing the decision, a(n) planmustbedefinedtoexplaintopeoplehowtheywillmovefromtheoldwayofdoingthingstothenewway.
ANSWER: transition
65. An effective helpsensurethatemployeesabidebythelaw,follownecessaryregulations,andbehaveinanethicalmanner.
ANSWER: codeofethics
66. A(n) isaclear,concisestatementofanissuethatneedstobeaddressed.
ANSWER: problemstatement
67. The ledtosignificantreformsinthecontentandpreparationofdisclosuredocumentsbypubliccompanies.
ANSWER: Sarbanes-OxleyAct
68. Theprinciplethattheethicalchoicetreatseveryonethesameandshowsnofavoritismordiscriminationismostcloselyassociated with the approachtodealingwithmoralissues.
ANSWER: fairness
69. The approachtoethicaldecisionmakingfitseasilywiththeconceptofvalueineconomicsandtheuseofcost-benefitanalysisinbusiness.
ANSWER: utilitarian
70. Decisionsandpoliciesthatuse the approachtodecisionmakingattempttoimplementsocialsystems,institutions,andenvironmentsthateveryonedependsonandthatbenefitallpeople.
ANSWER: common good
71. Acodeofethicscannotgaincompany-wideacceptanceunlessitisdevelopedwith andfullyendorsedbythe
organization’sleadership.
ANSWER: employeeparticipation
72. Section 406ofthe requirespubliccompaniestodisclosewhethertheyhaveacodeofethicsandtodiscloseanywaiverofthecodeforcertainmembersofseniormanagement.
ANSWER: Sarbanes-OxleyAct
73. Duringtheproblemdefinitionprocess,onemustbeextremelycarefulnotmake aboutthesituation.
ANSWER: assumptions
74. isthepracticeofillegallymakingcopiesofsoftwareorenablingotherstoaccesssoftwaretowhichtheyarenotentitled.
ANSWER: Softwarepiracy
75. Themoralcorruptionofpeopleinpower,whichisoftenfacilitatedbyatendencyforpeopletolooktheotherwaywhentheirleadersactinappropriatelyhasbeengiventhename .
ANSWER: Bathshebasyndrome
76. actsconformtowhatanindividualbelievestobetherightthingtodo.
ANSWER: Moral
77. frequentlyincludeasetofformal,writtenstatementsaboutthepurposeofanorganization,itsvalues,andthe
principlesthatshouldguideitsemployees’actions.
ANSWER: Codesofethics
78. Supplychainsustainabilityisacomponentof thatfocusesondevelopingandmaintainingasupplychainthatmeetstheneedsofthepresentwithoutcompromisingtheabilityoffuturegenerationstomeettheirneeds.
ANSWER: corporatesocialresponsibility(CSR)CSR
corporatesocialresponsibility
(CSR)corporatesocialresponsibility
79. ThegrowthoftheInternetandtheabilitytocaptureandstorevastamountsofpersonaldatahaveincreasedtheriskthat willbeusedunethically.
ANSWER: informationtechnology
80. A(n) alignsthepracticesofaworkplacewiththestatedethicsandbeliefsofthatworkplace,holdingpeopleaccountabletoethicalstandards.
ANSWER: corporateethicsofficer
81. Whatisasocialaudit?Explain.
ANSWER: Inasocialaudit,anorganizationreviewshowwellitismeetingitsethicalandsocialresponsibilitygoals,andcommunicatesitnewgoalsforthecomingyear.Thisinformationissharedwithemployees,shareholders,investors,marketanalysts,customers,suppliers,governmentagencies,andthecommunitiesinwhichtheorganizationoperates.
82. Describetwotrendsthathaveincreasedthelikelihoodofunethicalbehavior.
ANSWER: Severaltrendshaveincreasedthelikelihoodofunethicalbehavior.First,formanyorganizations,greaterglobalizationhascreatedamuchmorecomplexworkenvironmentthatspansdiverseculturesandsocieties,makingitmuchmoredifficulttoapplyprinciplesandcodesofethicsconsistently.Forexample,numerousU.S.companieshavemovedoperationstodevelopingcountries,whereemployeesworkinconditionsthatwouldnotbeacceptableinmostdevelopedpartsoftheworld.
Second,intoday’sdifficultanduncertaineconomicclimate,organizationsareextremelychallengedtomaintainrevenueandprofits.Someorganizationsaresorelytemptedtoresorttounethicalbehaviortomaintainprofits.Forexample,thechairmanoftheIndia-basedoutsourcingfirmSatyamComputerServicesadmittedhehadoverstatedthecompany’sassetsbymorethan$1billion.TherevelationrepresentedIndia'slargestevercorporatescandalandcausedthegovernmenttostepintoprotectthejobsofthecompany’s53,000employees.
83. Inthecontextofanethicaldecision-makingprocess,discusstheimportanceofcommunicationinimplementingachange.
ANSWER: Oncethealternativeisselected,itshouldbeimplementedinanefficient,effective,andtimelymanner.
Thisismucheasiersaidthandone,becausepeopletendtoresistchange.Infact,thebiggerthechange,thegreatertheresistancetoit.Communicationisthekeyinhelpingpeopleacceptachange.
Itisimperativethatsomeonewhomthestakeholderstrustandrespectanswerthefollowingquestions:Whyarewedoingthis?Whatiswrongwiththecurrentwaywedothings?Whatarethebenefitsofthenewwayforyou?
Atransitionplanmustbedefinedtoexplaintopeoplehowtheywillmovefromtheoldwayofdoingthingstothenewway.Itisessentialthatthetransitionbeseenasrelativelyeasyandpainfree.
84. Discusstheroleoftheboardofdirectorsincreatinganethicalorganization.
ANSWER: Boardofdirectorsofacompanyareexpectedtoconductthemselvesaccordingtothehigheststandardsforpersonalandprofessionalintegrity,whilesettingthestandardforcompany-wideethicalconductandensuringcompliancewithlawsandregulations.Employeeswill“getthemessage”ifthedirectorssetanexampleofhighlevelofethicalbehavior.Iftheydon’tsetagoodexample,employeeswillgetthatmessageaswell.Importantly,boardmembersmustcreateanenvironmentwhereemployeesfeeltheycanseekadviceaboutappropriatebusinessconduct,raiseissues,andreportmisconductthroughappropriatechannels.Failureoftheboardtosetanexampleofhigh-levelethicalbehaviorortointervenetostopunethicalbehaviorcanresultinseriousconsequences.
85. Brieflydescribethedifferencebetweenmorals,ethics,andlaws.
ANSWER: Moralsareone’sownpersonalbeliefsaboutrightandwrong,whilethetermethicsdescribestandardsorcodesofbehaviorexpectedofanindividualbyagroup(nation,organization,profession)towhichanindividualbelongs.Forexample,theethicsofthelawprofessiondemandthatdefenseattorneysdefendanaccusedclienttothebestoftheirability,eveniftheyknowsthattheclientisguiltyofthemostheinousandmorallyobjectionablecrimeonecouldimagine.
Lawisasystemofrulesthattellspeoplewhatonecanandcannotdo.Lawsareenforcedbyasetofinstitutions(thepolice,courts,lawmakingbodies).Legalactsareactsthatconformtothelaw.Moralactsconformwithwhatanindividualbelievestobetherightthingtodo.Lawscanproclaimanactaslegal,althoughmanypeoplemayconsidertheactimmoral—forexample,abortion.
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Test Bank Ethics and Issues in Contemporary Nursing 4th Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,
Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,
Contact us At: [email protected]
Chapter 1 Social, Philosophical, and Other Historical Forces Influencing the Development of Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Nursing practice is influenced by:
a.
history.
b.
spiritual beliefs.
c.
religious practice.
d.
philosophical influences.
e.
all of the above.
ANS: E PTS: 1
2. Empathy is a motive for:
a.
meeting the needs of others.
c.
becoming a nurse.
b.
moral reasoning and action.
d.
determining right from wrong.
ANS: B PTS: 1
3. Professions exist to meet the:
a.
needs of employers.
c.
needs of society.
b.
needs of individuals.
d.
needs of families.
ANS: C PTS: 1
4. Florence Nightingale was a:
a.
model for all nurses.
b.
nurse.
c.
statistician.
d.
social reformer.
e.
all of the above.
ANS: E PTS: 1
5. Helping professionals find their origin in:
a.
inhumane actions.
b.
perceived social need.
c.
accepted moral needs.
d.
individual values.
e.
All except a.
f.
b and c only.
ANS: E PTS: 1
6. The overarching belief system of a culture that deals with the culture’s beliefs about the nature of the universe is termed:
a.
cosmology.
c.
values.
b.
religion.
d.
astrology.
ANS: A PTS: 1
7. During the Middle Ages:
a.
religions and church-sanctioned secular nursing orders afforded the only legitimate avenue for women who wished to become nurses.
b.
there was an upsurge in the respect afforded to nursing and midwifery, and nurses began to practice autonomously.
c.
healing arts in Denmark and Greece were performed in sacred ceremonies by priests, priestesses, or shamans.
d.
most nurses were women of high social status.
ANS: A PTS: 1
8. The “Dark Period of Nursing” when convalescent patients, prostitutes, prisoners, and drunkards provided hospital nursing care occurred during the:
a.
Reformation.
c.
Middle Ages.
b.
Crusades.
d.
Early Christian era.
ANS: A PTS: 1
9. The concept of social need is important to the ethical foundations of the nursing professional because:
a.
nurses must determine the health needs of society.
b.
nursing finds its origin, purpose, and meaning within the context of perceived social need.
c.
theories of sociology are utilized by nursing scholars, many of whom view them as conceptual frameworks for nursing practice.
d.
social need determines the boundaries of the ethical principles of distributive justice, beneficence, and nonmaleficence.
ANS: B PTS: 1
10. The social status of women affects the status of the nursing profession because:
a.
nursing has traditionally been a profession of women.
b.
throughout history, nurses have been afforded higher social status.
c.
women of higher social status rarely become nurses.
d.
women are more skilled than men at nurturing others.
ANS: A PTS: 1
11. Philosophers of the Early Christian era included:
a.
Plato.
d.
St. Augustine.
b.
St. Paul.
e.
All of the above
c.
Aristotle.
f.
b and d only
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. Which of the following events that changed nursing occurred during the 20th century?
a.
Women became more politically active.
b.
The nursing profession gained acceptance as a legitimate force.
c.
Nurses began to provide independent health care services.
d.
All of the above
ANS: D PTS: 1
13. Who is recognized as the father of Western medicine?
a.
Plato
c.
Aristotle
b.
Hippocrates
d.
St. Paul
ANS: B PTS: 1
14. Which period fostered the scientific revolution and a new era in the healing arts?
a.
Middle Ages
c.
Early Christian era
b.
Renaissance
d.
Reformation
ANS: D PTS: 1
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Socrates can be described as (select all that apply):
a.
being one of the greatest philosophers of ancient times.
b.
believing a person should do what is best for him or herself.
c.
proposing that one must seek knowledge and develop the inner self in order to experience a good life.
d.
creating the Socratic method.
e.
believing that knowledge does lead to the “good life.”
ANS: A, C, D, E PTS: 1
2. The Crusades brought many changes in the health of the population including (select all that apply):
a.
deplorable sanitary conditions.
b.
fatigue.
c.
containment of communicable diseases.
d.
diarrhea.
e.
good nutrition.
ANS: A, B, D PTS: 1
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