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BOS 3651 Unit VIII Course Project
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 Unit VIII Course Project
  Conduct an audit of the following safety management     system elements at your organization, or an organization with which you     are familiar and have access to the required information:
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM ELEMENTS
ANSI/AIHA Z10 SECTIONS
COURSE TEXTBOOK CHAPTERS
1. Occupational Health and Safety  Management System
3.1.1
8
2. Occupational Health and Safety  Policy
3.1.2
8
3. Responsibility and Authority
3.1.3
8
4. Employee Participation
3.2
8
5. Review Process, Assessment, and  Prioritization
4.1, 4.2
9
6. Risk Assessment
5.1.1
11
7. Hierarchy of Controls
5.1.2
14
8. Design Review
5.1.3
15
9. Management of Change
5.1.3
19
10. Procurement
5.1.4
20
11. Monitoring and Measurement
6.1
21
12. Incident Investigation
6.2
22
13. Audits
6.3
23
14. Corrective and Preventive  Actions
6.4
23
15. Feedback to the Planning  Process
6.5
23
16. Management Review
7.1, 7.2
24
Below you will find some suggested sources for the objective evidence to support your evaluation: BOS 3651, Total Environmental Health and Safety Management 4
  Documents: Organizational     safety manuals and instructions, safe operating procedures, and job hazard     analyses
Records: E-mails     or letters from management to employees, safety meeting minutes, mishap     logs, audit reports, OSHA citations, inspection reports, risk assessments,     and training records.
Interviews: Management     personnel, supervisors, and employees
Observation: Walk     through some workplaces to observe conditions for yourself.
For each management system element, discuss the     objective evidence you found (or were unable to find). Evaluate the     effectiveness of the organization’s implementation of each element against     available reference sources and best practice information. Use the     following five-tier evaluation scheme to rate each element:
World Class: OHS     performance
Strong: Conforming/complete,     may have minor gaps with action plans
Moderate: Scattered     non-conformances need to be addressed, positive trends/major elements in     place
Significant Non-Conformances Exist: Still needs focus
Major Effort Required: Major or systemic non-conformances exist
Appropriate references include the course textbook, textbooks from other college-level courses, ANSI/AIHA Z10-2012, other published consensus standards (ANSI, ASSE, AIHA, ISO, NFPA, etc.), OSHA standards and voluntary guidelines, and articles published in professional journals. Blogs, Wikipedia, About.com, Ask.com and other unmonitored Internet resources are not considered scholarly references and should not be used. Please contact your professor if you have any questions about the appropriateness of a reference source.
If an element is found to be less than World Class,     provide recommendations for improvement. Be sure to use appropriate     scholarly reference sources to support your recommendations.
Conclude the audit report with a summary of the overall     status of the organization’s safety management system.
The Course Project must be a minimum of seven pages and a maximum of 10 pages in length, not including the title, abstract, and reference pages. A minimum of five professional references sources must be used.  And no more then 10% Plagiarism
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BMGT 495 full course ( all discussions and all assignments )
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 BMGT 495 full course ( all discussions and all assignments )
 Learning Activity #1
 Organizations must clearly articulate a Mission Statement and Vision Statement in order to strategically plan. Failing to understand that initial step of the Strategic Planning process often leads an organization away from, instead of towards, effective strategic planning.
Below are four (4) Mission Statements and four (4)Vision Statements; select ONE Mission Statement and ONE Vision Statement. Clearly explain why the select Mission Statement and Vision Statement is effective or ineffective; offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting.
 Mission Statements
McDonald’s vision is to be the world’s best quick service restaurant experience. Being the best means providing outstanding quality, service, cleanliness, and value, so that we make every customer in every restaurant smile.
The American Cancer Society is the nationwide community-based voluntary health organization dedicated to eliminating cancer as a major health problem by preventing cancer, saving lives, and diminishing suffering from cancer, through research, education, advocacy, and service.
To enhance quality of life for all as we age. We lead positive social change and deliver value to members through information, advocacy and service.
To create a shopping experience that pleases our customers; a workplace that creates opportunities and a great working environment for our associates; and a business that achieves financial success.
 Vision Statements
 GM’s vision is to be the world leader in transportation products and related services. We will earn our customers’ enthusiasm through continuous improvement driven by the integrity, teamwork, and innovation of GM people.
Develop, deploy, and manage a diverse set of scalable and strategic knowledge management tools to serve our customers, improving the possibility of overall satisfaction among our diverse customer profiles
To build the largest and most complete Amateur Radio community site on the Internet.
We intend to provide our customers with the best online shopping experience from beginning to end, with a smart, searchable website, easy-to-follow instructions, clear and secure payment methods, and fast, quality delivery.
  Learning Activity #2
 The “5 P’s of Strategy” capture the complexity of defining Strategic Management. Select ONE of the “5 P’s” – (1) explain why you selected that particular concept, i.e., why do you believe it is important to the overall strategic management process and (2) explain whether that particular concepts requires more of a perspective of art or science from the strategic leaders point of view.
Clearly explain your position; offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting.
Rubrics
BMGT 495 week 2
Learning Activity #1
 Over 30 years ago Michael Porter identified a holistic approach to understanding how competitiveforces shape strategy. He posited that the only way to truly insulate an organization from underlying economic volatility is by understanding the 5 competitive forces and how they relate, fundamentally, to the organization.
The five forces are:
·         Rivalry among existing competitors
·         The bargaining power of Suppliers
·         Threat of New Entrants to the market
·         The bargaining power of Buyers
·         Threat of Substitute Products/Services
Select ONE of the industries below and identify a specific company in that industry and identify the key drivers of competition for that industry and specifically for the selected company. Explain how those external competitive forces are affecting the industry and company and the effect of those forces on the overall strategic planning processes uniquely for that company and generally for that industry. Offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting.
Industry
·         Airline
·         Banking
·         Healthcare
·         Retail
·         Fast Food
 Learning Activity #2
 Utilizing the industry/company selected for Learning Activity #1 and your comments regarding the key drivers of competition based on Porter’s 5 Competitive Forces, what do you believe is a limitation to only evaluating those competitive forces for that selected industry/company. In other words, what implications are NOT considered when only utilizing Porter’s 5 Competitive Forces and how might you identify those additional external factors? Offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting
  BMGT 495 week 3
  Learning Activity #1
 Albert Einstein was quoted as saying “Great spirits have always encountered violent opposition from mediocre minds.” Every organization has their strengths and weaknesses; that is a reality that every organization must face, but it doesn’t mean the strengths will make the organization succeed or that the weaknesses will cause the organization to fail. Every effective manager/leader will most likely face opposition within their own organization; however, in order to capitalize on the strengths and mitigate the weaknesses, an organization must first understand their key internal forces. An internal analysis is an opportunity for the employees within the organization to understand how what they do fits into the organization as a whole.
Using either Southwest Airlines or Subway, create an abbreviated IFE and EFE chart using the format below.
EFE — Key External Factors
Opportunities
Weight
Rating
Weighted Score
Threats
TOTALS
1.0
IFE — Key Internal Factors
Strengths
Weight
Rating
Weighted Score
Weaknesses
TOTALS
1.0
  Learning Activity #2
Once you have completed both charts from Learning Activity #1 prepare a paragraph that discusses: (1) why you chose those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats and (2) what the weighted IFE and EFE scores mean for that organization from a strategic planning point of view.
Offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting.
  BMGT 495 week 4
  Learning Activity #1
 Using the company you selected for the Week 3 Learning Activity (Southwest Airlines or Subway), it is now time to evaluate the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats you uncovered and determine what strategy is best suited based on the outcome of the IFE and EFE.
Discuss which generic business-level strategy is best suited to keep the company you selected competitive.Offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting
  Learning Activity #2
 Select one of the strategy formulation analytic tools and complete based on the information gathered in the Week 3 Learning Activities; the tools to select from are:
n Space Matrix
n Boston Consulting Group (BCG) Matrix
n IE Matrix
Once you have completed the tool discuss the outcome in terms of what strategic direction the selected company should take and why. As always, offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statement using proper APA formatting.
  BMGT 495 week 5
  Learning Activity #1
 Now is the time to select a strategy; during the previous week you identified strategic directions. Based on that strategic direction identify several specific strategies for either Subway or Southwest (now is the opportunity to provide SPECIFIC alternative strategies). Once you’ve identified 2-3 specific strategies you can use the QSPM tool to determine what ONE strategy to implement. Remember that organizations have limited resources, i.e., they can’t do everything, they must select a strategy to move forward to implement.
In this learning activity you will use the QSPM tool to review the alternatives identified in Week 4 and select ONE strategy to move forward. Be sure to create the QSPM in this learning activity.
 Learning Activity #2
 Provide a detailed explanation of the ONE strategy identified in Learning Activity #1 this week to move forward. Explain why that strategy is critical to the organizations future success; be sure to use material from Weeks 3 & 4 to support this explanation.
Offer supporting rationale for your explanation and be sure to reference your statements using proper APA formatting.
  BMGT 495 week 6
  Learning Activity #1
 The best strategies often fail not because they weren’t good strategies, but because they weren’t implemented properly. One of the most important aspects of implementing a good strategy is ensuring that the organization is designed in a way that will properly support the plan.
In Week 5 you narrowed down the strategic alternatives for either Southwest or Subway and identified ONE strategy to move forward with. Based on that strategy what type of organizational design would best support that strategy. Provide a high level overview of the organizational design – be sure to fully explain the design.
  Learning Activity #2
 Vince Lombardi was quoted as saying “The best game plan in the world never blocked or tackled anybody”; strategist often believe their work is done once they’ve identified the right strategy to be implemented, but in reality the strategy implementation phase is often far more difficult than the strategy formulation phase.
In addition to organization design, there are several other factors that can cause a good strategy to fail: management, operations, marketing, finance, R&D and MIS issues. Review the strategy that you identified for either Southwest or Subway in Week 5 and determine which ONE of these additional factors could cause that specific strategy to fail. Clearly identify the factor, explain why it could cause the strategy to fail – fully support your response.
  BMGT 495 week 7
  Learning Activity #1
 The company Life is Good seeks to encourage others to be philanthropic throughout the year to help their foundation for children. They must do that in a way that does not push away the very customers whom they depend on to finance the foundation. Take a look at this short video clip:http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=00PPXilS9wA – as you are watching it reflect on the co-founders attitude toward social responsibility.
Now put yourself in the role of Chief Strategist for Life is Good and explain how you would position social responsibility to further both their social and strategic goals. Be sure to clearly define the concept of social responsibility, correlate that to the example(s) you see in this video (you can also take a look at their website for more detail –www.lifeisgood.com) and focus on your role to identify strategies that allow the company to succeed. Clearly explain how you would position the company to move forward socially, ethically and financially (the triffecta of success!)
  Learning Activity #2
 This week we read of the role of board of directors in large, publicly traded corporations to ensure that the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is implemented in a way that mitigates unethical or illegal behavior. Select one of the following industry’s listed below and identify positive and negative examples of corporate social behavior – explain how that behavior affected (positively or negatively) that industry and what can/should be done to mitigate that behavior. As always, please support and justify your answer using APA formatted references.
·         Airline
·         Banking
·         Healthcare
·         Retail
·         Fast Food
BMGT 495 week 8  
Learning Activity #1
 The ultimate goal of effective strategic management is to achieve and maintain a competitive advantage (David, 2013). Over the past 7 weeks we’ve spent time understanding the fundamentals of strategic management: formulation, implementation and evaluation. As you think over the learnings of the past 7 weeks and the goal of achieving and maintaining a competitive advantage you must also think about effective decision making, which is critical to an organizations success.
In your opinion, what is the single major benefit of using a strategic management approach to decision making? There is really no right or wrong answer, however, please support and justify your answer using APA formatted references.
  Learning Activity #2
 What was your “aha moment” regarding the strategic management process over the past 7 weeks? Again, there is no right or wrong answer, but please explain why you thought this moment of learning was so critical to your overall understanding of strategic management.
   BMGT 495 Assignment 1: Environment Analysis (Week4)
 Purpose: This assignment is the first of three assignments. Students will use the tools and apply concepts learned in this and previous business courses to demonstrate an understanding of how organizations develop and manage strategies to establish, safeguard and sustain its position in a competitive market.
Monitoring competitors’ performance is a key aspect of performing an external environment analysis. This assignment provides students the opportunity to evaluate the competitive position of one of the organizations listed below and integrate that information in an External Factor Evaluation (EFE) matrix and Competitive Profile Matrices (CPM).
Students also have the opportunity to review an organization’s objectives and goals and the key functional areas within the organization. Performing an internal environment analysis helps assess a firm’s internal resources and capabilities and plays a critical role in formulating strategy by identifying a firm’s strengths to overcome weaknesses. In completing the internal environmental analysis students will construct an Internal Factor Evaluation (IFE) matrix and calculate financial ratios.
Instructions:
Part I
Students will perform an external analysis on a company from the list below or from a list of companies provided by the instructor.
·         Priceline Group
·         Domino Pizza
·         Spirit Airlines
In completing the assignment, students will perform research on the company provided, answer the questions below in narrative form and follow the steps below:
Step 1:Create a double-spaced, 12-point font Word or Rich Text Format (RTF) document. The final product will be between 5-6 pages in length excluding the title page, exhibits and reference page.
Step 2:Review assignment grading rubric.
Step 3: Follow this format:
·         Title page with assignment title, your name, the course, the instructor’s name;
·         Introduction;
·         Comprehensive Written Analysis:
o    External Environmental Analysis
o    Internal Environmental Analysis
Step 4: In writing the analysis, the writing is in the third person. What this means is that there are no words such as “I, me, my, we, or us” (first person writing), nor is there use of “you or your” (second person writing). If uncertain how to write in the third person, view this link:http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/first-second-and-third-person
Step 5: In writing this assignment, students are required to support the reasoning using in-text citations and a reference list. A reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa. View the sample APA paper under Week 1 content.
Step 6: In writing this assignment, students are expected to paraphrase and not use direct quotes unless citing a company’s mission statement and vision statement. Learn to paraphrase by reviewing this link:https://writing.wisc.edu/Handbook/QPA_paraphrase2.html
Step 7: Read all course material for weeks 1 – 3 and perform independent research to provide a comprehensive external and internal environmental analysis.
Step 8: Jot down or highlight key facts from the scenario. Consider making an outline to capture key points.
Step 9: In your paper, respond to the following:
Part 1: External Environmental Analysis
·         Use tools, concepts and information from your own research, perform an external analysis of the company’s environment.
1) an industry analysis and
2) a competitive analysis. Use the top two competitors plus the company selected from the list above or the list provided by the instructor;
·         Analyze the market environment and identify opportunities and threats that challenge the organization;
·         Construct an EFE for selected company,
·         Develop a CPM for selected company;
·         Evaluate trends significant to the industry and company.
·         Discuss key areas of uncertainty related to trends or events that potentially could impact the company’s strategy.
Part 2 Internal Environmental Analysis
·         Identify the company’s mission, vision and objectives;
·         Provide a company background;
·         Perform an internal analysis:
o Corporate Level Strategy
o Business Unit Level Strategy
o Functional Level Strategy
o Assess the company’s interactions with its stakeholders, the organizational structure, the organizational culture, and communication/decision making among managers within human resources, marketing production, operations, finance and accounting, R&D, and computer information systems, which can be accomplished by viewing the company’s website, interviews, and surveys.
·         Identify company strengths and weaknesses. What must the company do to perform successfully in the industry?
·         Construct an IFE Matrix for selected company;
·         Perform a financial analysis for the last reported fiscal year:
o Use the company’s income statement and balance sheet and calculate key (emphasis added), but no less than 10 key financial ratios to the business;
o Research the industry average financial ratios for the same ratios above and record in a second column;
o In the third column, indicate whether the company’s ratio is a strength, a weakness or a neutral factor.
·         Discuss what strategies would allow the company to capitalize on its major strengths;
·         Discuss strategies that would allow the company to improve upon its major weaknesses.
Step 10: Create an introductory paragraph. The Introduction should clearly and concisely convey the main points of the assignment’s requirements. Review the following website to learn how to write an introductory paragraph:http://www.writing.ucsb.edu/faculty/donelan/intro.html
Step 11: Using the grading rubric as a comparison, read through the paper to ensure all required elements are presented.
Step 12: Proofread the paper for spelling and grammatical issues, and third person writing.
·         Use the spell and grammar check in Word as a first measure;
·         Have someone who has excellent English skills to proof the paper;
·         Consider submitting the paper to the Effective Writing Center (EWC). The EWC will provide 4-6 areas that may need improvement.
Step 13: Submit the paper in the Assignment Folder.
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BMGT 380 Final Examination Question and Answers
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 1. Sam orally agreed to sell Ramie some land for $500,000. Ramie paid Sam the $500,000; Sam gave Ramie the deed to the land. Ramie took possession of the land and began building a cabin on it. One month later, Sam tried to retake possession of the land by arguing that the contract for the sale was invalid because it was oral, not written. Sam sued Ramie to invalidate the contract and retake the land. The court will likely conclude that Sam will: a) Win; the sale exceeded $500 so the contract must be written to be valid. b) Win; all land sales contracts must be written. c) Lose; because the contract was fully executed Sam cannot rescind the contract. d) Lose; because Ramie had begun building a cabin on the property, Sam cannot rescind the contract.
2. On Tuesday, Sam offered to sell his CD collection to Sandy for $100. Sandy replied, "I’m interested. I’ll think it over and let you know Thursday whether I want to buy the CDs." On Wednesday, Sam agreed to sell the CDs to Jason, and Jason immediately gave Sam a letter that stated: "Sam, I will buy your CD collection for $100. As we agreed, I will pay you on Friday when I pick up the CDs. Yours truly, Jason." Upon Sam’s receipt of this letter on Wednesday, what best describes Sam’s contract agreement(s)? a) By forming an agreement with Jason, Sam breached his contract with Sandy.
b) Sam has formed contracts with both Jason and Sandy. c) Sam and Jason have formed a valid, enforceable contract; Sam did not form a contract with Sandy. d) Sam formed a contract with Sandy, but has not formed an enforceable contract with Jason because Jason has not yet paid for the CD collection.
3. Mac and Rhamad signed a business contract with a clause that provides that if a dispute arises they must submit to binding arbitration to resolve the dispute. After they had been doing business together for a year, a dispute arose under the terms of the contract. Rather than submit to arbitration, Mac filed a lawsuit against Rhamad. Most likely the court will: a) Hear the lawsuit because Mac cannot be compelled to submit to arbitration; he is constitutionally entitled to a jury trial if he requests a trial. b) Conduct a bench trial, then order a remedy without compelling Mac to submit to arbitration or to a jury trial. c) Compel Mac to submit to arbitration to resolve the dispute. d) Hear the lawsuit in a trial, then compel Mac to submit to arbitration, if Mac is not satisfied with the trial decision.
4. Roxy, while driving through Wyoming to her home in Montana, accidentally lost control of her car and drove it through a window into a store owned by Colt. Colt sued Roxy in a Wyoming court for damages to his store. Will the Wyoming court likely be able to exercise jurisdiction over Roxy? a) No, because Wyoming has no in personam (personal) jurisdiction over Roxy, and cannot exercise its long arm statute in cases only involving automobile accidents. b) No, because Wyoming has no in personam jurisdiction over Roxy, and cannot justify minimum contacts in this case.
c) Yes, Wyoming can exercise in personam jurisdiction in this case because any state court has personal jurisdiction in every diversity of citizenship case. d) Yes, because Wyoming can assert in personam jurisdiction over Roxy under the minimum contacts test.
5. Assume a salesperson intentionally made one of the following statements knowing that the statement was false – to a customer considering a purchase. Which statement could create liability for fraudulent misrepresentation if the customer made the purchase? a) “In my opinion, this car is in flawless mechanical condition.” b) “This crane will probably lift about 10,000 pounds.” c) “This car is a real gem.” d) “This is an original painting by the artist, Pablo Picasso.”
6. Don promised to buy his girlfriend, Sophie, a new car so Sophie sold her old car. Don now refuses to buy Sophie the car. Sophie has a job that requires her to have a car to get to work. If Sophie sues Don to enforce the promise, the likely result is that the promise will: a) Be enforced under promissory estoppel because Sophie reasonably relied on Don’s promise, to her detriment. b) Not be enforced as Sophie was not unjustly enriched simply because she did not receive the car. c) Be enforced because the car is a necessity for Sophie and all contracts for necessities are binding and enforceable for all parties even if contract formation is flawed. d) Not be enforced as Don’s promise was a gift to Sophie; Sophie gave consideration, but Don did not.
7. Reg offered to sell his motorcycle to Thelma for $8,000. Thelma replied, "Your price is too high. I will purchase your motorcycle for $7,000". Reg agreed and they committed their agreement to writing. This transaction can be characterized as: a) An enforceable contract because Reg’s acceptance of Thelma’s offer was a clearly communicated acceptance. b) An enforceable contract because Thelma’s counteroffer was less than Reg’s original offer. c) An unenforceable contract because Thelma’s offer was not the mirror image of Reg’s original offer as is required under common law contract rules. d) An unenforceable contract unless either Reg or Thelma is a merchant, as defined by the UCC, because sale of personal property contracts are valid only if one of the parties to the contract is a merchant. 8. Mary sued Don for negligence. Mary’s losses total $100,000. Under a contributory negligence system, if Mary is found to be contributorily negligent for her own injuries, what damages will Mary likely recover from Don? a) None. b) $100,000. c) $100,000 minus the percentage of fault (e.g., 20%, 60%, etc.) for which Mary was responsible. d) $100,000 minus the percentage of fault for which Mary was responsible, so long as Mary was not more than 50% responsible for the injuries.
9. Ram was walking down the sidewalk by a construction project site in a downtown area. The project was owned and operated by Modern Construction, Inc. and was surrounded by orange plastic fencing typically used for construction projects. Ram stopped to watch a metal beam being lifted by a crane on the
construction site. As the beam swung through the air, Ram thought it was going to fall and jumped forward quickly off the sidewalk and into the construction project property, falling into and smashing the orange plastic fencing. As Ram landed inside the construction project, the beam fell near Ram. The beam did not hit Ram but some rocks were thrown onto Ram as the beam fell, cutting his arm badly so that it required 35 stitches. If Ram sues Model Construction for negligence, the likely result will be that Ram will: a) Lose, because he assumed the risk as a trespasser on the construction site and trespassers can never recover damages. b) Lose, because pedestrians are always contributorily negligent in such cases involving trespassing. c) Win, because it is always foreseeable that a beam could fall on a nearby pedestrian. d) Win, if the beam fell because of Model Construction’s negligence.
10. X and Y agreed that X would sell Y his small business, including the land on which the business was situated, for $500,000. Both X and Y knew at the time the contract was formed that the business was actually worth $800,000. Is this a valid, enforceable contract? a) Yes, provided the contract was in writing, in accordance with the Statute of Frauds and the parties freely consented. b) Yes, provided the contract was in accordance with state statutory law that permits real estate sales for 40% or more below market value. c) No, because $500,000 is not valid consideration for a business worth $800,000. d) No, because X has no pre-existing legal duty to sell his business.
11. Fine Art Corp. sent a written offer to buy 10,000 pencils for a total of $10,000 from Faber Pencil Co. Both parties are merchants. Faber can accept the offer by: a) Promising to ship the pencils. b) Promptly shipping the pencils. c) Accepting the offer on Faber’s own written standard form contract. d) All of the above could be valid acceptance.
12. Ralph, a 16-year old minor, is manager for the high school football team. Ralph signed a contract to purchase alcoholic beverages from Liquormart, Inc. for the team party. This contract is: a) Void as a matter of law because it is illegal to sell alcohol to minors by state law. b) Void only if Ralph misrepresented his age and told Liquormart he was an adult. c) Valid and enforceable, but Ralph has the right to disaffirm because he is a minor. d) Valid and enforceable, if Liquormart knew that Ralph was a minor.
13. Which of the following activities may involve the use of a contract, and/or constitute a sales contract? a) Purchasing medications from a pharmacy. b) Hiring a contractor to make home repairs. c) Purchasing insurance policies from an insurance agent. d) Selling books to customers in a bookstore.
e) All of the above.
14. Fay was admitted to Global Associates, an existing partnership, as a limited partner on January, 2015. In June, 2015, a partnership debt incurred in October, 2014 came due. Fay is: a) Not liable for the debt because the debt was incurred prior to her joining the partnership. b) Only liable for the debt up to the amount of her capital contribution to the partnership. c) Personally liable only for 50% of the total debt if 50% of the other partners do not pay. d) Personally liable for the full extent of the debt if the other partners do not pay.
15. Earl, a nonmerchant, offered to sell a chair to Isaac, a nonmerchant. Earl’s house caught fire and destroyed the chair before Isaac accepted Earl’s offer to buy the chair. As a result: a) The destruction of the chair constitutes an automatic, valid revocation of the offer. b) The fire does not automatically revoke the offer, but because neither Earl nor Isaac is a merchant, the offer is revocable at any time at Earl’s option. c) Earl did not validly communicate a revocation to Isaac, so Isaac still has the option of accepting Earl’s offer; if Isaac accepts the offer, Earl must obtain a similar chair for Isaac or pay Isaac the equivalent value of the chair. d) Earl’s offer is automatically revoked by the fire, unless the offer was a firm offer.
16. CC’s Day Spa, LLC, is a member-managed limited liability company. So long as it is in accordance with state law, members can agree to apportion voting rights according to: a) Participation in management. b) Capital contributions. c) The number of members. d) Any of the above.
17. Jim and Kiley are architects and general partners of JK Designs. Jim and Kiley supervise Luc, an employee of JK Designs. As general partners of JK Designs, Jim and Kiley: a) Are not personally liable for any tort(s) committed by Kiley. b) May be personally liable for malpractice committed by Luc working within the scope of his job at JK. c) Have limited liability for any of Kiley’s acts of malpractice. d) Have no liability for any torts committed by Luc.
18. Kisha operates River Valley Soccer, an athletic equipment shop as a sole proprietorship. Taxes on the business’s income are paid by: a) No one; since it is a sole proprietorship there are no business taxes. b) Kisha as the sole owner. c) The state or federal government if Kisha holds a Small Business Administration loan acquired to start her business. d) The business entity of River Valley Soccer, not Kisha personally.
19. Assume that Virginia enacted a law prohibiting, until further notice, all grocery stores in Virginia from selling all powdered spices manufactured in, or shipped from, Maryland. This law was enacted because it was discovered that the spices recently manufactured in Maryland were infected with bacteria. Determine the constitutionality of the Virginia statute. The statute is: a) Unconstitutional; it violates grocery store owners’ substantive and procedural due process rights under the 5th and 14th Amendments because they are private businesses. b) Unconstitutional; the statute imposes an undue burden on interstate commerce. c) Constitutional; it is a valid exercise of Virginia’s police power. d) Constitutional; the statute imposes an undue burden on intrastate and interstate commerce.
20. Distinguish which of the following is an advantage of limited liability companies (LLCs) over corporations. a) Only one member of a LLC must have unlimited liability as compared with corporations in which all shareholders have unlimited liability. b) LLCs can be formed without any specific steps being taken by the owners as compared with corporations that must file Articles of Incorporation with the State. c) In most cases, a LLC can choose whether to be taxed as a partnership or corporation, as compared with corporations that are subject to double corporate taxation. d) LLCs can choose whether to sell shares publically to investors, as compared to private corporations that must sell shares publically to investors.
21. Pete, who collects antique cars, hired Ann as his agent to find and purchase a 1965 Ford Mustang on his behalf. Ann found a Mustang like Pete wanted, but Ann fell in love with the car and purchased it for herself. Which of the following illustrates Ann’s liability, if any, in her duty as agent to Pete in this situation? a) Ann has not violated the duty of loyalty to Pete; she can find another Mustang for him. b) Ann has not engaged in self-dealing because she did not purchase the Mustang with Pete’s funds. c) Ann usurped an opportunity for Pete, but has not violated the duty of loyalty to Pete by competing with Pete’s interests. d) Ann violated the duty of loyalty to Pete by competing with Pete’s interests, and has usurped an opportunity for Pete.
22. Ed hired Frankie, who is 13 years old, to buy a computer on Ed’s behalf. Which of the following identifies the legal relationship between Ed and Frankie? a) This is a valid agency relationship even though Frankie is a minor, and Ed would be bound by authorized contracts Frankie enters into on Ed’s behalf. b) This is a valid agency relationship even though Frankie is a minor, but Ed would have the option of disaffirming any contracts Frankie enters into on Ed’s behalf. c) This is a valid agency relationship even though Frankie is a minor, but Frankie would not be entitled to any payment under the terms of the agency because he is a minor. d) This is an invalid agency relationship because Frankie is a minor.
23. Mediation might be more reasonable and appropriate than a trial in which of the following situations?
a) A lawsuit challenging the constitutionality of a new state statute. b) A dispute between neighbors over a property boundary. c) An alleged theft of patio furniture from the patio of a house. d) None of the above are appropriate for mediation.
Answer questions 24-25 regarding the following scenario: Scenario: Jones, a resident of Arizona, booked reservations for a vacation at Windell Hotels, Inc. in Cabo Mar, Mexico. Windell Hotels is an international hotel chain incorporated in Delaware with hotels in North and South America; Windell Hotels has no hotels in Arizona but does advertise and book reservations for all its hotels over the Internet. While a guest in the hotel in Cabo Mar, Jones was walking across the hotel lobby, and slipped and fell on the wet marble floor that had been just washed by the maintenance staff. The staff had placed a “wet floor” sign on the lobby floor on the side wall of the lobby. Jones was taken to the nearest Mexican hospital where surgery was necessary to place a pin in his broken leg. Anxious to return home and see his regular doctor, Jones flew out of Mexico shortly after the surgery. He required two plane seats and an ambulance to meet him at various airports. His health insurance would not cover his hospital stay in Mexico as it was located outside the U.S. When back in Arizona, Jones was unable to work for 8 weeks and required another surgery to remove the pin. He also required several weeks of physical therapy.
24. Jones wants to sue Windell Hotels, Inc. in federal court for $450,000 to recover all his medical expenses in Mexico and the US; for $50,000 for the cost of the plane trip from Mexico to Arizona, the 2 plane seats and ambulance costs in various airports; $10,000 for 8 weeks of lost wages; and $50,000 for pain and suffering resulting from the injury. Can he sue in federal court? a) Yes, because Federal Court always has jurisdiction over citizens of different states.
b) No, because Federal Court does not have jurisdiction in cases that do not involve federal laws. c) Yes, because the Federal Court may have jurisdiction over citizens of different states and the lawsuit involves damages greater than $75,000. d) No, because the Federal Court has no jurisdiction over an accident that occurred in Mexico.
25. It would be easier for Jones to bring the lawsuit in Arizona state court, but he wonders if the court can get Windell Hotels to come to Arizona. Can the Arizona state court impose jurisdiction over Windell Hotels to bring the company to court in Arizona? a) No, because the subject of the lawsuit took place in a foreign country. b) No, because the corporation does not have sufficient minimum contact with Arizona to allow the Arizona court to use the long arm statute to establish jurisdiction in Arizona. c) Yes, because the Jones is a resident of Arizona and he is the plaintiff in the lawsuit. d) Yes, because Windell Hotels has sufficient minimum contact with Arizona the state to justify the court’s use of the long arm statute. Scroll down please to begin the essay portion of the exam.
Section: Section II. Essay: 9 questions/50 points Questions 1-8 = 5 pts each; question 9 = 10 pts Use the answer sheet at the end of the exam. Number each answer. DO NOT recopy questions. Answer each question in complete paragraphs; do not list or answer in phrases (points will be deducted for doing so). None of these questions can be adequately/comprehensively answered in just a paragraph, so be comprehensive, in depth in your answers, but be careful to not include irrelevant information. Points will be deducted for answers that are not well justified, not sufficiently comprehensive. Use APA in text citations, as appropriate but please do not use direct quotes. Use only classroom notes/comment and assigned reading or watching materials as resources, which is all you need to complete the exam. DO NOT use any outside, Internet resources as they are often inaccurate. Follow directions carefully. Answer all parts of each question. Be sure to directly answer the question(s) asked. __________________________________________________________________ Refer to the scenario for Multiple Choice questions 24-25 above to answer the following essay question #1 only: 1. Jones sued Windell Hotels, Inc. for negligence to recover damages for his injuries resulting from the fall in the Cabo Mar hotel. Will Jones likely be successful in the negligence lawsuit against Windell Hotels? Explain fully why or why not.
2. Clarkson and Lee did not have a contract, but Clarkson completed extensive landscaping in Lee’s yard by mistake while Lee was away on vacation. Clarkson sent Lee a bill for the landscaping service but Lee refused to pay. Determine the likely result if Clark sues Lee to recover the costs of the landscaping.
3. Racer contracted in writing to drive Owner’s one-of-a-kind, specially designed championship race car in the Miami 500 Race on July 15 for a fee of $2500. On July 1, the race car was destroyed in an accidental fire in a storage warehouse where the race car was being stored prior to the race. Owner owns no other race cars, so Owner considered the contract discharged. Racer claimed that she is still entitled to the $2500 fee because she and Owner had a valid enforceable contract. Compare and contrast the rights and obligations of Racer and Owner under the contract as of July 1.
4. Compare and contrast the rights and possible liabilities for a merchant selling goods in “As Is” condition with the rights and possible liabilities for selling goods with an express warranty stating, “This product is quality Grade A”.
5. Aaron plans to open Aaron’s Pets, a pet shop selling pets and pet supplies, and plans to hire 2 part-time employees. Aaron will invest only his own money in the business. He does not expect to make any profit for at least 2 years and to make very little profit for the next 3 years after the first 2 years. He does expect to make a profit eventually. Which form of business organization is most appropriate and easiest for Aaron to use in opening his pet store – and why? (There is only one correct answer).
6. There are extensive federal regulations governing airplanes and pilots. Assume that the state of New York passed a statute containing numerous requirements,
some conflicting with federal regulations, covering operation of airplanes and licensing of airplane pilots. If the New York state statue is challenged as being unconstitutional, what is the likely result? Describe the applicable law and rationale for your conclusion.
7. Fran, Joe, and Mike formed a general partnership to operate a flower shop called Fresher Flowers. One of Fran’s jobs is to make deliveries using the partnership truck. In one such delivery, Fran negligently ran a stop sign, striking a car driven by Peggy, causing damage to the car and injury to Peggy.
Analyze and describe (1) the personal liability of Fran, Joe, and Mike, (2) the liability of the partnership, Fresher Flowers.
8. Mark plans to open a barbeque restaurant. He can either open the business as a sole proprietorship or obtain a franchise for “Smokin’ Hot Bar-B-Q”. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of opening the business as a sole proprietorship and a franchise.
9. 10 points Leon, a bank vice president, joined Fitness Center, Inc. (FC). He signed a contract for the membership. The contract stated, among other things, an exculpatory clause that FC… “shall not be liable for any claim, demand, cause of action of any kind whatsoever for, or on account of death, personal injury, property damage or loss of any kind resulting from or related to Member’s use of facilities or participation in any sport, exercise or activity within the club premises…”
While working out at FC, Leon sustained back injuries when a treadmill on which he was walking suddenly collapsed at FC. Leon sued FC for his injuries. Discuss: a. Is the exculpatory clause in the contract valid or invalid in Leon’s case and why? b. Possible product liability claim(s) for which Leon could sue FC and why product liability claims might be applicable to this case c. Possible ordinary (non-product liability) negligence claim for which Leon could sue FC and why a negligence claim might be applicable to this case d. The likely outcome if Leon sues FC under product liability e. The likely outcome if Leon sues FC under ordinary negligence
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BMGT 364 Project Team Creation
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 For the first learning activity, you are acting as an advisor to Annie, so make sure that your writing is professional, clear, concise; something that you would present to a client or expect if you were the client. 
As these two learning activities are not specifically linked to each other, please post them separately and make sure you label them accordingly.
THEME One
Organization is the phase in which the manager allocates resources both human and capital within the organizational structure to best forward the vision and purpose of the organization.
LA1
Annie is considering amending her current organizational structure. Using your reading try to advise her on what structure might work well to help solve her project problem.
Annie currently has four leadership team members that each head up one division: rifle design, rifle manufacture, rifle customer service, and sales. They each have final decision making authority within their departments.  Annie says that she is thinking of creating an additional link in the decision train for the new project with one department head that like the others reports to the leadership team. Alternatively, should she feel the need to disband the project after the client sale is complete Annie would like to know what would happen if the fifth link were self-contained. Explain how you would allocate the resources of the company to make the new link in the train work on a daily basis? Be creative and practical think of the types of people you would need to accomplish the goal, money, resources of the business etc. Be sure to consider the various other departments and how they would interface with the project team. Alternatively, how would the link work if it were self- contained?
THEME TWO: How has technology changed the way in which the manager defines how tasks are performed and completed within the organizational structure? What happens to structure when the walls are missing? How do the tasks get complete and by whom?
LA2
Choose one of the two questions below and answer it through your readings and at least two additional sources from the Internet.
1)    How has technology changed the way in which the manager defines how tasks are performed and completed within the organizational structure?
2)    The manager’s job is to keep stability within an organization. What happens to structure when the walls are missing? How do the tasks get complete and by whom?
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BMGT 364 Case Study 3
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 CASE STUDY Mike Davis worked for one of the big outdoor sporting goods stores for more than seven years.  Although he never completed his degree, Mike took some management courses at the local community college.  The knowledge he gained from his coursework along with his own tenacity enabled him to rise into entry-level management. Although Mike enjoyed his job, he couldn’t help wondering if there was more to life.  Mike always wanted to open his own business because he wanted to be his own boss and thought he might be able to earn a decent living.
Recently, retired from a career with the school system as a PE teacher and sports coach, Mike’s Aunt Daisy was looking to fulfill her dream of having an outdoor adventure business.  She had inherited some property years back but had not done anything with the land to this point. When Aunt Daisy learned that Mike was thinking along the same lines, she determined it was time to start a business.  The two decided to go into business together and brought in Mike’s younger brother, Ethan, who was working part-time as an athletic trainer. The trio combined their savings and started hashing out a plan to use the five acres of land that Aunt Daisy had inherited.
The concept was simple…to open a business where teenagers, young adults, and work teams from local businesses could enjoy hours of outdoor fun and entertainment.  There was limited sports and entertainment for the target audience so the family decided to open a themed outdoor paint ball park, which they called Outdoor Adventure Paintball Park.  Outdoor Adventure offers customers a choice of five battlefields, each offering a different level of play.
Each field provides a unique experience for hours of enjoyment.  There is the civil war field with a simulated headquarters and trenches; an old castle, which is made of multiple levels and a tower; the woods, which offers a true woodsy battle with placement of several man-made buildings for additional cover; the village, which is a large field with a wooded section running down one side, a two story building and bunkers in the middle, with a creek running down the other side; and the hill, which contains a wooded section and a number of bunkers on a steep incline. A small store is strategically placed in a location central to the fields to eliminate the need for guests to leave the playing area.
The costs to customers vary, with rental packages starting at $25 per person. Customers may also purchase a la carte based on their individual needs. Additionally, season passes are available for a cost of $150 and birthday party packages are available for $300.  The minimum age to participate in a paint ball event is 10 years.
In addition to the five battle fields, there are six air ball fields that are formatted for 3, 5 and 7-man tournament play.  Air ball fields offer a variety of layouts that are constantly changed to keep up with the latest craze in tournament play.  Many of the fields have dedicated fill stations to eliminate the need for players to leave the field to reload.
The facility also includes a shooting gallery designed to allow individuals to sharpen their shooting skills.  The gallery contains high velocity paint guns and a variety of still and moving targets.  Players may practice aiming, have shootouts or just blast away at targets for sheer enjoyment.
Mike manages the business and spends most of his time in his office with the door closed, Ethan trains new employees and supervises paint ball events, and Aunt Daisy has oversight of the shooting gallery. The business started with three employees but has grown quickly to a staff of 20.
The venture seemed like a good idea.  The family’s passion for sports and working with youth appeared to be paying off.  There are loyal repeat customers who purchase expensive equipment and supplies from Ethan. These customers also enjoy attending extra training and information sessions. The tournaments have become popular and the local news has been covering the events.  Moreover, the business has a reputation for being a safe family friendly environment.
However, recently, Outdoor Adventure has been experiencing growing pains.  Scheduling is becoming more challenging as the activities on the field increase.  Staff is pulled from one area of the park to provide coverage in another.  Employees are starting to complain that they do not understand their job duties outside of the paint ball fields and feel they need additional training and procedures.  Additionally, a major event was missed due to double-booking.  A number of customers have expressed their displeasure with the service and, as a result, spending less time on the field.  Local businesses are not responding to special discounts for employee events.  There has been an increase in workplace mistakes but fortunately these have not resulted in serious accidents.  Customers and employees are starting to question the leadership and often ask, “How long can a business like this one last?” or “Who’s running the show?”
Mike has noticed a dip in sales and is now starting to feel they are losing control of the business.  While the two closest competitors are 30 – 45 miles away and do not offer nearly the same amenities, Mike understands that if they do not do something quickly, their customer base may decide travel to the competition.  Moreover, his passion for owning a sports-oriented business is waning.  He is concerned about the continued success of the business but the work no longer seems fun or interesting.
Aunt Daisy, on the other hand, is not interested in discussing the books and does not see any need to worry.  She is not concerned about what Mike calls “a few random incidents” and sees the dip in sales as an indication that it would be a good idea to expand the offering.  In fact, she has been presented with the possibility of forming a paint ball competing team.  She feels this opportunity is too big to pass up and wants to convince the others that it’s a good time to pursue.
    INSTRUCTIONS
You have been hired as a consultant to help Mike Davis and his family to solve the problems with his business both day-to-day and over the long term (strategically).  You will create a consultancy report that covers the four functions of management.  In creating the consultancy report, you must also demonstrate how the four functions of management are interrelated showing how issues in one function impact other functions.
In speaking with Mike, Ethan and Daisy, you already know the following about the business owners:
     failed to develop or     share a mission statement;
     failed to determine the     best way to organize resources, including personnel;
     underestimates the     importance of recruitment, job design and descriptions, and training;
     assumed that motivation     will occur naturally;
     fails to define standards     and other measurable outcomes;
     ignored negative     information;
     delayed actions to     improve organizational outcomes.
Be succinct in your writing but persuasive so that the recommendations will have positive outcomes for the business.
Students are not using buzz-word and are not defining terms using a dictionary.  Students are expected to present the material in a professional manner describing and explaining to the owners.  As a consultant, you should be secure in your presentation to Mike, Ethan and Daisy.  Avoid telling the owners that they should do this or must do that but write in an action-oriented manner.  Students are expected to make connections between the facts of the case study and concepts, theories, and ideas presented in the course material.
Step 1:  Create a Word or Rich Text Format (RTF) document.  This consultancy plan should be presented in a professional manner using single space, double-spaced between paragraphs.  The final product will be between 6-8 pages in length excluding the title page, diagrams and reference page.
Step 2:  Title page with your name, the course name, the date, and the instructor’s name.
Step 3:  Since students are probably not familiar with writing a consultancy report, the following resources have been provided to assist in writing the report.
Outline for Consultancy Report
Step 4:  In writing a case study, the writing is in the third person.  What this means is that there are no words such as “I, me, my, we, or us” (first person writing), nor is there use of “you or your” (second person writing).  If uncertain how to write in the third person, view this link:  http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/first-second-and-third-person
Step 5:  In writing this assignment, students are expected to support the reasoning using in-text citations and a reference list.  If any material is used from a source, it must be cited and referenced.  A reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa.  View the sample APA paper under Week 1 content.
Step 6:  In writing this assignment, students are expected to paraphrase and not use direct quotes.  Learn to paraphrase by reviewing this link:  https://writing.wisc.edu/Handbook/QPA_paraphrase2.html
Step 7:  In writing this assignment, students may use external resources but the majority of resources will come from the course readings with a wide array of readings used.  
Step 8:  Review the grading rubric for the assignment.
Step 9:  Read critically and analyze the case study provided under Week 5 content.   Notate the key points in the case study.
Step 10:  Create an executive summary.   Although a report must be complete when presenting to a client, the expectation is that there is an executive summary so that the client can read quickly the main features of the report.  The executive summary should be written in a way that makes the client want to read more so it must have enough information to see the potential behind the recommendations without having to read the entire report.
So you aren’t sure how to write the executive summary.  Check out this resource to help you write the summary:
How to Write an Executive Summary:  http://articles.bplans.com/writing-an-executive-summary/
Step 11:  Respond to the required elements of the assignment.  Be clear and concise in the writing and make sure the questions are comprehensively answered.
In creating the consultancy report, students will first     assess the business and identify specific areas of strengths and     weaknesses of the business as it relates to the components of the P-O-L-C.     In completing this section, do not create a heading for each element of     the P-O-L-C but write from the perspective of the consultant discussing     the strengths and weaknesses of the business;
Select a management model (class hierarchy, democratic     hierarchy, collaborative management or collective management) and explain     why the selected model is most appropriate for Outdoor Adventure Paintball     Park;
Develop roles and responsibility of the owners and     employees (Be creative in completing this task);  Discuss why     these positions are necessary to the business;
Discuss communication and the flow of decision making     in relation to the management model;
Make specific recommendations for improving the     management of Outdoor Adventure Paintball Park. Cover all aspects of the     P-O-L-C.  This area of the paper specifically addresses the areas of     strengths and weaknesses identified above and puts in place a plan for the     short and long –term success of the business;
Create a balanced scorecard that will help Outdoor     Adventure Paintball Park align its business activities to the vision and     strategy of the organization, improves communication and monitors     performance against goals;
Students are expected to show what they have learned in     the course by applying theories and concepts. Be sure to support your     reasoning.
Step 12:  Using the grading rubric as a comparison, read through the paper to ensure all required elements are presented.
Step 13: Proofread the paper for spelling and grammatical issues, and third person writing.
Use the spell and grammar check in Word as a first     measure;
Have someone who has excellent English skills to proof     the paper;
Consider submitting the paper to the Effective Writing     Center (EWC).  The EWC will provide 4-6 areas that may need     improvement. 
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BIS-155 Final Exam Practical Problems
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 Questions/Problems
Formatting and charts (TCOs 1, 2, and 3; 30 points)Adjust the widths of the columns so all data is visible.
Center the title “Music on Demand – Sales by Product” across columns A-D.
Increase the font size to 16, and change the font color to red.
Bold the column headings “Product”, “Unit Price”, “Quantity”, and “Total Sales”.
Add formulas to the Total Sales column to calculate the total sales for each product.
Add a grand total at the bottom of the Total Sales and Quantity columns.
Format grand totals so that they are easily read.
Format the numbers in the Unit Price and Total Sales columns as accounting or currency format with a dollar sign and two decimal places.  Format appropriately.
Correct spelling by using the Spell Check feature.
Create a 3-D pie chart on a separate sheet (Chart1) that displays the total sales for each product. (Do not include the grand total in the pie chart!)
Move the chart to a new worksheet titled “Chart 1”.
Make the title of the chart “Total Sales by Product”.
Place each product name and its percentage of sales at or inside its pie slice, with product names off to the right as well.
Move the Chart1 pie chart worksheet immediately after the Quest 1&2 sheet.
Save your work (CTRL+s).
Formulas, applications and statistical functions (TCOs 2, 3, 6, and 10; 30 points)Draw a box around the table at A22-B25, with a light shading color for the column labels.  In cell E18, add a formula using a lookup function that will look up the grand total in cell D18 in the table of sales and assessments in A22:B25, and display the corresponding assessment. (For example, if the grand total of $505 is displayed in cell D18, “Good” should be displayed in cell E18.)In cell E19 add the label Highest Sales. In F19 add the function formula for Maximum based on the Total Sales column. In cell E20 add the label Lowest Sales. In F20 add the function formula for Minimum based on the Total Sales column.In cell E21 add the label Average Sales. In F21 add the function formula for Average based on the Total Sales column.Place a border around the statistics data and widen columns as needed for readability. Save your work (CTRL+s).Lists, sorting, charts, and conditional formatting (Excel; TCOs 4 and 6; 40 points)Convert the list of products, unit prices, quantities, and total sales in A3:D17 into a table on the Quest 3 – Lists & Sorting sheet starting in cell A1.
Using the ‘Quest 3 – Lists & Sorting’ worksheet:
Sort the table into descending order (highest to     lowest) by Total Sales.
Apply conditional formatting to the Total Sales column     so that sales greater than $1,000 are highlighted in green.
Create a pivot table using the table data from Quest 1     & 2 on a new sheet and name it MoD-3b.  Then move it after ‘Quest     3 Lists & Sorting’.  Create a pivot showing the list of products     in alphabetical order, showing total sales by product with appropriate     currency formatting.
Create, on this same sheet, a line graph using the     sales data from the pivot table.  Add chart title and labels as     appropriate.
Save your work (CTRL+s).
Functions and Financials  (TCO’s 2, 6, and     7;  30 points)
 Using the Quest 4-Financials worksheet:
Complete the Profit and Loss Statement provided by     adding formulas (referenced shaded cell locations) and using the product     and Total Sales data already included in Quest 1 & 2.  Note: Do     not just re-key the data, but use references from the original data.
Format the Total Revenue, Expenses, and Net Income in     bold, and choose a fill color for the Net Income.
Perform a one-way analysis (i.e., Week5, iLab 6) to see     at what sales volume level MP3 player sales add at least $1,000 to net     income.  Apply conditional formatting to the options that produce at     least $1,000 in net income in the above table.
Format all the numeric data and labels on the worksheet     using consistent and business like formatting options.
Save your work (CTRL+s).
 Continue using the ‘Quest 4 – Financials’ worksheet:
Music on Demand (MoD) wants to apply for a 20-year loan     and they need to know how much the monthly payment will be with a $10,000     down payment or a $20,000 down payment on a loan of $160,000. The annual     interest rate is 3% and payment is assumed to be made at the end of the     period.
Complete the chart and calculate the monthly payment,     using an Excel function.
Secure/Protect, without a password, the Quest     4-Financials worksheet tab.
Save your work (CTRL+s).
 Group sheets and use the auto-fill to complete the      list of months in Column A and add totals for rows and columns.
 Apply formatting to column headings and merge and      center a title across row 1 for each sheet.
 Open the blank worksheet, Quest 5-Organizing Data, and      on the data tab click consolidate.
 Choose the sum function to sum the data.
 Add each worksheet to the consolidated Summary.
 As an alternative to steps 3-5 above, use 3-D      referencing to summarize the data.
 Add row and column summary totals on the Quest      5-Organizing Data Worksheet.
Analysis, Summary and Recommendation (TCO’s 8, and 9;     30 Points).
Analyze the results from Quest 5-Organizing Data worksheet and create a report/memo with the following:
 Add a Chart/Table (s) to reflect your results – or use      the chart created in step 5
 Offer management a recommendation to improve the      business based upon your analysis.
 List at least two Lessons Learned from your course      experience.
 Save and close your Excel file.
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BIS 303 ( Managing Information Technology In The Hospitality Industry )
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 BIS 303 ( Managing Information Technology In The Hospitality Industry )
 Hospitality Information Technology Overview
·         Describe the basic computer hardware, software, networks, and telecommunications used in the field of hospitality.
·         Define the changing role of hospitality in IT from control to competitive advantage.
·         Compare tools used to leverage the power of information.
 Hospitality Information Systems and Users
·         Describe the four levels of e-commerce transactions.
·         Analyze e-information and distribution systems within four business functions.
·         Compare internal property management systems with external global distribution systems.
 Cost Controls and Resource Management Systems
·         Develop point-of-sale and inventory tracking hospitality systems.
·         Demonstrate production systems and management controls.
·         Determine accounting control strategies in terms of hospitality technology investment.
 Role of IT in Strategic Planning
·         Identify marketing business strategies for external customers.
·         Contrast proactive and reactive strategic problem solving for hospitality systems.
·         Evaluate database usage in strategic planning.
·         Identify human resource business strategies for internal customers.
 Security
·         Explain standard hospitality privacy issues for the hospitality industry.
·         Describe physical plant and staff security technology for the hospitality industry.
·         Distinguish between internal and external threats to IT databases.
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BIS 221 Introduction To Computer Applications And Systems Entire Course
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 BIS 221 Week 1 Computer Purchase Paper
 Create a Microsoft® Word® document saved under the following format: Lastname Course# W1.doc Research three different brands of computers using an Internet search engine (e.g. Google TM, Bing TM, Yahoo TM, etc.). Research the benefits of information systems in the work environment. Write a 350-to 700-word summary describing the features of the different computers such as memory, processor, monitor/screen size, operating system, etc. In the summary include the following: Comparison of the price Bulleted list of the features that are most important to you in the computer description An image of the computers URL/Internet address for the computers Bold, underline, and add italics to the price of each computer Highlight the name of each computer Write a one paragraph recommendation in which you recommend the computer you would purchase based on your research. This is in addition to the summary. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
  BIS 221 Week2 Assignment Information Systems And Security
  PAPER STATUS POINTS NOT SUBMITTED 12.0 POSSIBLE
Research the importance of information systems and information security in the work environment. Write a 700- to 1,050-word summary of your research findings using Microsoft® Word® Template. Include the following in your summary using the features of Microsoft Word: Headers, footers, and page numbers Watermark document as “Draft” A Microsoft® Word® memo template A minimum of two styles An image Either a bulleted or numbered list Save the Microsoft® Word® document under the following format: Lastname InformationSystems W2.doc Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment. DISCUSS THIS ASSIGNMENT View Discussion
  BIS 221 Week 2 Assignment Ethics And Privacy In Information Security PAPER
  INSTRUCTIONS Resources: Week 2 Learning Team Collaborative Discussion Write a 350-word summary of the Learning Team Collaborative Discussion including your own personal views on ethics and privacy as they relate to information security. Save the Microsoft® Word@ document saved under the following format: Lastname EthicsPrivacy W2.doc Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
  BIS 221 Week 3 Assignment Business Budget
  Create a business budget sheet using Microsoft® Excel® . In the budget sheet do the following: Create a label called “Income” and add your monthly business income in the next cell: $42000. Add a label called “Rent” and enter the amount in the next cell: -$2000. Add a label called “Product Spending” and enter the amount in the next cell: -$20000. Add a label called “Gas” and add the amount in the next cell: -$250. Add a label called “Car Payment” and add the amount in the next cell: -$500. Add a label called “Electric” and add the amount in the next cell: -$600. Add a label called “Insurance” and add the amount in the next cell: -$500. Use the SUM function to calculate the total for all the cells. Use the Freeze option to freeze the top panes. Create a pie chart for your business income and spending. Save this document as Lastname BusinessBudget W3.xls Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
  BIS 221 Week 3 Assignment Wireless Technology Paper PAPER
  Resources: Week 3 Learning Team Collaborative Discussion Research a current article on the use of wireless technologies in the workplace. Write a 350- to 700-word summary of your selected article on wireless technology. Be sure to also include the following: Has wireless technology improved your quality of life or your work environment? Why or why not? What motivates you to use wireless technology at work or home? Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Save this document as Lastname Wireless W3.doc Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
 BIS 221 Week 3 Learning Team Collaborativ…
  BIS 221 Week 4 Assignment My Story PRESENTATION
  Create an 8- to 12-slide Microsoft® PowerPointC® presentation, including detailed speaker notes, in which you discuss your personal brand and future story. Include the following in the presentation: A biographical description of who you are (e.g. your family, where you grew up, etc.) A description of your future story (e.g. your future accomplishments, future life, etc.) A description of your dreams, goals, and where you see yourself in 5 years An explanation of how technology might help you reach your goals An explanation of the influence of social networking on your personal and professional life Include images, bullet points. a theme of your choice, and speaker notes. Save this project as Lastname MyStory W4.ppt Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
  BIS 221 Week 5 Assignment Career Connection: Social Media And Your Personal Brand PRESENTATION
  Imagine you are looking for a position in your future career. You know it is important to have your personal brand on social media. Career Services discusses the use of social media sites such as LinkedlnTM to create your personal brand and market your skills and education. You analyze the use of social media sites like LinkedlnTM to create your personal brand. Create a 12- to 16-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® including detailed speaker notes in which you translate the critical details of your future story into a Personal Brand Plan that you will present to a future employer. First define who you are, what you do, and what your strengths are. Are you the first person people turn to when they need a deadline met? Can you fix a line of software code in your sleep? Are you trustworthy and discreet? Are you cool under pressure? It’s more than just making a laundry list; you brand yourself when you livethose values. If you’re the best computer
  BIS 221 Week5 Assignment
  INSTRUCTIONS You analyze the use of social media sites like Linkedln TM to create your personal brand. Create a 12- to 16-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® including detailed speaker notes in which you translate the critical details of your future story into a Personal Brand Plan that you will present to a future employer. First define who you are, what you do, and what your strengths are. Are you the first person people turn to when they need a deadline met? Can you fix a line of software code in your sleep? Are you trustworthy and discreet? Are you cool under pressure? It’s more than just making a laundry list; you brand yourself when you live those values. If you’re the best computer programmer. admin assistant, or marketing guru in your network and everyone knows it, employers will start flocking to you instead of the other way around. Include the following in your presentation: Your name, email address, and a picture Your education (remember this is AFTER graduation) Software skills Who you serve What you do What your strengths are Save this project as Lastname Brand W5.ppt Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
  BIS 221 Week 5 Assignment Emerging Technology Paper PAPER
  BIS 221 Week 5 Learning Team Collaborative
  Resources: Week 5 Learning Team Collaborative Discussion Research an example of a new or emerging technology. Write a 350-to 700-word paper in which you discuss the uses of emerging technology in your professional life. In this paper be sure to: Identify an example of new technology. Explain how it might be applied in the work environment. Discuss the potential benefits of adding this new technology. Discuss the potential drawbacks of adding this new technology. Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Save as Last name Technology W5.doc Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment
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BIS 155 Entire Course All Labs-Quizzes And Final Exam
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 Description:
 BIS 155 ( All Quizzes Included in File )
BIS 155 Lab 1
BIS 155 Lab 2
BIS 155 Lab 3
BIS 155 Lab 4 ( Word )
BIS 155 Lab 4 (Excel )
BIS 155 Lab 4 Clary labels
BIS 155 Lab 5
BIS 155 Lab 6
BIS 155 Lab 6 Clary Course Project
BIS 155 Lab 6 Clary Project Memo Template
BIS 155 Lab 7 Clary
 ( BIS 155 Final Exam )
 Final Exam
  (TCO 1) You work for a local construction firm, “DeVry     Engineering Group” and your supervisor wants to test your knowledge and     skills with Microsoft Excel and has instructed you to develop a     spreadsheet to calculate weekly payroll for “15” employees with the     following assumptions:Note: This is a one part question.• Each     employee could have a standard hourly rate between $10.00 and $30.00 per     hour.     • Each employee qualifies to earn overtime at a rate of 1.5 of his or     her hourly rate for every hour greater than 40 hours.     • Each employee will have a standard 7.65% deduction for social     security     • Each employee will have a standard 14.00% deduction for Federal     Taxes     • Each employee will have a standard 5.33% deduction for State Taxes
Explain how you will structure and format your worksheet, including titles, column headings, and formulas to calculate payroll variables for each employee to determine “Net Pay” including and not limited to Total Hours, Gross Pay, Social Security Tax, Federal Withholding Tax, and Sate Withholding Tax.  In addition, determine how you would extract overtime hours from a calculated value of “Total Hours” using a conditional formula.
In addition, your supervisor will need this weekly payroll report on a weekly basis and instructed you to keep the payroll history of all weeks within “1” workbook but has allowed you to decide if you would rather keep the payroll running on one worksheet or by assigning a new worksheet for each week.  Using your knowledge learned in this class, descriptively explain whether you would keep all weekly payrolls in one worksheet or assigned to new worksheets by week.  Defend your reasoning’s on the approach your take based on what you have learned in this course.
   (TCO 3) You currently work for an automotive parts     supply store.  Your company is growing and is considering     expansion.  The company currently has three locations (North, South,     and Central) in one state.  Each parts supply store carries inventory     in four categories.  You have been presented with the sales figures     for the last three years for each location and inventory category by store.      Based on this information, you’re tasked with analyzing current sales for     each store by category and overall total sales by store and category.
Note: This is a four part question.
1.) Explain your approach to setting up your worksheets and organizing the data.
2.) Explain how you will visually represent the data for the total sales of the individual inventory categories for each location for the time periods shown.
3.) Explain how you will visually represent the consolidated data for the sales of all stores and all inventory categories for all time periods in one chart or graph.
4.) Once you have finished the above tasks, you plan to send the Excel workbook to your manager for evaluation.  Your manger is presenting your findings to the Board of Directors for justification for additional capital expenditures.  The visually representations need to be concise and clear by able to support the requested expenditures.  Explain how you would use the integration features of MS Office to incorporate the Excel information into other presentation media.
  3. (TCO 4) You are given a spreadsheet with daily sales numbers ordered by date from January 1st to December 31st. You have been tasked with finding the average sales of each month, then to reorder the months so they are listed in order from highest to lowest average sales.  Give a step-by-step explanation of how you will rearrange the data so you can analyze the best and worst months
  (TCO 5) You’ve just joined the staff of the XYZ Manufacturing Company (XYZ, for short). XYZ manufactures only one product, the gizmo. It comes in two sizes, the mini-gizmo and the magna-gizmo. Both are difficult to manufacture, and consequently, the company closely monitors rejected units. The company has three locations, each of which produces both the mini and the magna-gizmos. You are automating the weekly production reports so that you can easily calculate total production for the entire company each week. The mini-gizmo is priced at $3.25 per unit. The magna-gizmo is priced at $7.00 per unit. The unit cost for a reject mini-gizmo is $1.75. The cost for a reject magna-gizmo is $3.50. Respond fully to the following questions regarding this task:
 1.) The managers will e-mail their weekly reports to you on Monday of the following week. You will then produce the summary report. Explain the process for doing this. Give a sample formula to total the number of mini-gizmos produced by the entire company in a week. 2.) Each week, you will present the combined report to your boss, who wants to see both the summary and the individual sheets for each location. You want to add a header with the date and your name to each page. What is the easiest way to do this? Explain the process.
 5. (TCO 9) You have been tasked with analyzing an extremely large amount of data and to ultimately produce a report to share with the board of directors. The data is currently in a text file and has over two thousand records of data.  Explain how you would use Excel to analyze this data and organize it to prepare a written report. Be very specific on the variety of tools you would use and the steps you would go through to analyze the data and to ultimately prepare a detailed report with recommendations.
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BIS 155 Advanced PC Applications Entire Course
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Description:
 BIS 155 Week 1 iLab: Upper Saddle River Marching Band
BIS 155 Week 1 Discussion: Getting Familiar with Excel
BIS 155 Week 1 Quiz
BIS 155 Week 2 iLab: Excel’s Advanced Formulas & Functions
BIS 155 Week 2 Discussion: Formulas and Functions
BIS 155 Week 2 Quiz
BIS 155 Week 3 iLab: Alice Barr Realty Analysis
BIS 155 Week 3 Quiz
BIS 155 Week 3 Discussion: Data Analysis
BIS 155 Week 4 iLab: Create Address Labels
BIS 155 Week 4 Quiz
BIS 155 Week 4 Discussion: Excel Data Exchange
BIS 155 Week 5 iLab: Bruno s Pizza Analysis
BIS 155 Week 5 Quiz
BIS 155 Week 5 Discussion: Data Consolidation and What-if Analysis
BIS 155 Week 6 iLab: Day Care Center
BIS 155 Week 6 Course Project; Excel Project
BIS 155 Week 6 Course Project: Project Memo Template
BIS 155 Week 6 Discussion: Bringing It All Together
BIS 155 Week 7 iLab: Access Database
BIS 155 Week 7 Discussion: Database Decisions
BIS 155 Week 8 Discussion: Looking Ahead
BIS 155 Week 8 Final Exam
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BIOS 105 Wk 3 iLab Case Study: The Hard Rocking Guitar player with Complaints of Joint Pain
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 Case Study: The Hard Rocking Guitar player with Complaints of Joint Pain
 A 35-year-old guitar player comes in to the clinic with complaints of joint pain for the past few months.  He has nation-wide tour coming up next week, so he has been practicing more than usual for the past few months.  He played to sellout crowds last year, and is extremely focused on putting on the best possible show this year.  He particularly complains of wrist and palm pain after long practice sessions.  He does not generally have pain in the morning.  He is well appearing, and his general physical exam is normal.  The joint exam does not find any swelling, though his palms and wrists are tender to palpation (touch). Both wrists extend past 90 degrees (this is a perfectly normal range of motion).  The guitar player is diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome.  It is your job to do some research pertaining to carpal tunnel syndrome, and answer the following ten questions below.
  What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
What is the carpal tunnel? Which bones contribute to     the carpal tunnel?
Describe the normal possible movement of the wrist     joint.
What causes carpal tunnel syndrome?
Which structures are typically involved with carpal     tunnel syndrome?
How is carpal tunnel syndrome typically treated?
What type of activities typically aggravate carpal     tunnel syndrome?
What type of prognosis (outcome) is typical for a     patient with carpal tunnel syndrome?
What can this guitar player do in order to keep playing     his guitar and not aggravate his carpal tunnel syndrome?
If you have ever had joint pain before, how have you     treated it? What type of things brought you relief?  If you have     never had joint pain before, find someone who has and describe how they     treated it.
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BIOS 105 Week 4 iLab Case Study: Endocrine System
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 Case Study: Endocrine System
 Below is a case study presentation of a patient with a condition covered by one of the chapters you have been studying this week.  Read the case study and answer the questions below.  Some questions will ask for information not included within this chapter.  Use your course text, a medical dictionary, the Internet, or any other reference material you choose to answer these questions.
A 22-year-old college student was admitted to the emergency room after his friends called an ambulance when he passed out in a bar. He had become confused, developed slurred speech, and had difficulty walking after having one beer to drink. In the ER he was noted to have diaphoresis, rapid respirations and pulse, and was disoriented. Upon examination, needle marks were found on his arms and thighs. The physician ordered blood serum tests that revealed hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. Unknown to his friends, this young man has had diabetes mellitus since early childhood. The patient quickly recovered following an insulin injection.
  What pathological condition has this patient had since     childhood? Look this condition up in a reference source and include a     short description of it.
List and define each symptom noted in the ER in your     own words.
What diagnostic test was performed? Describe it in your     own words.
Explain the results of the test.
What specific type of diabetes does this young man probably have? Try and justify your answer.
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BIOL 301 Human Health and Disease Final Exam Answers
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  PLEASE follow the directions.
 Submit your answers (as a .doc, .docx, or .rtf) by using the table on the last page (e.g., 1.A, 2.B, 3.C, etc.) and returning only the TABLE by way of your Assignment Folder. Following the TABLE should be your ESSAY Question answers.
50 Multiple Choice Questions at 4 points each.
10 Essay Questions. Choose 2 to answer at 20 points each.
 50 Multiple Choice Questions at 4 points each. 
  Dr. Sue Mi is interested in diseases of the retina. The     field of study best suited to her interests is
physiology                 B.      anatomy                     C.  pathology                  D.  bowling
  There are numerous levels of organization in the body.     The correct order from simplest to most complex is
organ, tissue, cell, organism,     system         B.  cell,     tissue, organ, system, organism
system, cell, organ, organism,     tissue         D.  cell,     system, tissue, organ, organism
  The atomic number of sodium is 11. The sodium ion has a     single positive charge (Na+). How many electrons does the     sodium ion have?
10                  B.  11
12                  D.  More information is required to answer this question.
  The chemical category that includes fats and     cholesterol is
proteins                     B.  lipids          C.      carbohydrates        D.  solutions
  If a cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
synthesize     proteins                B.  synthesize RNA
divide                                    D.  secrete proteins
  A particular cell type specializes in breaking down     harmful by-products of metabolism. This cell type would contain very high     levels of
lysosomes B.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum     C.      centrioles                   D.  peroxisomes
  Connective tissues would probably NOT contain
fibroblasts                 B.      collagen                     C.  goblet cells                            D.  matrix
  Ms. Busch has a lump in her arm. The doctor has     determined that the lump has not spread and is derived from adipose     tissue. This lump would best be described as a
benign     lipoma                        B.  malignant sarcoma
malignant     lipoma                   D.  benign sarcoma
   Mr. Luckless is experiencing headaches as a result of     drug therapy. The headaches are an example of a(n)
iatrogenic     disease                  B.  idiopathic disease
pandemic     disease                  D.  etiological disorder
  An infectious agent composed entirely of protein is     called a(n)
prion              B.  viroid         C.      virus           D.      rickettsiae
  Mr. Munybags has erythematous flat areas on his arms     and legs that are covered with silvery scales. His father also has the     same skin condition. The most likely diagnosis is
atopic     dermatitis                   B.  psoriasis                     C.      impetigo                    D.  shingles
  Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?
ringworm                   B.      verruca                       C.  eczema                       D.  acne vulgaris
  A forensic scientist wants to identify the gender of a     skeleton based on the pelvic structure. Which of the following     characteristics would be found in a male pelvis?
a wide, rounded pelvic     opening                    B.  a long, curved sacrum
wide, flared     ilia                                             D.  a wide pubic arch
  Ms. Jones, aged 31, has been diagnosed with     tuberculosis. Lately, her joints have been inflamed. Ms. J probably has
osteoarthritis             B.  gout               C.  septic arthritis            D.  rheumatoid arthritis
  The compound that stores oxygen in muscle cells is
hemoglobin               B.  glycogen                        C.  creatine     phosphate                 D.  myoglobin
  Exercise results in
constricted blood     vessels                  B.  a decrease in the number of mitochondria
muscle     atrophy                                  D.  an increase in the resting heart rate
  The hypothalamus
initiates voluntary     movements.      B.  controls and integrates     autonomic nervous system activity.
is regulated by the pituitary gland.  D.      plays a minor role in the maintenance of homeostasis
  Ms. L has been experiencing muscle weakness. Her     physician informs her that she has abnormal antibodies attacking the     myelin sheath around neurons in her central nervous system. The most     likely diagnosis is
poliomyelitis                                      B.  multiple sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral     sclerosis         D.      peripheral neuropathy
  Difficulty in forming words would indicate an injury to     the
Wernicke area                                   B.  Broca area
auditory association     area                   D.  primary sensory cortex
  The point of sharpest vision is called the
rods               B.  fovea centralis       C.      optic     disk                   D.  cornea
  Glaucoma is associated with excess eye fluid. The     excess fluid exerts pressure on the nerve receiving visual input from the     eye, known as the
oculomotor     nerve                  B.  trochlear nerve
optic     nerve                             D.  trigeminal nerve
  Dr. Spiegel has asked you if you want to write a     50-page essay. You shake your head “no.” This motion will be sensed by the
vestibule                        B.  maculae                         C.  cristae        D.      cochlear duct
  What effect would a large increase in cortisol have on     glucagon and insulin secretion?
Both insulin and glucagon would be increased.
Both insulin and glucagon would be decreased.
Insulin would be decreased, glucagon would be     increased.
Insulin would be increased, glucagon would be     decreased.
  Diabetes insipidus results from a lack of
glucagon                        B.      aldosterone                C.  calcitonin                   D.  antidiuretic hormone
  A person with type A blood has antibodies to
A antigen                      B.  B antigen                       C.  A and B antigens                  D.  neither antigen
  A person with a hematocrit of 33% is suffering from
anemia                           B.  leukopenia                     C.  polycythemia             D.  leukocytosis
  The part of the heart capable of generating the largest     force is the
right     atrium               B.  left atrium                      C.  right ventricle            D.  left ventricle
  The heart chamber that receives blood from the lungs is     the
right     atrium               B.  left atrium                      C.  right ventricle            D.  left ventricle
  A blood cell is journeying from the left thumb to the     heart. It would probably NOT pass through the
left brachiocephalic vein                       B.  superior vena cava
left jugular vein                                     D.  left subclavian vein
  Which of the following drugs would NOT be used to treat     hypertension?
a drug that relaxes blood vessels                      B.  a drug that inhibits renin production
a diuretic                                                           D.  a drug that increases heart rate
  Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic     system?
oxygen delivery to tissues
absorption of digested fats
transport of absorbed amino acids from the intestine to     the liver
thermoregulation
  Inflammation of the lymph nodes is called
lymphedema              B.  lymphangitis              C.  lymphadenitis        D.      lymphectomy
  A substance that causes blood vessels to dilate is
interferon                      B.      complement               C.  histamine                       D.  antibody
  A process that results in antibody production by the     recipient induces a form of immunity called
active immunity                        B.  nonspecific immunity
passive immunity                       D.  immunotherapy
  At the lungs,
both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse from the blood     into the alveoli
oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide     diffuses into the alveoli
carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood and oxygen     diffuses into the alveoli
both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse from the alveoli     into the blood
  Which of the following breathing patterns would result     in the greatest increase in blood acidity?
apnea                             B.  tachypnea                      C.  hyperpnea                  D.  dyspnea
  Which of the following is the correct order of tissue     from the outermost to the innermost layer in the wall of the digestive     tract?
submucosa, serous membrane, smooth muscle, mucous     membrane
smooth muscle, serous membrane, mucous membrane,     submucosa
serous membrane, smooth muscle, submucosa, mucosa
mucous membrane, submucosa, smooth muscle, serous     membrane
  Your dog has just consumed a half stick of butter that     you dropped. Most of the nutrients in the butter will be absorbed in the     form of
amino     acids           B.      sugars        C.  glycerol and     free fatty acids         D.      nucleotides
  Which of the following is an example of a catabolic     reaction?
Free fatty acids and glycerol are converted into     triglycerides.
Starches and glycogen are converted into glucose.
Tryptophan and histidine are converted into a peptide.
Two glucose molecules are converted into maltose.
  Which situation describes the measurement of basal     metabolism?
Ms. Jones measures her energy output while jogging.
Mr. Dogwood measures his energy requirements while he     is sleeping.
Ms. Gees measures her energy output while eating     popcorn.
All of the answers are correct.
  Antidiuretic hormone
regulates acid-base balance
is secreted when water intake is too low
stimulates the production of large amounts of urine
increases bone formation
  A decrease in the rate and depth of breathing could     theoretically alleviate
metabolic     alkalosis                B.  respiratory     acidosis                C.  dehydration               D.  edema
  An active process that moves substances from the blood     into the nephron is
tubular     reabsorption              B.  tubular filtration        C.  tubular     secretion                D.  osmosis
   Materials are driven out of the glomerulus into the     glomerular capsule because of
osmotic pressure                                        B.  blood pressure
concentration gradients                         D.  active transport
  Progesterone levels are highest during
the follicular     phase                B.  the proliferative phase
ovulation                                   D.  the secretory phase
  Which of the following structures contributes the most     liquid to the semen?
seminiferous tubules             B.  epididymis
vas     deferens                              D.  seminal vesicles
  The average length of gestation in humans is
3 months                       B.  38 weeks                       C.  42 weeks                   D.  1 year
  The fertilized egg normally attaches to the
myometrium              B.  oviduct                          C.  fimbriae                     D.  endometrium
  If a person is a carrier for a particular disease,
the disease must be dominant, and the person’s genotype     must be heterozygous
the disease must be recessive, and the person’s     genotype must be heterozygous
the disease must be dominant, and the person’s genotype     must be homozygous     recessive          D.      the disease must be recessive, and the person’s genotype must be     homozygous dominant
  The ability of a particular gene to determine phenotype     can be altered by
environmental     factors       B.  gender
other     genes                                        D.  All of the answers are correct.
    BIOL 301  Final Exam   answers
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   10 Essay Questions.     Choose  2  to answer at 20 points each.
  Describe the role of the following in protein synthesis     – DNA, nucleotides, RNA, ribosomes, rough ER, and Golgi apparatus.
  List three factors that have contributed to the     increase in infectious disease, and name a disease that has been     particularly affected by each factor.
  Compare and contrast osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and     osteomyelitis.
  Huntington’s disease is characterized by a loss of     normal inhibition mediated by the basal nuclei. Predict the symptoms you     are likely to see with this disease
  Describe and discuss several common types of heart     disease.
  Name and discuss the diseases involved in chronic     obstructive pulmonary disease.
  Individuals experiencing prolonged vomiting lose a     great deal of stomach juices with the vomitus. Predict the effect this     loss will have on the pH of blood.  How will the respiratory system     respond to the change in pH.
  List and discuss six signs of chronic renal failure.
  Beginning with the first day of menstruation, describe     the events of one complete cycle, including the role of the hormones     involved.
  Differentiate among congenital, genetic, and hereditary     disorders and give several examples of each.
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BIO 103 Final Exam Guide Version 2 100% Correct Answers
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 Description:
   1.                What is the correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
  Make observations and ask a question
Analyze  the data
Develop a hypothesis
Share the results with other scientists
Design and perform an experiment to test the hypothesis
 a)    I>II > III > IV > V
b)    III > I > V > II > IV
c)    V> IV > III > II > I
d)    I> III > V >II > IV
e)    V > II > I > III > IV
 2. You have formulated a hypothesis: “Apples contain more vitamin C than oranges.”
To test your hypothesis you measure vitamin C levels in 20 oranges and 20 apples from trees that were grown in the same orchard under the same environmental conditions (temperature, rain, sunlight). This experiment was conducted twice. The control in the experiment is__________________________________.
a)    type of soil, temperature, amount of rain and sunlight in the orchard
b)    vitamin C levels
c)    oranges
d)    apples
e)    a large sample size and repeated experiment
 ***Use the following information to answer questions 3, 4,5 & 6 below***:
 A group of medical researchers investigated the effects of Drug X on lowering cholesterol levels in a group of men between the ages of 50 and 70 years old. The researchers did the following experiment and obtained the indicated results:  One group of 150 men took a tablet containing Drug X for 3 weeks – 95 of these men decreased their cholesterol levels by at least 10% (three men from this group dropped out of the study).  Another group of  150 men was given a tablet with no added Drug X for 3 weeks – 10 of these men decreased their cholesterol levels by at least 10% (two men from this group dropped out of the study).
3.    Which of the following is the best     hypothesis for this experiment?
 a)    Will drug X lower cholesterol levels in men between the age of 50 and 70 years?
b)    Drug X will lower cholesterol levels in men.
c)    Since high cholesterol levels significantly increases several health risks for men, drug X is most likely beneficial.
d)    Men between the age of 50 and 70 years will have reduced cholesterol levels if they take drug X over a 3 week period.
e)    There is no significant difference in cholesterol levels between men that take drug X and those that don’t take it.
  4.    Which of the following was the     control group in this experiment?
 a)    The amount of Drug X contained in the tablet
b)    The number of participants in each group at the end of the experiment
c)    The group of participants that received tablets containing Drug X
d)    The group of participants that received tablets that did not contain Drug X
e)    The number of participants in each group at the beginning of the experiment
 5. Which of the following is a dependent variable in this experiment?
 a)    The amount of Drug X contained in the tablet
b)    Participants that received tablets containing Drug X
c)    The average age of the participants
d)    Number of participants in each group at the beginning of the experiment
e)    Blood pressure
  6.    Which of the following is     anindependent variable in this experiment?
 a)    The amount of Drug X contained in the tablet
b)    Participants that received tablets containing Drug X
c)    The average age of the participants
d)    Number of participants in each group at the beginning of the experiment
e)    Blood pressure
   7. A chemotherapy drug affects the enzyme DNA polymerase. In which part of the cell cycle does it inhibit cell division?
a)    Metaphase
b)    S phase
c)    G1
d)    Cytokinesis
e)    Prophase
A researcher planted seeds from four types of tomatoes     (Roma, Cherry, Big Boy and Early Girl) in a greenhouse to determine which     type of tomatoproduce the largest number of tomatoes per plant. The plants     were grown for 70 days under the same temperature and light conditions.     The average results for 20 plants of each type are shown     below.   Choose the data set that demonstrates that Cherry     tomatoes produce the largest number of tomatoes per plant.
a)    Roma: 20 tomatoes, Cherry: 18 tomatoes, Big Boy: 30 tomatoes, Early Girl: 10 tomatoes
b)    Roma: 1.8lbs, Cherry: 2.8lbs, Big Boy: 2.7lbs, Early Girl: 1.0 lbs
c)    Roma: 3 cm, Cherry: 1 cm, Big Boy: 10cm, Early Girl: 7 cm
d)    Roma: 2 cm, Cherry: 10 cm, Big Boy: 7 cm, Early Girl: 6 cm
e)    Roma: 23 tomatoes, Cherry: 28 tomatoes, Big Boy: 10 tomatoes, Early Girl: 27 tomatoes
  9.    The majority of climate scientists     believe that the current change in climate is caused predominantly by ________.
 a)    an enhancement of the greenhouse effect
b)    a decreased reliance on fossil fuels for energy
c)    a thinning of the ozone layer
d)    a  melting of the polar ice caps
e)    an increase in solar radiation
              10.  Based on the following phylogenetic tree,     which of the following conclusions are *NOT* correct?  Each letter     represents a hypothetical species.
  a)    A and E share a common ancestor
b)    B is one of A’s ancestors
c)    E and D are more closely related to each other than to C
d)    C is more closely related to E than to B
e)    A and B are closely related
  11.  You are taking a cruise from California to     Hawaii. About halfway there the ship begins to sink. You are able to board     a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued.     After several days you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the     boat and drink lots of salty seawater. What happens to your body?
 a)    You throw up because sea salt is toxic to humans.
b)    You get thirstier because of osmosis.
c)    Salt diffuses into your cells, water follows, your cells start to expand and you feel bloated.
d)    Since sea water consist of 96.5% fresh water (and only 3.5% salt) you will feel much better.
e)    You get dehydrated because water is unable to cross the semi-permeable membranes of your cells.
    12.  You are spraying your garden with a pesticide     and you accidentally swallow a small amount.  You read on the package     that this pesticide inhibits ATP synthase. Should you be worried?
 a)    ATP synthase is part of the light dependent reaction in photosynthesis; this pesticide will therefore not affect humans. So don’t worry!
b)    ATP synthase is an enzyme involved in the citric acid cycle so all animals, humans included, will be affected. Call the doctor.
c)    ATP synthase found in the pesticide is a very toxic compound. Call the doctor.
d)    ATP synthase is involved in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Call the doctor.
e)    ATP synthase inhibitors will not affect humans, but there might be other toxic ingredients in the pesticide, so it is best to call the doctor to be on the safe side.
  13.  In the following chemical reaction, what is     carbon dioxide (CO2)?
12 H20 + 6 CO2     ->     1 glucose molecule + 6 O2
a)    Substrate
b)    Product
c)    Enzyme
d)    Activation factor
e)    Independent variable
     14.  Which of the following is NOTa feature of     DNA?
 a)    Adenine (A) forms a base pair with thymine (T)
b)    Complimentary strands are anti-parallel, running in opposite directions
c)    Complimentary strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between phosphate groups
d)    Nucleotides within a single strand are connected by covalent bonds
e)    All of the above are features of DNA
  15.  A man who carries a harmful sex-linked gene     on his X chromosome, will pass the gene on to _______________________.
 a)    all of his daughters
b)    half of his daughters
c)    all of his sons
d)    half of his sons
e)    all of his children
  16.  A double-stranded DNA molecule that has 22%     guanine will have __________.
 a)    28% thymine
b)    22% cytosine
c)    44% adenine
d)    26% uracil
e)    both A and B are correct
  17.  Which of the following variations could be     subject to natural selection?
 a)    A dog with short legs due to malnutrition is able to crawl into holes better than his litter mates
b)    A tree is not infested by a ground-dwelling beetle when the homeowner cuts the lower branches
c)    A hyena is born with a spotted fur pattern that allows it to hide in the grass better than his litter mates
d)    A pigeon learns than when its keeper comes near it will be fed
e)    All of these variations may be acted on by natural selection
  18.  The ability of fireflies and angler fish to     produce light is an example of convergent evolution. What can you conclude     about these two animals based on this information?
 a)    They share a recent common ancestor
b)    They are both adapted to environments low in light
c)    The ability to produce light is an ancient trait
d)    They are found in the same location
e)    All of the above
  19.  You observe the following outside your     window:  A grasshopper is munching away on a leaf when a hawk swoops     down and eats the grasshopper. What is the grasshopper in this situation?
 a)    Secondary consumer
b)    Prey
c)    Herbivore
d)    Predator
e)    Both b, c and d
  20.  Which of the following statements is *NOT*     true?
 a)    The cells resulting from meiosis are diploid and the cells resulting from mitosis are haploid.
b)    Meiosis and meiosis both starts with one cell, but meiosis ends with four and mitosis with two.
c)    Mitosis produces new cells for growth and repair, meiosis produces gametes.
d)    Mitosis goes through cytokinesis once, meiosis goes through cytokinesis twice.
e)    Cross over happens in meiosis, but not in mitosis.
  21.  In the scientific method, a hypothesis     ____________.
 a)    is a statement of fact
b)    is a proposed explanation based on observations
c)    is usually proven to be correct
d)    can only be tested once
e)    all of the above
  22.  To test a hypothesis about a given variable,     experimental and control groups are tested in parallel.  Which of the     following best explains the dual experiments?
 a)    In the experimental group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way.  In the control group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.
b)    In the control group, a chosen variable is altered in a known way.  In the experimental group, that chosen variable is not altered so a comparison can be made.
c)    In the experimental group, a chosen variable plus all other variables are altered.  In the control group, the chosen variable is altered; however, all other variables are held constant.
d)    In the experimental and control groups, two different variables are altered.
e)    Experimental and control group experiments are identical and run in parallel to get repeatable results.
  23.  Which of the following can be considered     definitions of “theory”?
 a)    A theory can be an explanation of scientific laws
b)    A theory is an integrated explanation of numerous hypotheses, each supported by a large body of observations and experiments
c)    A theory is a condensation and simplification of many data that previously appeared unrelated
d)    A theory is a prediction for new data suggesting new relationships among a range of natural phenomena
e)    All of the above
  24.  You have formulated a hypothesis that light     is necessary for seed germination. To test your hypothesis, one set of     lettuce seeds are placed in light with warm temperatures and adequate     moisture.  Another set of identical seeds are placed in the dark     under the same set of conditions.  The control in the experiment is     ___________.
 a)    seeds in the dark
b)    seeds in the light
c)    warm temperature
d)    adequate moisture
e)    germination rate
  25.  The sexually transmissible disease gonorrhea     has become increasingly resistant to treatment with antibiotics.      What is the most likely scientific explanation?
 a)    The gonorrhea bacteria learned to avoid antibiotics
b)    The gonorrhea bacteria changed  their genes when they sensed antibiotics
c)    Antibiotic-sensitive gonorrhea bacteria died out, but antibiotic-resistant gonorrhea bacteria have flourished and persisted
d)    The antibiotic increased the mutation rate in the gonorrhea bacteria
e)    Both b and d
  26.  Which statement best describes the     relationship between plants and animals on earth?
 a)    Plants produce O2 and sugars from CO2
b)    Animals produce CO2 and H2O from sugars and O2
c)    Plants produce O2 and sugars and animals produce CO2 and H2O
d)    Animals produce O2 and sugars and plants produce CO2 and H2
  27.  Think of the cell as a factory, in which the     organelles are specialized sites of production. All cells have a power     plant, the mitochondrion.  Plant cells have an additional “reactor”     for the production of usable energy. It is called the ________.
 a)    golgi body
b)    rough endoplasmic reticulum
c)    central vacuole
d)    vesicle
e)    chloroplast
  28.  What is biology?
 a)    The study of life
b)    The study of the environment
c)    The study of DNA
d)    The study of genetics
e)    The study of the earth
  29.  Which of the following groups would contain     the largest number of organisms?
 a)    class
b)    order
c)    species
d)    kingdom
e)    family
  30.  All living organisms _____________.
 a)    reproduce
b)    evolve
c)    respond to environmental stimuli
d)    have all three characteristics
  31.  Meiosis results in ______________.
 a)    2 haploid daughter cells
b)    2 diploid daughter cells
c)    4 haploid daughter cells
d)    4 diploid daughter cells
e)    6 haploid daughter cells
  32.  The plasma membrane __________________.
 a)    is the control center of the cell
b)    functions in protein synthesis
c)    functions in fat synthesis
d)    regulates the passage of material into and out of the cell
  33.  In a comparison of two solutions, the     solution with the higher solute concentration is _________________.
 a)    dynamic
b)    hypertonic
c)    hypotonic
d)    isotonic
e)    osmotic
  34.  Catalase is an enzyme found in plant and     animal cells.  Hydrogen peroxide is a harmful substance found in     cells. Catalase causes hydrogen peroxide to breakdown into water and     oxygen.  What type of molecule is catalase?
 a)    A lipid
b)    A protein
c)    A nucleic acid
d)    A carbohydrate
e)    A sugar
  35.  The pigment molecule that catches the energy     of the sunlight is ____________.
 a)    chlorophyll
b)    pyruvic acid
c)    glucose
d)    carbon dioxide
  36.  The energy of the sun is converted into     usable energy for the cell in the form of _________.
 a)    ADP
b)    ATP
c)    CO2
d)    glucose
  37.  The innermost electron shell of an atom holds     a maximum of ______ electrons.
 a)    2
b)    4
c)    6
d)    8
e)    10
  38.  The pH of the fluid in your stomach is around     pH 2.  The fluid is ____________.
 a)    acidic
b)    basic
c)    neutral
  39.  The chemical bond that results in the     transfer of electrons is a _______ bond.
 a)    hydrogen
b)    covalent
c)    polar
d)    ionic
  40.  If an acid is added to water, the pH will     ______________.
 a)    decrease
b)    stay the same
c)    increase
d)    sometimes increase and sometimes decrease
e)    become neutral
  41.  Organisms in the Plantae kingdom are ____________.
 a)    multi-cellular and autotrophic
b)    multi-cellular and heterotrophic
c)    unicellular and autotrophic
d)    unicellular and heterotrophic
e)    both unicellular and multi-cellular
  42.  You examine a cell under a microscope and you     do not see a well defined nucleus.  You conclude the cell must be     a(n) _____________ cell.
 a)    prokaryotic
b)    eukaryotic
c)    plant
d)    animal
  43.  The smallest unit of life is the _________.
 a)    cell
b)    organelle
c)    macromolecule
d)    atom
  44.  A dichotomous key is used to     ___________________.
 a)    locate organisms
b)    identify organisms
c)    divide organisms
d)    interbreed species
e)    describe plants
  45.  The control in an experiment _______________________________________.
 a)    reduces the experimental errors
b)    minimizes experimental inaccuracy
c)    allows standard comparison for the experimental group
d)    is an additional replicate for statistical purposes
e)    makes the experiment invalid
  46. The hydrophilic surface of a membrane faces:         
a) The interior of the cell
b) The interior of the membrane
c) The exterior of the cell d) Both a) and b) are correct
e) Both a) and c) are correct
  47. Plant cell walls are made of:
a) Lipids
b) Cellulose
c) Proteins
d) Chitin
e) Glycogen
 48. Cyanobacteria possess:           
a) A nucleus
b) Chlorophyll
c) A flagellum
d) No ribosomes
e) All of the above are true
 49. The following can be found on the surface of bacteria:       
a) A slime layer (capsule)
b) Fimbriae
c) Both a) and b) are true
d) Both a) and b) are false
 49. Energy is defined as:
a) ability to work
b) ability to sleep
c) ability to cook
d) ability to do nothing
e) all of the above are correct
 50. What can be found in only eukaryotic cells? 
a) ribosomes
b) plasma membrane
c) centrioles
d) DNA e) all of the above are true
 51. What can be found in only prokaryotic cells?
a) ribosomes
b) plasma membrane
c) cell wall
d) DNA
e) nucleoid
 52. A nucleus would not be found in:       
a) Fungi
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Humans
d) Tulips
e) fish
 53. The presence of a nucleus, lysosome, and chlorophyll indicates the cell is a:
a) prokaryote
b) plant
c) animal
d) bacteria
e) either plant or animal
 54. The word that is defined by “The ability of an organism to maintain relatively constant internal conditions” is:
a) evolution
b) homeostasis
c) metabolism
d) energy
e) behavior
 55. The electrons of an atom are:  
A. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom
B. found in the nucleus C. used to determine atomic number
D. positively charged E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
56. All of the following pertain to the atom  except it:          
A. has 6 protons
B. has 6 electrons
C. has 14 neutrons D. is an isotope of carbon
E. has a mass number of 14
 57. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the:           
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. protons and neutrons
E. protons and electrons
 58. Which of the following is not one of water’s life supporting properties?
A. Cohesive behavior
B. Ability to moderate temperature
C. Expansion upon freezing
D. Versatility as a solvent E. All the above are correct
 59. Cations are:        
A. subatomic particles
B. atoms that have gained electrons C. radioactive isotopes
D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions E. atoms without protons
 60. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?       
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
 61. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom? 
 A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
 62.An acid:
A. is neutral
B. releases hydroxide ions in solution
C. releases hydrogen ions in solution
D. basic
E. non-polar
 63. Which term does not belong in this list?        
A. Lactic acid
B. Vinegar (pH 3)
C. Hydrogen ion donor D. pH 10
E. Acidic
 64. A solution of pH 3 compared to a solution of pH 9   
A. is more basic
B. has no OH- ions
C. has more H+ ions D. None of the above is correct
E. All of the choices are correct.
 65. The building blocks of an enzyme are:
A. nucleotides
B. glycerol and fatty acids
C. monosaccharides
D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids
E. amino acids
66. All of the following are monosaccharides except 
A. glucose
B. glycogen
C. fructose D. ribose
E. deoxyribose 67. All of the following are lipids except 
A. cholesterol
B. starch
C. phospholipid D. wax
E. triglyceride
 68. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms           
A. 10, 5
B. 5, 10
C. 5, 5
D. 10, 10
E. 2, 1
 69. One nucleotide contains           
A. one phosphate
B. one pentose
C. one nitrogen base
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
 70. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A. Triglycerides
B. Monosaccharides
C. Polypeptides
D. Polysaccharides
E. ATP
71. All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called:   
A. catabolism
B. redox reactions
C. phosphorylation D. metabolism
E. cellular respiration
72. All of the following pertain to glycolysis except it:   
A. occurs without oxygen
B. ends with formation of pyruvic acid C. occurs during fermentation
D. it produces glucose E. involves reduction of NAD
 73. The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins:  
A. glycolysis
B. electron transport system C. Krebs cycle
D. fermentation E. oxidative phosphorylation
 74. Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called:
A. anabolism
B. phosphorylation
C. fermentation D. exergonic
E. glycolysis
  ************************************************************************************************************
  MATCHING SECTION #1
 MATCHING SECTION INSTRUCTIONS: Read all instructions carefully. Please answer all questions. Each question is worth 1 point. The Matching section (1 and 2) is worth 20 points.
 **Do not enter your answers here.** Type in the letter you select from the right column as the best answer on the Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
 Term or Concept
  Water molecule                           h
Carbon                                        e
Homeostasis                               i
Ionic     Bonding                              b
Covalent     Bonding                       c
Carbohydrate                              a
Enzyme                                       f
Acid                                             j
Base                                            g
Lipid                                             d
  Definition/Association
  energy source
two atoms sharing electrons
electron donated/received
hydrophobic
element found in all living organisms
catalyst
OH-> H+
polar
characteristic of all living organisms
H+> OH-
   MATCHING SECTION #2
 Term or Concept
  Ribosome                                                            d
Mitochondria                                                       g
Nucleus                                                               c
Golgi     apparatus                                                   a
Smooth Endoplasmatic     Reticulum                     f
Membrane                                                          j
Cell     Wall                                                                  e
Lysosome                                                           b
Chloroplast                                                          i
Cilia                                                                     h
   Definition or Association
  packaging and transport
digestion
genetic material storage
protein assembly
structural support
lipid production
glucose breakdown
movement
oxygen production
contain transport proteins and receptors
    ESSAY SECTION
 Complete all of the questions in this Essay Section
 INSTRUCTIONS: Each question is worth 5 points.The total points for this section is35 points.  Use complete sentences and cite resources.  Make sure you provide a comprehensive answer for full credit.
  **Do not enter your answers here.** Type your answers into the Answer Sheet provided by your instructor.
   You scoop up a water sample from a local pond nearby,     because you are curious about the possible microbes that might live there.     After looking at several slides that held drops of the sample, you noticed     two different kinds of cells: One kind was very small and had no separate     internal structures; the other kind was much larger, and it contained     several kinds of internal structures that were physically different from     each other. Please name each cell and briefly describe their overall     similarities and differences.
The first cell that is described is more than likely going to be a basic plant cell like an algae or similar cell. The second cell that is described will more than likely be an animal cell, it could perhaps be a skin cell of a fish or frog. There are many differences between these two cells, but there are also many similarities. One of the seemingly very big differences is the irregular shape of the larger animal cell; it also seems to not have a cell wall. Some of the similarities are things like the cytoplasm, ER, Ribosomes, and Mitochondria.
   PKU (phenylketonuria) is an enzyme deficiency disease     that only develops in individuals who are homozygous recessive for that     gene. An individual with PKU has parents that do not have this disease.     What is the parents’ genotype for the gene responsible for PKU? What is the     probability that they may have another child with PKU? How many future     children of the affected individual will be carriers? Explain your     answers.
Heterozygous Dominant
One child will be a non carrier, one in four will have PKU and 2 children will carry the gene without expression of the disease. This can be viewed in a basic pungent square.
R         r
R         RR       Rr
r           Rr        rr
   Humans share 99% of their genes with chimpanzees, 90%     with mice, 50% with fruit flies, and 37% with celery. Please explain the     evolutionary significance of these data.
 Given an evolutionist theory that we all evolved from the first form of life it would make sense that we would all share some type of DNA similarities. If Humans are simply just mice which have evolved, we must still have some of the mouse’s DNA. It would only make sense that as you progress down the chain that you would find similarities between the two parties as you go down the line. If Fruit flies started before mice, then it would make sense for them to share a large percentage of their DNA together.
   Describe the major land biome where you live. How have     human activities changed the landscape and how has this affected native     species? Include specific examples.
Chaparral biome (Southern Calfornia)(my home). Native vegetation would be “scrub brush” and “scrub oak.” Most of the wilderness has been replaced with “urban savanna” — pavement with some lawns and whatever people have in their yards. Some of the not-yet-urbanized areas have been replaced with nonnative grass, and maintained that way by fires. There are also long time vacant lots. Most of these have eucalyptus (from Australia) and palm trees (that are also not native here).Introduced animal species have displaced many native animal species. The introduced species include people, dogs, cats, red-masked Conures, Argentine ants, peacocks The displaced include birds of prey, bats, deer, bears, cougars. Some animals can coexist with people. These include coyotes, opossums, skunks, pocket gophers.
   The habitat of one species of tropical fish is red     coral reefs.  The large majority of the fish in this population are     red. A few individual fish carry a mutation that prevents the production     of the red pigment; as a result these individual fish are white. The     temperature of the ocean where these fish live gets warmer and warmer over     a 10 year period, and as a result the coral is bleached and turns white.     Use what you have learned about natural selection to explain how this     bleaching event may have affected the evolution this fish population (not     including possible direct effects of warmer temperatures on the fish).     Include the following terms in your explanation: differential     reproduction, beneficial trait, allele frequency, selection pressure,     evolution.
   5.Alternative
At the beginning of the spring, Dr. Betty Burner notices that there is an equal distribution of long and short stemmed the dandelions in her backyard.  By the end of the summer she notices that the majority of the dandelions have short stems.  This observation is an example of what biological principle?  Develop a hypothesis as to why there was an increase in the proportion of the short stemmed dandelions within the population.
  The principal has to do with biological natural selection. The plants that have the best environment are the plants that will thrive. Perhaps the explanation is that in the beginning of the spring Dr. Betty Burner wasn’t mowing the weeds in the front yard so there was an equal distribution of the stems among the yard. Later in the spring though, Dr. Betty then mows her lawn and interrupts the natural flow of the way things would be. This is a very simple explanation of why the biological environment is being affected. Another explanation could be that a type of weed poison that her or her neighbor is using is only meant to kill long stemmed weeds. Either way it is the introduction of something new into the environment which caused this uneven distributive effect.
     Use what you have learned about energy transfer in food     chains and the second law of thermodynamics to explain why it is an     environmentally good choice to eat a plant based diet. Include the     following terms in your answer: producer, herbivore, omnivore, trophic     level, resources and energy
The transfer of energy is never 100% efficient. Energy is never created nor destroyed but its transfer can be inefficient. Animals in the first trophic level would be herbivores. Their consumption of plant matter provides the energy for the production of protein and the animals growth and maintenance. As a plant eater its source of energy is quite cast given the proper environment. An omnivore has increased diversity based on diet and can therefore occupy environments which would be inhospitable to a herbivore.
  You have read that inorganic fertilizers contribute to     water pollution and would like to make a switch from inorganic fertilizers     to organic compost in your vegetable garden. A friend graciously gives you     a truck load of his compost. As a good researcher and critical thinker you     are not convinced that organic compost will yield the same results as the     inorganic fertilizer you have used for years with good results. To draw     your own conclusion based on scientific evidence you decide to conduct an     experiment in your garden. State a good hypothesis, design an experiment     (include test subjects, sample size, control(s), dependent and independent     variables, type of data collected) and hypothetical results/conclusion.     Does your conclusion support the hypothesis?
 For my experiment I would start by creating two separate gardens, the first garden would be my control group which uses inorganic fertilizer. The second group would be my test group which would use organic fertilizer. I would create two separate gardens containing the same plants where I would test whether or not the garden with the organic fertilizer responded in the same way as the garden without the inorganic fertilizer. I would hypothesize that the garden with the organic fertilizer wouldn’t grow as good as the garden with the inorganic fertilizer. After several weeks I would test different vegetable sizes, colors, and overall health of all plants. My hypothetical conclusion would be that although not as good as the inorganic fertilizer the organic fertilizer still did a fantastic job. This would support my original hypothesis, but prove that organic fertilizer is a viable replacement for inorganic fertilizer.
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BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 4 Examination
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 BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 4 Exam
  The aggregate plan gets input or feedback from which of     the following areas?
engineering
finance, marketing and human resources
the master production schedule
procurement, production and general management
All of the above.
  Which portion of the master production schedule is     normally fixed, frozen or firm?
the entire schedule
only the aggregate schedule
only the middle of the schedule
only the near-term portion
only the far-term portion
  In continuous (stock-to-forecast) operations, the     master production schedule is usually expressed in terms of     _______________.
end items
modules
kits
customer orders
warehouse orders
  In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master     production schedule is usually expressed in
_______________.
end items
modules
kits
customer orders
warehouse orders
  A document calls for the production of 50 small garden     tractors in week 1, 50 small garden tractors and 100 riding mowers in week     2, 100 riding mowers and 200 garden utility carts in week 3 and 100 riding     mowers in week 4. This document is most likely a(n) _______________.
net requirements document
resource requirements profile
aggregate plan
master production schedule
Wagner-Whitin finite capacity document
     The _______________ is the input to material     requirements planning which lists the assemblies, subassemblies, parts and     raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished product.
bill of material
master production schedule
inventory records
assembly time chart
net requirements chart
  A bill of material lists the _______________.
times needed to perform all phases of production
production schedules for all products
components, ingredients and materials required to     produce an item
operations required to produce an item
components, ingredients, materials and assembly     operations required to produce an item
  Forward scheduling _______________.
begins with a delivery date, then offsets each     operation one at a time, in reverse order
is well suited where the supplier is usually able to     meet precise delivery dates
tends to minimize work-in-process inventory
assumes that procurement of material and operations     start as soon as requirements are known
produces a schedule only if it meets the due date
  Scheduling is rather straightforward in product-focused     facilities because _______________.
kanban automates the scheduling of the assembly line
demand is reasonably stable and capacities, set-up     times and run times are generally known
assembly line balancing assures the highest possible     production efficiency
finite capacity scheduling has made MRP much more realistic
All of the above are true.
  Which file contains important information regarding an     item’s flow through the shop?
item master file
work-center master file
control files
routing file
None of the above provides information regarding an     item’s flow through the shop.
  Which of these is not part of the planning files of a     production planning and control system?
a progress file
a work-center master file
an item master file
a routing file
All of the above are all part of the planning files.
    Which of the following files tracks work order     progress?
work-center master files
routing files
item master files
control files
None of the above tracks work order progress.
  The production database containing information about     each of the components that a firm produces or purchases is the     _______________.
routing file
work-center master file
control file
item master file
None of the above.
  Which of the following is not one of the Seven Wastes?
overproduction
transportation
assignment
defective product
motion
  The 5Ss ________________.
have the “flavor” of a housekeeping list
are a checklist for lean operations
have become a list of seven items in American practice
can be used to assist with necessary changes in     organizational culture
All of these are true.
  The list of 5Ss, although it looks like a housekeeping     directive, supports lean production by
________________.
identifying non-value items and removing them in the     “sort/segregate” item
reducing inventory in the “standardize” item
increasing variability through standardized procedures     in the “standardize” item
eliminating wasted motion through ergonomic studies in     the “support” item
building good safety practices in the “shine/sweep”     item
  Concerning relationships with suppliers, which of the     following combinations is critical to the success of JIT?
close relationships with trust
close relationships with skepticism
distant relationships with trust
distant relationships with skepticism
None of the above.
  Which one of the following is not a benefit of the     implementation of JIT?
cost reduction
variability increase
rapid throughput
quality improvement
rework reduction
  If the goals of JIT partnerships are met, which of the     following is a result?
For incoming goods, receiving activity and inspection     are outsourced.
In-transit inventory falls as suppliers are located     closer to facilities.
The number of suppliers increases.
In-plant inventory replaces in-transit inventory.
All of the above are consequences of meeting the JIT     partnership goals.
  Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours     each. One failed at 20 hours; all others completed the test. FR(%) is     _______________ and MTBF is ________________.
10%; 1/1820
90%; 1/1820
10%; 1820 hours
10%; 1980 hours
cannot calculate from information provided
  Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours     each. One failed at 50 hours; all others completed the test. FR(%) is     _____________ and FR(N) is _______________.
10%; 1/1850
10%; 1/2000
25%; 1850 hours
90%; 1/2000
Indeterminate; no standard deviation is given.
  Ten high-technology batteries are tested for 200 hours     each. One failed at 20 hours, another failed at 140 hours and all others     completed the test. FR(%) is _______________ and MTBF is ________________.
20%; 880 hours
10%; 1980 hours
20%; 1760 hours
80%; 920 hours
cannot calculate from information provided
  MTBF measures the average _________________.
calendar time between failures
operating time between failures
number of failures per unit time
number of operations between failures
downtime per breakdown
  A system is composed of four parts, J, K, L and M. All     four must function for the system to function. The four component     reliabilities are .99, .98, .992 and .998. The designers are considering     putting a .80 reliable backup at K. This backup will change the system     reliability from ______________ to ________________.
0.9762 to 0.9605
0.9605 to 0.9762
0.9605 to some smaller value
cannot be determined
None of the above.
  Suppose that a process is comprised of multiple components,     each having a 75% success rate. What is the change in reliability going     from a series layout to a parallel layout if the process has 5 components?
0%
100%
76.2%
-76.2 %
unable to determine
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BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 3 Examination
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 BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 3 Exam
  The behavioral approach to job design that involves     giving the worker a larger portion of the total task is job     _______________.
enlargement
enrichment
enhancement
rotation
involvement
  When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she     wishes to utilize, his/her job is characterized by _______________.
skill variety
job identity
job significance
feedback
autonomy
  Which of the following terms implies an increase in     responsibility and control in the vertical direction?
job rotation
job enrichment
job re-design
job enlargement
job satisfaction
  Which of the following statements describes job rotation?
The job contains a larger number of similar tasks.
The job includes some planning and control necessary     for job accomplishment.
The operator works on different shifts on a regular     basis.
The operator’s schedule is flexible.
The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one     type of CNC machine to the other.
  The difference between job enrichment and job     enlargement is that ______________.
enlarged jobs involve vertical expansion while enriched     jobs involve horizontal expansion
enriched jobs enable an employee to do a number of     boring jobs instead of just one
job enlargement is more psychologically satisfying than     job enrichment
job enrichment is suitable for all employees, whereas     job enlargement is not
enriched jobs involve vertical expansion while enlarged     jobs involve horizontal expansion
  Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.10 and     the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time?
4.5 hours
4.9 hours
5.1 hours
5.6 hours
50.0 hours
A job characterized by _______________ allows a worker     to use his/her dexterity, physical strength and skills to do his/her work.
feedback
skill variety
job identity
job significance
autonomy
  Outsourcing ______________.
transfers traditional internal activities to outside     vendors
utilizes the efficiency which comes with specialization
lets the outsourcing firm focus on its key success     factors
None of the above are true of outsourcing.
All of the above are true of outsourcing.
  The transfer of some of what are traditional internal     activities and resources of a firm to outside vendors is ______________.
a standard use of the make or buy decision
not allowed by the ethics code of the Supply Management     Institute
offshoring
outsourcing
keiretsu
  The Institute for Supply Management ________________.
establishes laws and regulations for supply management
is an agency of the United Nations charged with     promoting ethical conduct globally
publishes the principles and standards for ethical     supply management conduct
prohibits backward integration into developing     economies
All of the above are true.
  In supply-chain management, ethical issues     ______________.
are particularly important because of the enormous     opportunities for abuse
may be guided by company rules and codes of conduct
become more complex the more global the supply chain
may be guided by the principles and standards of the     Institute for Supply Management
All of the above are true.
  Which one of the following is not a supply-chain     strategy?
negotiation with many suppliers
vertical integration
keiretsu
short-term relationships with few suppliers
virtual companies
   A disadvantage of the “few suppliers” strategy is     _______________.
the risk of not being ready for technological change
the lack of cost savings for customers and suppliers
possible violations of the Sherman Antitrust Act
the high cost of changing partners
All of the above are disadvantages of the “few     suppliers” strategy.
  In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order     doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will     _______________.
increase by about 41%
increase by 100%
increase by 200%
increase, but more data is needed to say by how much
either increase or decrease
  In the basic EOQ model, if D=6000 per year, S=$100     andH=$5 per unit per month, then the economic order quantity is     approximately _______________.
24
100
141
490
600
  The two most basic inventory questions answered by the     typical inventory model are _______________.
timing and cost of orders
quantity and cost of orders
timing and quantity of orders
order quantity and service level
ordering cost and carrying cost
  Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it     ______________.
makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to     management
does not require the detailed records necessary when annual     physical inventory is used
does not require highly trained people
allows more rapid identification of errors and     consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory
does not need to be performed for less expensive items
  Which of the following is an element of inventory     holding costs?
housing costs
material handling costs
investment costs
pilferage, scrap and obsolescence
All of the above are elements of inventory holding     cost.
  Most inventory models attempt to minimize _______________.
the likelihood of a stockout
the number of items ordered
total inventory based costs
the number of orders placed
the safety stock
  Top executives tend to focus their attention on which     type of forecasts?
short-range
medium-range
long-range
weather
the forecast for the next day’s absentee levels
  Which of the following would most likely fall under the     scope of only an operations manager?
research and development
new product plans
capital investments
facility location and expansion
setting inventory levels
  Disaggregation _______________.
breaks the aggregate plan into greater detail
transforms the master production schedule into an     aggregate plan
calculates the optimal price points for yield     management
converts product schedules and labor assignments to a     facility-wide plan
is an assumption required for the use of the     transportation model in aggregate planning
  Aggregate planning would entail which of the following     production aspects at BMW for a 12 month period?
number of cars with a hi-fi stereo system to produce
number of two-door vs. four-door cars to produce
number of green cars to produce
total number of cars to produce
b, c, and d are correct.
  What directly results from disaggregation of an     aggregate plan?
a master production schedule
priority scheduling
a transportation matrix
a capacity-demand matrix
detailed work schedules
    Dependence on an external source of supply is found in     which of the following aggregate planning strategies?
varying production rates through overtime or idle time
subcontracting
using part-time workers
back-ordering during high demand periods
hiring and laying off
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BAM 421 Operations Management Unit 2 Examination
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 BAM 421 Operations Management Unit Exam 2
  The analysis tool that helps determine what products to     develop, and by what strategy, by listing products in descending order of     their individual dollar contribution to the firm is
_______________ analysis.
  In which stage of the product life cycle should product     strategy focus on improved cost control?
  _______________ is used to rank a company’s products to     determine which products represent the best use of the firm’s resources,     or, perhaps, to determine which products are to be eliminated.
  Which of the following represents an opportunity for     generating a new product?
  What percentage of sales from new products is     indicative of industry leaders?
   Which of the following is not one of the major     categories of costs associated with quality?
  All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a     result of better quality EXCEPT _______________ costs.
  Quality can improve profitability by reducing costs.     Which of the following is not an aspect of reduced costs by quality     improvements?
  Which of the four major categories of quality costs is     particularly hard to quantify?
  Which of the following statements is NOT true?
   Frito-Lay is to _____________ focus as Harley Davidson     is to _____________ focus.
  One of the similarities between repetitive focus and     mass customization is _____________.
  Flexible equipment with rapid changeovers is most     closely associated with which approach?
  Swift movement through the facility is typical of goods     in which approach?
  High fixed costs and low variable costs are typical of     which approach?
  Instead of comparing the salaries of Detroit     autoworkers to foreign autoworkers to determine if Union labor prices are     the cause of Detroit’s financial woes, which of the following should be     used?
    The reason fast food restaurants often are found in     close proximity to each other is ______________.
  Currency risk is based on what assumption?
  Governmental attitudes toward issues such as private     property, intellectual property, zoning, pollution and employment     stability may change over time. The term associated with this phenomenon     is _____________ risk.
  A location decision for an appliance manufacturer would     tend to have a(n) _____________.
  Slotting fees _____________.
  Which of the following is not a retail layout practice?
   What is the primary reason why retailers tend to locate     high-draw items around the periphery of the store?
  The fixed-position layout would be most appropriate in     which of the following settings?
  For which of the following operations would a     fixed-position layout be most appropriate?
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