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Test Bank Chemistry Atoms 1st Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
Banks And Solutions Manuals, Course,
Assignments, Discussions, Quizzes, Exams,
Contact us At: [email protected]
Chapter 1: Chemistry: The Science of Change
1.
What is a unifying principle that explains a body of experimental observations?
A) Law B) Hypothesis C) Theory D) Phenomena E) Prediction
Ans: C Difficulty: Easy
2.
What is defined as a tentative explanation for observations that are made that result in the formulation of this concept?
A) Law B) Hypothesis C) Theory D) Phenomena E) Prediction
Ans: B Difficulty: Easy
3.
What is term used for findings that are summarized based on a pattern or trend?
A) Law B) Hypothesis C) Theory D) Phenomena E) Prediction
Ans: A Difficulty: Easy
4.
Which of the following activities is not a part of good science?
A)
Proposing a theory
D)
Designing experiments
B)
Developing a hypothesis
E)
Indulging in speculation
C)
Making quantitative observations
Ans: E Difficulty: Easy
5.
Which one of the following is a "substance" in the sense of the word as used in your textbook?
A) Air B) Tap water C) Sea water D) Water E) Toothpaste
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
6.
Which of the following cannot be separated into a simpler substance by chemical means?
A)
Element
D)
Homogeneous mixture
B)
Emulsion
E)
Heterogeneous mixture
C)
Compound
Ans: A Difficulty: Medium
7.
If a liquid contains 60% sugar and 40% water throughout its composition then what is it called?
A)
Solute
D)
Heterogeneous mixture
B)
Compound
E)
Solvent
C)
Homogeneous mixture
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
8.
Which of the following does not have a uniform composition throughout?
A)
Element
D)
Heterogeneous mixture
B)
Compound
E)
Solvent
C)
Homogeneous mixture
Ans: D Difficulty: Easy
9.
Which of the following is not an S.I. base unit?
A) Meter B) Ampere C) Second D) Gram E) Kelvin
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
10.
The S.I. base unit of mass is
A) mg B) g C) kg D) metric ton E) lb
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
11.
The S.I. prefix mega- (M) means
A) 10-6 B) 10-3 C) 103 D) 106 E) 109
Ans: D Difficulty: Easy
12.
The SI prefixes milli and mega represent, respectively:
A)
106 and 10-6
D)
10– 3 and 109
B)
10– 3 and 106
E)
10– 6 and 10– 3
C)
103 and 10– 6
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
13.
How many micrograms are in 65.3kg?
A)
0.653 mg
D)
6.53 ´ 10-8 mg
B)
6.53 ´ 107 mg
E)
6.53 ´ 1010 mg
C)
6.53 ´ 104 mg
Ans: E Difficulty: Difficult
14.
A dose of medication was prescribed to be 35 microliters. Which of the following expresses that volume in centiliters?
A)
3.5 ´ 105 cL
D)
3.5 ´ 10-4 cL
B)
3.5 ´ 104 cL
E)
3.5 ´ 10-3 cL
C)
3.5 cL
Ans: E Difficulty: Difficult
15.
How many milliliters is 0.0055 L?
A) 0.55 mL B) 5.5 mL C) 0.5 mL D) 0.0000055 mL E) 182 mL
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
16.
How many hertz is 600.11 MHz?
A)
6.0011 ´ 10-4 Hz
D)
6.0011 ´ 10-2 Hz
B)
60.011 Hz
E)
6.0011 ´ 108 Hz
C)
6.0011 ´ 106 Hz
Ans: E Difficulty: Medium
17.
The distance between carbon atoms in ethylene is 134 picometers. Which of the following expresses that distance in meters?
A)
1.34 ´ 10-13 m
D)
1.34 ´ 10-7 m
B)
1.34 ´ 10-12 m
E)
1.34 ´ 10-6 m
C)
1.34 ´ 10-10 m
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
18.
Which of these quantities represents the largest mass?
A)
2.0 ´ 102 mg
D)
2.0 ´ 102 cg
B)
0.0010 kg
E)
10.0 dg
C)
1.0 ´ 105 mg
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
19.
The mass of a sample is 550 milligrams. Which of the following expresses that mass in kilograms?
A)
5.5 ´ 108 kg
D)
5.5 ´ 10-6 kg
B)
5.5 ´ 105 kg
E)
5.5 ´ 10-1 kg
C)
5.5 ´ 10-4 kg
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
20.
The average distance between the Earth and the Moon is 240,000 miles. Express this distance in kilometers. (1 mi = 1609 m)
A)
6.1 ´ 105 km
D)
1.5 ´ 105 km
B)
5.3 ´ 105 km
E)
9.4 ´ 104 km
C)
3.9 ´ l05 km
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
21.
How many inches are in 382.5 cm? (1 in = 2.54 cm)?
A) 150.6 in B) 6.641 ´ 10-3 in C) 151 in D) 971.6 in E) 972 in
Ans: A Difficulty: Medium
22.
How many cubic inches are in 1.00 liter? (1 in = 2.54 cm)
A) 61.0 in3 B) 155 in3 C) 394 in3 D) 1.64 ´ 104 in3 E) none of them
Ans: A Difficulty: Difficult
23.
Convert 500. milliliters to quarts. (1L = 1.06 qt)
A) 1.88 qt B) 0.472 qt C) 0.528 qt D) 4.72 ´ 105 qt E) 5.28 ´ 105 qt
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
24.
Given that 1 inch = 2.54 cm, 1 cm3 is equal to
A) 16.4 in3 B) 6.45 in3 C) 0.394 in3 D) 0.155 in3 E) 0.0610 in3
Ans: E Difficulty: Difficult
25.
A large pizza has a diameter of 15 inches. Express this diameter in centimeters. (1in = 2.54cm)
A) 38 cm B) 24 cm C) 18 cm D) 9.3 cm E) 5.9 cm
Ans: A Difficulty: Medium
26.
The average distance between the Earth and the Moon is 240,000 miles. Express this distance in meters. (1mi = 1609m)
A)
6.1 ´ 105 m
D)
1.5 ´ 105 m
B)
5.3 ´ 105 m
E)
9.4 ´ 104 m
C)
3.9 ´ 109 m
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
27.
What is the volume in milliliters of a 32.0 oz can of juice? (1 fl oz = 29.6 mL)
A) 1.08 mL B) 947 mL C) 0.925 mL D) 0.95 mL E) 1.1 mL
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
28.
How many mm3 are in 16.7cm3?
A)
1.67 ´ 10-5 mm3
D)
1.67 ´ 104 mm3
B)
1.67 ´ 10-8 mm3
E)
1.67 ´ 10-4 mm3
C)
1.67 ´ 107 mm3
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
29.
A patient in the hospital is running a temperature of 39.5°C, what is this in Fahrenheit?
A) 99°F B) 101.3°F C) 102.4°F D) 103.1°F E) 104°F
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
30.
If normal body temperature is 98.6 °F then what is this in Celsius?
A) 34°C B) 35.5°C C) 36.4°C D) 37°C E) 38.7°C
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
31.
Express 122°F in °C.
A) 50.0°C B) 64.4°C C) 67.8°C D) 162.0°C E) 219.6°C
Ans: A Difficulty: Medium
32.
The boiling point for liquid helium is 4 K, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
A) –452.5°F B) –498.9°F C) –237.2°F D) 131.8°F E) 530.9°F
Ans: A Difficulty: Difficult
33.
If the temperature is 38°F then what is the temperature in Kelvin?
A) 3.33 K B) 100.4 K C) 276.5 K D) 311.15 K E) 235.15 K
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
34.
Dry ice (carbon dioxide) changes from a solid to a gas at –78.5°C. What is this temperature in °F?
A)
–173°F
B)
–12.6°F
C)
–109°F
D)
–75.6°F
E)
none of them are within 2°F of the right answer
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
35.
The boiling point for liquid nitrogen is 77 K, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
A) –126.8°F B) –288.8°F C) –321.1°F D) 176.8°F E) 662.3°F
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
36.
Acetone, which is used as a solvent and as a reactant in the manufacture of Plexiglas®, boils at 56.1°C. What is the boiling point in degrees Fahrenheit?
A) 159°F B) 133°F C) 101°F D) 69.0°F E) 43.4°F
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
37.
Isopropyl alcohol, commonly known as rubbing alcohol, boils at 82.4°C. What is the boiling point in Kelvin?
A) 387.6 K B) 355.6 K C) 323.6 K D) 190.8 K E) -190.8 K
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
38.
Acetic acid boils at 244.2°F. What is its boiling point in degrees Celsius?
A) 382.0°C B) 167.7°C C) 153.4°C D) 117.9°C E) 103.7°C
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
39.
What is the volume of a container that contains 14.3 g of a substance having a density of 0.988 g/cm3?
A) 14.1 cm3 B) 0.0691 cm3 C) 14.5 cm3 D) 141 cm3 E) 691 cm3
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
40.
If you have a graduated cylinder containing 15.5 mL and this volume changes to 95.2 mL after a metal with a mass of 7.95g is dropped into the graduated cylinder then what is the density of this metal?
A)
0.0835 g/mL
D)
10.0 g/mL
B)
0.513 g/mL
E)
9.97 ´ 10-2 g/mL
C)
0.0718 g/mL
Ans: E Difficulty: Difficult
41.
The density of mercury, the only metal to exist as a liquid at room temperature, is 13.6 g/cm3. What is that density in pounds per cubic inch?
(1 in = 2.54 cm; 1 lb = 454 g)
A)
849 lb/in3
D)
0.491 lb/in3
B)
491 lb/in3
E)
1.83 ´ 10-3 lb/in3
C)
376 lb/in3
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
42.
Radio waves travel at the speed of light which is 3.00 ´ 108 m/s. How many minutes does it take for a radio message to reach Earth from Saturn if Saturn is 7.9 ´ 108 km from Earth?
A)
4.4 ´ 10 –2 min
D)
44 min
B)
1.6 ´ 105 min
E)
2.6 min
C)
4.0 ´ 1015 min
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
43.
The speed needed to escape the pull of Earth's gravity is 11.3 km/s. What is this speed in mi/h? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A)
65,500 mi/h
D)
1,090 mi/h
B)
25,300 mi/h
E)
5.02 ´ 10-3 mi/h
C)
18,200 mi/h
Ans: B Difficulty: Difficult
44.
Radio waves travel at the speed of light which is 3.00 ´ 108 m/s. How many kilometers will radio messages to outer space travel in exactly one year?
A)
9.46 ´ 1015 km
D)
9.46 ´ 1012 km
B)
7.30 ´ 108 km
E)
3.33 ´ 10 – 3 km
C)
7.10 ´ 1010 km
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
45.
The diameter of Earth is 12.7 Mm. Express this diameter in centimeters.
A)
1.27 ´ 105 cm
D)
1.27 ´ 108 cm
B)
1.27 ´ 106 cm
E)
1.27 ´ 109 cm
C)
1.27 ´ 107 cm
Ans: E Difficulty: Difficult
46.
Some molecules move with speeds approaching the "escape velocity" from Earth, which is 7.0 miles per second. What is this speed in cm/h? (1 mi = 1609 m)
A)
313 cm/h
D)
1.1 ´ 106 cm/h
B)
4.1 ´ 105 cm/h
E)
1.6 ´ 109 cm/h
C)
4.1 ´ 109 cm/h
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
47.
The city of Los Angeles is now approximately 2400 miles south of Alaska. It is moving slowly northward as the San Andreas fault slides along. If Los Angeles is to arrive near Anchorage, Alaska, in 76 million years, at what average rate will it have to move in mm per month? (1 mi =1609 m)
A)
2.0 ´ 10 – 10 mm/mo.
D)
9.5 mm/mo.
B)
6.6 ´ 10 – 6 mm/mo.
E)
51 mm/mo.
C)
4.2 mm/mo.
Ans: C Difficulty: Difficult
48.
Which of the following speeds is the greatest? (1 mi = 1609 m)
A)
40 mi/h
D)
0.74 km/min
B)
2.0 ´ 105 mm/min
E)
400 m/min
C)
40 km/h
Ans: A Difficulty: Difficult
49.
Iron has a density of 7.87 g/cm3. What mass of iron would be required to cover a football playing surface of 120 yds ´ 60 yds to a depth of 1.0 mm? (1 inch = 2.54 cm)
A) 76 kg B) 47 Mg C) 7.6 ´ 105 g D) 4.7 ´ 108 g E) 1.9 ´ 107 g
Ans: B Difficulty: Difficult
50.
The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium is 1.2 g. Calcium carbonate contains 12.0% calcium by mass. How many grams of calcium carbonate are needed to provide the RDA of calcium?
A) 0.10 g B) 0.14 g C) 1.2 g D) 10 g E) 14 g
Ans: D Difficulty: Difficult
51.
One of the common intravenous fluids, called physiological saline, is a homogeneous mixture of NaCl in water. In this mixture, 0.89% of the mass is contributed by the NaCl. What mass of NaCl is found in 450. mL of physiological saline? (Given: density of physiological saline = 1.005 g/cm3)
A) 2.0 g B) 4.0 g C) 5.1 g D) 508 g E) 400 g
Ans: B Difficulty: Difficult
52.
An empty flask's mass is 17.4916 g, its mass is 43.9616 g when filled with water at 20.0°C (d = 0.9982 g/mL). The density of “heavy water” at 20.0°C is 1.1053 g/mL. What is the mass of the flask when filled with heavy water at 20.0°C?
A) 29.2573 g B) 46.8016 g C) 46.7489 g D) 29.3100 g E) 43.9140 g
Ans: B Difficulty: Difficult
53.
A flask has a mass of 78.23 g when empty and 593.63 g when filled with water. When the same flask is filled with concentrated sulfuric acid, H2SO4, its mass is 1026.57 g. What is the density of concentrated sulfuric acid? (Assume water has a density of 1.00 g/cm3 at the temperature of the measurement.)
A)
1.992 g/cm3
D)
1.598 g/cm3
B)
1.840 g/cm3
E)
0.543 g/cm3
C)
1.729 g/cm3
Ans: B Difficulty: Difficult
54.
Talc is a mineral that has low conductivity for heat and electricity and that is not attacked by acid. It is used as talcum powder and face powder. A sample of talc weighs 35.97 g in air and 13.65 g in mineral oil (d = 1.75 g/cm3). What is the density of talc?
A) 4.61 g/cm3 B) 2.82 g/cm3 C) 2.63 g/cm3 D) 2.44 g/cm3 E) 1.61 g/cm3
Ans: A Difficulty: Difficult
55.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A)
Boiling of water
D)
Condensing water vapor into rainfall
B)
Melting wax
E)
Carving a piece of wood
C)
Broiling a steak on a grill
Ans: C Difficulty: Easy
56.
Which of these is an example of a physical property?
A)
Corrosiveness of sulfuric acid
B)
Toxicity of cyanide
C)
Flammability of gasoline
D)
Neutralization of stomach acid with an antacid
E)
Lead becomes a liquid when heated to 601°C
Ans: E Difficulty: Easy
57.
Which one of these represents a physical change?
A)
Water, when heated, forms steam
B)
Bleach turns hair yellow
C)
Sugar, when heated, becomes brown
D)
Milk turns sour
E)
Apples, when exposed to air, turn brown
Ans: A Difficulty: Easy
58.
Which one of these represents a chemical change?
A)
Boiling water to form steam
B)
Turning hair yellow with bleach
C)
Melting butter
D)
Mixing powdered charcoal and oxygen at room temperature
E)
Cutting a bar of sodium metal into pieces with a knife
Ans: B Difficulty: Easy
59.
Which of the following is an extensive property of oxygen?
A)
Boiling point
D)
Density
B)
Temperature
E)
Mass
C)
Average kinetic energy of molecules
Ans: E Difficulty: Easy
60.
When the value of something does not depend on the amount of the matter then what is this called?
A)
Empirical property
D)
Extensive property
B)
Intensive property
E)
Exclusive property
C)
Inclusive property
Ans: B Difficulty: Easy
61.
Which of the following is an extensive property?
A) Density B) Temperature C) Mass D) Specific Heat E) Pressure
Ans: C Difficulty: Easy
62.
The number 1.050 ´ 109 has how many significant figures?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 9 E) 13
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
63.
After carrying out the operations below, how many significant figures are appropriate to show in the result? (13.7 + 0.027) ¸ 8.221
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: C Difficulty: Medium
64.
How many significant figures are in 0.006570?
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
65.
The result of (3.8621 ´ 1.5630) - 5.98 is properly written as
A) 0.06 B) 0.056 C) 0.0565 D) 0.05646 E) 0.056462
Ans: A Difficulty: Medium
66.
Select the answer with the correct number of decimal places for the following sum: 13.914 cm + 243.1 cm + 12.00460 cm =
A)
269.01860 cm
D)
269.02 cm
B)
269.0186 cm
E)
269.0 cm
C)
269.019 cm
Ans: E Difficulty: Medium
67.
How many significant figures does the sum 8.5201 + 1.93 contain?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
68.
Select the answer that expresses the result of this calculation with the correct number of significant figures.
13.602 ´ 1.90 ´ 3.06 =
4.2 ´ 1.4097
A) 13.3568 B) 13.357 C) 13.36 D) 13.4 E) 13
Ans: E Difficulty: Medium
69.
Which is correct if 0.01234 is rewritten in scientific notation?
A)
1.234 ´ 10-3
D)
1.234 ´ 102
B)
12.3 ´ 104
E)
1.234 ´ 10-2
C)
1 ´ 10-1
Ans: E Difficulty: Easy
70.
You prepare 1000. mL of tea and transfer it to a 1.00 quart pitcher for storage. Which of the following statements is true? (1L = 1.06qt)
A)
The pitcher will be filled to 100% of its capacity with no tea spilled.
B)
The pitcher will be filled to about 95% of its capacity.
C)
The pitcher will be filled to about 50% of its capacity.
D)
The pitcher will be completely filled and a small amount of tea will overflow.
E)
The pitcher will be completely filled and most of the tea will overflow.
Ans: D Difficulty: Medium
71.
The speed needed to escape the pull of Earth's gravity is 11.3 km/s. What is this speed in mi/h? (1 mi = 1609 m)
A)
65,500 mi/h
D)
1,090 mi/h
B)
25,300 mi/h
E)
5.02 ´ 10-3 mi/h
C)
18,200 mi/h
Ans: B Difficulty: Medium
72.
The ripening of fruit, once picked, is an example of physical change.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
73.
When applying the scientific method, it is important to avoid any form of hypothesis.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
74.
When applying the scientific method, a model or theory should be based on experimental data.
Ans: True Difficulty: Easy
75.
Matter is anything that has mass and occupies space.
Ans: True Difficulty: Easy
76.
The density of a substance is an intensive property.
Ans: True Difficulty: Easy
77.
The volume of a substance is an intensive property.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
78.
Boiling point and melting point are extensive properties.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
79.
Rusting of a piece of iron under environmental conditions is a physical change.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
80.
The number 6.0448, rounded to 3 decimal places, becomes 6.045.
Ans: True Difficulty: Easy
81.
A dip of vanilla ice cream is a pure substance.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
82.
A particular temperature in degrees Celsius is larger than the temperature in Kelvin.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
83.
Zero Kelvin < 0° Fahrenheit < 0° Celsius
Ans: True Difficulty: Medium
84.
77 K is colder than 4 K.
Ans: False Difficulty: Easy
85.
The juice from an orange is a mixture.
Ans: True Difficulty: Easy
86.
What is something that has a definite composition?
Ans:
pure substance
Difficulty: Easy
87.
What is a combination of two or more substances in which the substances retain their distinct identities?
Ans:
mixture
Difficulty: Easy
88.
What is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical means?
Ans:
element
Difficulty: Easy
89.
What is a substance composed of atoms of two or more elements chemically united in fixed proportions?
Ans:
compound
Difficulty: Easy
90.
Give examples of three physical properties.
Ans:
(Answers will vary.) Melting point, boiling point, density, color
Difficulty: Easy
91.
Give an example of an extensive property.
Ans:
(Answers will vary.) Mass, length, and volume
Difficulty: Easy
92.
Give an example of an intensive property.
Ans:
(Answers will vary.) Temperature, density, melting point, boiling point
Difficulty: Easy
93.
Identify this process as a physical or chemical change: Bacteria converts milk to yogurt.
Ans:
Chemical
Difficulty: Easy
94.
What is the equation for the conversion of °Celsius to Kelvin?
Ans:
°C + 273.15 = Kelvin
Difficulty: Easy
95.
If two numbers are added together, one which has 2 digits after the decimal point and the other has 1 digit after the decimal point, explain how to round the answer.
Ans:
The answer will have 1 digit after the decimal point because the least number of digits after the decimal point in the two numbers used in the calculation was 1. Use the least number of digits after the decimal point.
Difficulty: Medium
96.
If two numbers are multiplied together, one which has 3 significant figures and the other has four significant figures, explain how to round the answer.
Ans:
The answer will have 3 significant figures because the least number of significant figures in the two numbers used in the calculation was 3.
Difficulty: Easy
97.
What is the equation used to calculate the mass from the density?
Ans:
mass = density ´ volume or m = dv
Difficulty: Medium
98.
Melting ice is a __________ change.
Ans:
physical
Difficulty: Easy
99.
Burning wood in a fireplace is a __________ change.
Ans:
chemical
Difficulty: Easy
100.
____________ is a substance composed of atoms of two or more elements chemically united in fixed proportions.
Ans:
compound
Difficulty: Easy
101.
__________ is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical means.
Ans:
element
Difficulty: Easy
102.
__________ is a combination of two or more substances in which the substances retain their distinct identities.
Ans:
mixture
Difficulty: Easy
103.
__________ is something that has a definite composition.
Ans:
pure substance
Difficulty: Easy
104.
_________, _________, and ________ are the three states of matter.
Ans:
liquid, solid, and gas
Difficulty: Easy
105.
_______________ ____________ has a uniform composition throughout.
Ans:
homogeneous mixture
Difficulty: Easy
106.
_______________ ____________ does not have a uniform composition throughout.
Ans:
heterogeneous mixture
Difficulty: Easy
107.
___________ tells how closely multiple measurements of the same thing are to one another.
Ans:
Precision
Difficulty: Medium
108.
___________ is the term used to indicate a measurement is accurate. (Hint: Often used when measurement the volume of a liquid.)
Ans:
Graduated or Calibrated
Difficulty: Medium
109.
____________ tells how close a measurement is to the true value.
Ans:
accuracy
Difficulty: Medium
110.
Briefly explain the relationship between hypothesis and experiment in the scientific method.
Ans:
A hypothesis should be capable of leading to a prediction which is testable by experiment. If the experimental result differs from the prediction, the hypothesis should be modified.
Difficulty: Medium
111.
Explain the difference between accuracy and precision.
Ans:
Accuracy is how a measurement is to the true value and precision is how close multiple measurements of the same thing are to one another.
Difficulty: Medium
112.
Explain the difference between a hypothesis and a theory.
Ans:
A hypothesis is a tentative explanation for observations made and a theory is a unifying principle that explains a body of experimental observations and the laws that are based on them.
Difficulty: Medium
113.
Explain the difference between quantitative measurements and qualitative measurements.
Ans:
A quantitative measurement is expressed with a number and a qualitative measurement does not require an explicit measurement.
Difficulty: Easy
114.
Explain the difference between a physical property and a chemical property.
Ans:
A physical property can be observed and measured without changing the identity of the substance and a chemical property requires a chemical change from one substance to another substance.
Difficulty: Easy
115.
Explain the difference between an extensive property and an intensive property.
Ans:
An extensive property depends on the amount of matter and an intensive property does not depend on the amount of matter.
Difficulty: Medium
116.
Explain the rule for significant figures for addition and subtraction.
Ans:
The answer cannot have more digits to the right of the decimal point than any of the original numbers used in the calculation.
Difficulty: Medium
117.
Explain the rule for significant figures for multiplication and division.
Ans:
The number of significant figures in the final product or quotient is determined by the original number that has the smallest number of significant figures.
Difficulty: Easy
118.
Explain the difference between a heterogeneous mixture and a homogeneous mixture.
Ans:
A homogeneous mixture has a uniform composition throughout and a heterogeneous mixture does not have a uniform composition throughout.
Difficulty: Easy
119.
Discuss the benefits of using the metric system for measurements.
Ans:
All measurements in the metric system are a multiple of 10 therefore it makes it easy to simply move the decimal point.
Difficulty: Easy
120.
Discuss the difference between the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales for measuring temperatures.
Ans:
0°C = 32°F and 100°C = 212°F. To convert from °F to °C use the equation
°C = (°F -32°F) ´ 5°C/9°F and to convert from °C to °F use the equation
°F = [9°F/5°C](°C) + 32°F
Difficulty: Medium
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Test Bank Chemistry An Introduction to General Organic 12th Edition
For Order This And Any Other Test
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Introduction to General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 12e (Timberlake)
Chapter 1 Chemistry in Our Lives
1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Water, H2O, is an example of a(n) ________.
A) chemical
B) solid
C) wave
D) electric charge
E) element
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
2) In this list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?
A) salt
B) sleep
C) cold
D) heat
E) temperature
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
3) One example of a chemical used in toothpaste is ________.
A) chlorine
B) sulfur
C) carbon dioxide
D) calcium carbonate
E) sugar
Answer: D
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
4) Which of the following is not a chemical?
A) salt
B) water
C) light
D) carbon dioxide
E) sugar
Answer: C
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
5) Sodium fluorophosphate is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.
A) make the paste white
B) disinfect the toothbrush
C) keep the paste from spoiling
D) remove plaque
E) strengthen tooth enamel
Answer: E
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
6) When a part of the body is injured, substances called ________ are released.
A) aspirins
B) pain relievers
C) nitrogen oxides
D) chlorofluorocarbons
E) prostaglandins
Answer: E
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
7) The production of smog from NO gas requires ________.
A) nitrogen
B) chlorine
C) water
D) oxygen
E) CFCs
Answer: D
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
8) Titanium dioxide is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.
A) make the paste white
B) disinfect the toothbrush
C) keep the paste from spoiling
D) remove plaque
E) strengthen tooth enamel
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
9) Which of the following is a chemical?
A) sugar
B) heat
C) light
D) noise
E) a wave
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
10) You notice that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n) ________.
A) observation
B) hypothesis
C) experiment
D) theory
E) all the above
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.2
Learning Obj.: 1.2
Global Outcomes: G1 Demonstrate an understanding of the principles of scientific inquiry.
11) There is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning because most people start work at 9. This would be a(n) ________.
A) observation
B) hypothesis
C) experiment
D) theory
E) all the above
Answer: B
Page Ref: 1.2
Learning Obj.: 1.2
Global Outcomes: G1 Demonstrate an understanding of the principles of scientific inquiry.
12) One way to enhance your learning in chemistry is to ________.
A) study a little every day
B) form a study group
C) go to office hours
D) be an active learner
E) all the above
Answer: E
Page Ref: 1.3
Learning Obj.: 1.3
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
13) In order to enhance your learning in chemistry, you should not ________.
A) study a little every day
B) form a study group
C) go to office hours
D) be an active learner
E) wait until the night before the exam to study
Answer: E
Page Ref: 1.3
Learning Obj.: 1.3
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
14) In the number 12.345, the 4 is in the ________ place.
A) tens
B) ones
C) tenths
D) hundredths
E) thousandths
Answer: D
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
15) In the number 12.345, the 1 is in the ________ place.
A) tens
B) ones
C) tenths
D) hundredths
E) thousandths
Answer: A
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
16) In the number 12.345, the 3 is in the ________ place.
A) tens
B) ones
C) tenths
D) hundredths
E) thousandths
Answer: C
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
17) The product of (-4) × (-5) is ________.
A) -20
B) +20
C) -1
D) +1
E) 0
Answer: B
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
18) For the equation 4x + 2 = 10, x equals ________.
A) 8
B) 12
C) 3
D) 2
E) -2
Answer: D
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
19) For the equation -10 - (-4) = ________.
A) 6
B) -6
C) 14
D) -14
E) 4
Answer: B
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
20) 12 is what percent of 36?
A) 3%
B) 30%
C) 33%
D) 330%
E) 12%
Answer: C
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
21) Write 540 000 in scientific notation.
A) 0.54 × 106
B) 54 × 108
C) 5.4 × 10-5
D) 5.4 × 105
E) 5.4
Answer: D
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
22) Write 0.000 000 33 in scientific notation.
A) 3.3 × 107
B) 3.3 × 10-7
C) 3.3 × 10-8
D) 3.3 × 108
E) 3.3
Answer: B
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
23) The measurement 0.000 004 3 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, is ________.
A) 4.3 × m
B) 4.3 × m
C) 4.3 × m
D) 0.43 × m
E) 4.3 m
Answer: B
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
1.2 Short Answer Questions
1) A substance that consists of one type of matter and always has the same composition and properties is called a ________.
Answer: chemical
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
2) Any material used in or produced by a chemical reaction is a ________.
Answer: chemical
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
3) An abrasive used in toothpaste is ________.
Answer: calcium carbonate
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
4) The substances released when tissues are injured are ________.
Answer: prostaglandins
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
5) Substances which prevent spoilage are called ________.
Answer: antioxidants
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
6) The chemical used to make cans and foil is ________.
Answer: aluminum
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
7) The first step in the scientific method is to________.
Answer: make observations
Page Ref: 1.2
Learning Obj.: 1.2
Global Outcomes: G1 Demonstrate an understanding of the principles of scientific inquiry.
Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.
8) 351 000 000 000
Answer: 3.51 ×
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
9) 0.000 860
Answer: 8.60 ×
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
10) 5 207 000
Answer: 5.207 ×
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
11) 0.000 000 050
Answer: 5.0 ×
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
1.3 True/False Questions
1) Titanium dioxide in toothpaste is used as a detergent.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
2) Calcium carbonate is used to sweeten toothpaste.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.1
Learning Obj.: 1.1
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
3) Paracelsus was a Greek philosopher.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.2
Learning Obj.: 1.2
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
4) The first step in the scientific method is to draw a conclusion.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.2
Learning Obj.: 1.2
Global Outcomes: G1 Demonstrate an understanding of the principles of scientific inquiry.
5) Working with a group of students can help you learn chemistry.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 1.3
Learning Obj.: 1.3
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
6) It is a good idea to wait until the night before an exam to start to study.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.3
Learning Obj.: 1.3
Global Outcomes: G7 Demonstrate the ability to make connections between concepts across chemistry.
7) In the number 123.45, the digit 5 is in the hundreds place.
Answer: FALSE
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
8) If a negative number is divided by another negative number, the answer will be a positive number.
Answer: TRUE
Page Ref: 1.4
Learning Obj.: 1.4
Global Outcomes: G4 Demonstrate the quantitative skills needed to succeed in chemistry.
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Test Bank Chemistry 11th Edition
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Chapter 1: Chemistry: The Study of Change
1. A tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.3
2. A concise verbal or mathematical statement of a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.3
3. A unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.3
4. Complete the following sentence. A hypothesis is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.3
5. Complete the following sentence. A scientific law is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.3
6. Complete the following sentence. A theory is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.3
7. Choose the response that includes all the items listed below that are pure substances.
i. orange juice ii. steam iii. ocean water iv. oxygen v. vegetable soup
A) i, iii, v B) ii, iv C) i, iii, iv D) iv only E) all of them are pure
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.4
8. Which of the following is an example of a physical property?
A) corrosiveness of sulfuric acid
B) toxicity of cyanide
C) flammability of gasoline
D) neutralization of stomach acid with an antacid
E) lead becomes a liquid when heated to 601oC
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.6
9. Which one of the following is an example of a physical property?
A) dynamite explodes D) ice floats on top of liquid water
B) meat rots if it is not refrigerated E) a silver platter tarnishes
C) gasoline burns
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.6
10. Which one of the following represents a physical change?
A) water, when heated to 100°C, forms steam
B) bleach turns hair yellow
C) sugar, when heated, becomes brown
D) milk turns sour
E) apples, when exposed to air, turn brown
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.6
11. All of the following are properties of sodium. Which one is a physical property of sodium?
A) It's surface turns black when first exposed to air.
B) It is a solid at 25°C and changes to a liquid when heated to 98°C.
C) When placed in water it sizzles and a gas is formed.
D) When placed in contact with chlorine it forms a compound that melts at 801°C.
E) Sodium is never found as the pure metal in nature.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.6
12. All of the following are properties of tin. Which one is a chemical property of tin?
A) Tin can be hammered into a thin sheet.
B) At –40°C a sheet of tin crumbles to a gray powder.
C) Tin melts at 231.9°C.
D) When a bar of tin is bent, it emits an audible “cry”.
E) Tin erodes when added to hydrochloric acid, and a clear gas forms.
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.6
13. Which one of the following represents a chemical change?
A) boiling water to form steam
B) burning a piece of coal
C) heating lead until it melts
D) mixing iron filings and sand at room temperature
E) breaking glass
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.6
14. Which of the following does not represent a chemical change?
A) a freshly cut apple turns brown
B) milk turns sour on standing at room temperature
C) when cooled to 0°C, liquid water becomes ice
D) frying an egg
E) fermentation of sugar to alcohol
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.6
15. The SI prefixes kilo and milli represent, respectively:
A) 10–9 and 10–6. D) 109 and 10–6.
B) 106 and 10–3. E) 10–9 and 10–1.
C) 103 and 10–3.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
16. The SI prefixes micro and milli represent, respectively:
A) 106 and 10–6. D) 10–3 and 109.
B) 10–3 and 106. E) 10–6 and 10–3.
C) 103 and 10–6.
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.7
17. The SI prefixes mega and deci represent, respectively:
A) 103 and 10–2. D) 10–6 and 102.
B) 106 and 10–1. E) 102 and 10–3.
C) 10–3 and 10–2.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.7
18. A centimeter corresponds to:
A) 10–2 meters. D) 10–9 meters.
B) 10–3 meters. E) 10–12 meters.
C) 10–6 meters.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
19. A microliter corresponds to:
A) 10–2 liters. B) 10–3 liters. C) 10–6 liters. D) 10–9 liters. E) 10–12 liters.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
20. Lead melts at 601.0°C. What temperature is this in °F?
A) 302°F B) 365°F C) 1,050°F D) 1,082°F E) 1,114°F
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.7
21. The element gallium melts at 29.8°C. What temperature is this in °F?
A) –54.1°F B) –7.8°F C) +13.5°F D) +51.3°F E) +85.6°F
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.7
22. Many home freezers maintain a temperature of 0°F. Express this temperature in °C.
A) –32°C B) –18°C C) 0°C D) 18°C E) 57.6°C
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.7
23. The highest temperature ever recorded in Phoenix, Arizona, was 122°F. Express this temperature in °C.
A) 50.0°C B) 64.4°C C) 67.8°C D) 162.0°C E) 219.6°C
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.7
24. Dry ice (carbon dioxide) changes from a solid to a gas at –78.5°C. What is this temperature in °F?
A) –173°F
B) –12.6°F
C) –109°F
D) –75.6°F
E) none of them are within 2°F of the right answer
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.7
25. Liquid nitrogen boils at –195.8°C. Express the boiling point of liquid nitrogen in kelvin.
A) –469.0 K
B) –77.4 K
C) all temperatures are 0 K on the Kelvin scale
D) 77.4 K
E) 469.0 K
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.7
26. Liquid nitrogen boils at –195.8°C. Express the boiling point of liquid nitrogen in °F.
A) –384.4°F B) –352.4°F C) –320.4°F D) –140.8°F E) –76.8°F
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.7
27. How many milliliters is 0.005 L?
A) 0.5 mL B) 5 mL C) 0.50 mL D) 0.000005 mL E) 200 mL
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
28. Express 7,500 nm as picometers.
A) 7.50 pm B) 75.0 pm C) 750 pm D) 7.5 × 106 pm E) 7.5 × 1012 pm
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
29. The diameter of Earth is 12.7 Mm. Express this diameter in centimeters.
A) 1.27 × 105 cm D) 1.27 × 108 cm
B) 1.27 × 106 cm E) 1.27 × 109 cm
C) 1.27 × 107 cm
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
30. In 1828, the diameter of the U.S. dime was changed to approximately 18 mm. What is this diameter when expressed in nanometers?
A) 1.8 × 109 nm D) 1.8 × 10–5 nm
B) 1.8 × 107 nm E) 1.8 × 10–10 nm
C) 1.8 × 101 nm
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
31. Which of the following represents the largest mass?
A) 2.0 × 102 mg D) 2.0 × 102 cg
B) 0.0010 kg E) 10.0 dg
C) 1.0 × 105 ng
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
32. The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3 at 25°C. Calculate the volume occupied by 25.0 g of lead.
A) 2.19 cm3 B) 0.456 cm3 C) 285 cm3 D) 1.24 cm3 E) 6.05 cm3
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
33. Iron has a density of 7.86 g/cm3. The volume occupied by 55.85 g of iron is
A) 0.141 cm3 B) 7.11 cm3 C) 2.8 cm3 D) 439 cm3 E) None of the above.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.7
34. Bromine is a red liquid at 25°C. Its density is 3.12 g/cm3. What is the volume of 28.1 g of liquid bromine?
A) 87.7 cm3 D) 28.1 cm3
B) 0.111 cm3 . E) None of the above
C) 9.01 cm3
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
35. What is the volume of a 2.5 g block of metal if its density is 4.75 g/cm3?
A) 0.53 cm3 B) 1.9 cm3 C) 2.5 cm3 D) 4.75 cm3 E) 11.9 cm3
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
36. Which of the following objects will sink when dropped into a bucket of water?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3)
A) a cube of aluminum (density = 2.702 g/cm3)
B) a diamond (density = 3.51 g/cm3)
C) a chunk of dry ice (density = 1.56 g/cm3)
D) a chunk of sodium (density = 0.91 g/cm3)
E) a sphere of magnesium (density = 1.74 g/cm3)
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.7
37. You just measured a block of wood and obtained the following information:
mass = 55.120 g
length = 8.5 cm
height = 4.3 cm
width = 3.3 cm
Determine the volume and density of the wood block.
Ans: Volume of the wood block = 120 cm3; density of the wood block = 0.46 g/cm3.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
38. You just measured a metal cylinder and obtained the following information:
mass = 3.543 g
diameter = 0.53 cm
height = 4.4 cm
Determine the volume (V) and density of the cylinder. (V=pr2 h, where r = radius, h = height, p = 3.14)
Ans: Volume of the cylinder = 0.97 cm3; density of the cylinder = 3.7 g/cm3.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
39. You just measured a sugar cube and obtained the following information:
mass = 3.48 g
height = length = width = 1.3 cm
Determine the volume and density of the cube. Suppose the sugar cube was added to a cup of water. Before it dissolves, will the sugar cube float or sink to the bottom?
Ans: Volume of the sugar cube = 2.2 cm3; density of the sugar cube = 1.6 g/cm3. Before dissolving, the sugar cube will sink in a cup of water.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
40. Express the number 26.7 in scientific notation.
A) 2.67 × 10–2
B) 2.67 × 10–1
C) 2.67 × 101
D) 2.67 × 102
E) 26.7 is already written in scientific notation
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
41. Express the number 0.000053 in scientific notation.
A) 5.3 × 10-2 B) 5.3 × 10-3 C) 5.3 × 10-4 D) 5.3 × 10-5 E) 5.3 × 10-6
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
42. The number 1.050 × 109 has how many significant figures?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 9 E) 13
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
43. How many significant figures are there in 0.3070 g?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 2
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
44. After carrying out the following operations, how many significant figures are appropriate to show in the result?
(13.7 + 0.027) ÷ 8.221
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.8
45. How many significant figures does the result of the following operation contain?
8.52010 × 7.90
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.8
46. How many significant figures does the result of the following sum contain?
8.5201 + 1.93
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
47. How many significant figures does the result of the following sum contain?
8.520 + 2.7
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
48. How many significant figures does the difference 218.7201 – 218.63 contain?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.8
49. Using the arithmetic problem below, determine the correct number of significant figures.
(1.5 × 10–4 × 61.3) + 2.01 =
A) 2.0192 B) 2.0 C) 2.019 D) 2.02 E) 2.019195
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.8
50. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
2.4 x 10-4 + 3.1 x 10-2 =
A) 5.5 x 10-6 B) 5.5 x 10-8 C) 5.5 x 10-4 D) 3.1 x 10-2 E) 2.4 x 10-4
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.8
51. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
5.80 x 10-1 – 3.4 x 10-2 =
A) 5.5 x 10-1 B) 5.46 x 10-1 C) 2.4 x 10-3 D) 2.4 x 102 E) 5.5 x 10-2
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.8
52. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
4.5 x 1014 / 8.3 x 108 =
A) 5.4 x 1021 B) 5.4 x 1022 C) 5.4 x 106 D) 5.4 x 1014 E) 5.4 x 105
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.8
53. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
6.2 x 10-13 x 5.68 x 108 =
A) 3.5 x 10-13 B) 3.5 x 10-5 C) 3.5 x 10-104 D) 3.5 x 10-4 E) 3.5 x 10-21
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
54. Convert 2.340 x 10-4 to decimal format.
A) 23,400 B) 2,340 C) 0.000234 D) 0.0002340 E) 0.002340
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
55. Convert 4.5 x 104 to decimal format.
A) 45,000 B) 4,500 C) 0.00045 D) 0.0045 E) 0.000450
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.8
56. Convert 5.00 x 102 milliliters to quarts. (1L = 1.06 qt)
A) 1.88 qt B) 0.472 qt C) 0.528 qt D) 4.72 × 105 qt E) 5.28 × 105 qt
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
57. 1 US barrel = 4.21 cubic feet. Express this volume in liters.
A) 3.99 × 10–5 L B) 1.99 × 10–2 L C) 19.9 L D) 105 L E) 119 L
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
58. 1 barrel of oil contains 42.0 gallons. How many liters is this? (1L = 1.06 qt)
A) 9.9 L B) 11 L C) 142 L D) 158 L E) 178 L
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.9
59. The average distance from Earth to the sun is 9.3 × 107 miles. How many kilometers is this?
A) 1.5 × 108 km D) 1.7 × 10–8 km
B) 1.5 × 105 km E) 1.5 × 1011 km
C) 5.6 × 107 km
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
60. What is the area, in square centimeters, of an 8.5 inch by 11 inch sheet of paper?
A) 94 cm2 B) 240 cm2 C) 420 cm2 D) 6.0 × 102 cm2 E) 1.2 × 104 cm2
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
61. Suppose a house has a floor area of 2,250 square feet. What is this area in units of square centimeters?
A) 2.42 cm2 D) 6.86 × 104 cm2
B) 2.09 × 106 cm2 E) 101 cm2
C) 5.02 × 104 cm2
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
62. What is the volume, in cubic inches, of a brick that is 4.0 in × 2.7 in × 8.0 in?
A) 15 in3 B) 51 in3 C) 78 in3 D) 87 in3 E) 150 in3
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.9
63. What is the volume, in cubic centimeters, of a brick that is 4.0 in × 2.7 in × 8.0 in?
A) 5.3 cm3 B) 53 cm3 C) 87 cm3 D) 4.8 × 102 cm3 E) 1.4 × 103 cm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
64. How many square kilometers are equivalent to 28.5 cm2?
A) 2.85 × 10–9 km2 D) 2.85 × 10–4 km2
B) 2.85 × 10–6 km2 E) none of these
C) 285 km2
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
65. If a car has an EPA mileage rating of 30 miles per gallon, what is this rating in kilometers per liter? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) 200 km/L B) 180 km/L C) 70 km/L D) 13 km/L E) 11 km/L
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
66. If the price of gasoline is $3.85 per U.S. gallon, what is the cost per liter? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) $1.02/L B) $14.60/L C) $0.96/L D) $3.85/L E) $3.63/L
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
67. An aluminum beverage can contain 12.0 fluid ounces of liquid. Express this volume in liters. (1 fl oz = 29.6 mL)
A) 4.07 × 10-2 L B) 0.355 L C) 0.407 L D) 2.46 L E) 3.55 × 102 L
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.9
68. 1.572 × 108 troy oz of silver were used in the United States in 1980. How many kilograms is this? (1 troy oz = 31.1 g)
A) 4.89 × 106 kg D) 4.89 x 1012 kg
B) 4.89 kg E) 5.05 × 10 3 kg
C) 5.05 × 10 6 kg
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
69. A piece of metal with a mass of 611 g is placed into a graduated cylinder that contains 25.1 mL of water, raising the water level to 56.7 mL. What is the density of the metal?
A) 2.70 g/cm3 B) 7.13 g/cm3 C) 8.96 g/cm3 D) 10.5 g/cm3 E) 19.3 g/cm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
70. A piece of a metal alloy with a mass of 114 g was placed into a graduated cylinder that contained 25.0 mL of water, raising the water level to 42.5 mL. What is the density of the metal?
A) 0.154 g/cm3 D) 6.51 g/cm3
B) 0.592 g/cm3 E) 7.25 g/cm3
C) 2.68 g/cm3
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
71. A block of iron has a mass of 826 g. What is the mass of a block of magnesium that has the same volume as the block of iron? The following densities at 25°C are provided: magnesium, 1.7 g/cm3 ; graphite, 1.8 g/cm3 ; iron, 7.9 g/cm3.
A) 1,400 g
B) 3,800 g
C) 830 g
D) 180 g
E) none of them are within 10 g of the right answer.
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
72. A block of iron has a mass of 483 g. What is the mass of a block of graphite that has the same volume as the block of iron? The following densities at 25°C are provided: magnesium, 1.7 g/cm3 ; graphite, 1.8 g/cm3 ; iron, 7.9 g/cm3.
A) 110 g
B) 2120 g
C) 6870 g
D) 34 g
E) none of them are within 10 g of the right answer.
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
73. Calculate the mass of the air contained in a room that measures 2.50 m × 5.50 m × 3.00 m (density of air = 1.29 g/dm3 at 25°C).
A) 3.13 × 10 –5 g B) 32.0 kg C) 53.2 kg D) 53.2 g E) None of the above.
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
74. Iridium is essentially tied with osmium for the distinction of being called the “densest element” with a density of 22.5 g/cm3. What would be the mass in pounds of a 1.0 ft × 1.0 ft × 1.0 ft cube of iridium. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 1.5 lb B) 5.2 lb C) 6.20 lb D) 1.4 × 103 lb E) 6.4 × 105 lb
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
75. The Hope diamond weighs 44.0 carats. Determine the volume occupied by the diamond, given that its density is 3.5 g/cm3 at 20°C, and that 1 carat = 0.200 g.
A) 2.5 cm3 B) 0.40 cm3 C) 0.016 cm3 D) 63 cm3 E) 150 cm3
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
76. The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. What is the mass in pounds of 1.0 gallons of mercury? (1 lb = 453.6 g; 1 gal = 3.785 L)
A) 0.11 lb B) 30. lb C) 51 lb D) 83 lb E) 110 lb
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
77. The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. What volume (in quarts) is occupied by 100. g of Hg? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) 144 qt B) 7.35 qt C) 7.79 qt D) 7.79 × 10–3 qt E) 1.44 × 10–4 qt
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
78. The "escape velocity" from Earth (the speed required to escape Earth's gravity) is 2.5 × 104 miles per hour. What is this speed in m/s? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A) 4.2 × 10–3 m/s D) 1.1 × 104 m/s
B) 6.9 m/s E) 4.0 × 107 m/s
C) 4.2 × 102 m/s
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
79. Which of the following speeds is the greatest? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A) 40 mi/h D) 0.74 km/min
B) 2.0 × 105 mm/min E) 400 m/min
C) 40 km/h
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
80. Convert 4.5 m3 to L
A) 4.5 x 10-1 L D) 4.5x103 L
B) 4.5 x 101 L E) 4.5 x 102L
C) 4.5 x 10-3 L
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
81. Convert 6.4 mm3 to mL
A) 6.4 x 10-3 mL D) 6.4 x 10-2 mL
B) 6.4 x 10-1 mL E) 6.4 mL
C) 6.4 x 103 mL
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
82. Convert 7.2 cm3 to mm3
A) 7.2 x 101 mm3 D) 7.2 x 102 mm3
B) 7.2 x 10-5 mm3 E) 7.2 x 103 mm3
C) 7.2 x 10-3 mm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
83. Convert 4.6 km to mm.
A) 4.6 x 106 mm D) 4.6 x 10-2 mm
B) 4.6 x 103 mm E) 4.6 x 104 mm
C) 4.6 x 10-6 mm
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
84. Convert 4.89 mm to µm.
A) 4.89 x 10-6 µm D) 4.89 x 106 µm
B) 4.89 x 10-3 µm E) 4.89 x 109 µm
C) 4.89 x 103 µm
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
85. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below.
56 mm + 4.5 m =
A) 61 mm B) 61 m C) 61 m2 D) 4.6 m E) 4.56 m
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
86. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below.
3.4 x 10-2 mg + 448 µg =
A) 0.48 mg B) 0.482 mg C) 4.5 mg D) 4.48 mg E) 4.5 x 102 mg
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
87. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
58.00 mg – 45.22 µg =
A) 57.95 mg B) 12.78 mg C) 12.78 µg D) 57.55 µg E) 12.78 mg2
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
88. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
4.51 m x 3.2 m =
A) 14.4 m B) 14 m C) 14 m2 D) 14.4 E) 14.4 m2
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.9
89. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
4.5 m / 8.52 m =
A) 0.528 m B) 0.53 m C) 0.53 m2 D) 0.53 E) 0.528 m2
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
90. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
8.22 m2 / 9.11 m =
A) 0.902 m2 B) 0.902 m3 C) 0.902 m D) 0.902 E) 0.90 m2
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
91. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
5.46 m3/ 2.01 m2 =
A) 2.72 m5 B) 2.72 m3 C) 2.72 m2 D) 2.72 m E) 2.72 m-1
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
92. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
5.67 m/ 2.04 m2 =
A) 2.78 m3 B) 2.78 m2 C) 2.78 m D) 2.78 E) 2.78 m-1
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
93. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
(3.45 m + 2.78 m)/ 565 s =
A) 1.10 x 10-2 m2/s D) 1.10 x 10-2 s
B) 1.10 x 10-2 m/s E) 1.10 x 10-2 m2
C) 1.10 x 10-2 s-1
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
94. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
(5.62 cm – 0.45 cm)/ 342 s =
A) 1.51 x 10-2 s-1 D) 1.5 s-1
B) 1.5 x 10-2 cm2/s E) 1.51 x 10-2 cm2·s
C) 1.51 x 10-2 cm/s
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
95. A long course triathlon entails a 2.0 mile swim, an 85.5 mile bike ride and a 15.0 mile run. What is the total distance in kilometers for the triathlon?
A) 160 km B) 165 km C) 103 km D) 164.9 km E) 102.5 km
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
96. A cyclist averages 18.5 miles per hour. How many minutes will it take for him to complete a 125 kilometer race?
A) 252 min B) 652 min C) 420 min D) 1440 min E) 405 min
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
97. A runner averages 8 minutes and 25 seconds per mile. What is her average velocity in miles per hour?
A) 7.27 mi/hr B) 7.13 mi/hr C) 8.42 mi/hr D) 4.36 mi/hr E) 0.140 mi/hr
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
98. Iron has a density of 7.87 g/cm3. What mass of iron would be required to cover a football playing surface of 120 yds × 60 yds to a depth of 1.0 mm? (1 inch = 2.54 cm; 1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 6.4 × 103 lb D) 4.7 × 107 lb
B) 6.4 × 104 lb E) 4.7 × 108 lb
C) 1.0 × 105 lb
Ans: C Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
99. Americans combined drive about 4.0×109 miles per day and their vehicles get an average of 20 miles per gallon of fuel used. For each 1 kg of gasoline that is burned, about 3.0 kg of CO2 are produced. How many kilograms of CO2 are emitted into the atmosphere each day by cars in the U.S.? One gallon of gas weighs about 3.5 kg.
A) 2.1 × 109 kg D) 93 kg
B) 8.4 × 1011 kg E) none of these
C) 1.7 × 108 kg ��
Ans: A Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
100. How many cubic centimeters of an ore containing only 0.22% gold (by mass) must be processed to obtain $100.00 worth of gold? The density of the ore is 8.0 g/cm3 and the price of gold is $818 per troy ounce. (14.6 troy oz = 1.0 ordinary pound, called an avoirdupois pound; 1 lb = 454 g)
A) 0.48 cm3 D) 1.7 × 103 cm3
B) 220 cm3 E) 1.8 × 104 cm3
C) 1.4 × 103 cm3
Ans: B Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
101. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, which is 3.00 × 108 m/s. How many minutes does it take for a radio message to reach Earth from Saturn if Saturn is 7.9 × 108 km from Earth?
A) 4.4 × 10–2 min D) 44 min
B) 1.6 × 105 min E) 2.6 min
C) 4.0 × 1015 min
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
102. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, which is 3.00 × 108 m/s. How many kilometers will radio messages travel in exactly one year?
A) 9.46 × 1015 km D) 9.46 × 1012 km
B) 7.30 × 108 km E) 3.33 × 10–3 km
C) 7.10 × 1010 km
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
103. The city of Los Angeles is now approximately 2400 miles south of Alaska. It is moving slowly northward as the San Andreas fault slides along. If Los Angeles is to arrive near Anchorage, Alaska, in 76 million years, at what average rate will it have to move in mm per month?
A) 2.0 × 10–10 mm/mo. D) 9.5 mm/mo.
B) 6.6 × 10–6 mm/mo. E) 51 mm/mo.
C) 4.2 mm/mo.
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
104. The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium is 1.2 g. Calcium carbonate contains 12.0% calcium by mass. How many grams of calcium carbonate are needed to provide the RDA of calcium?
A) 0.10 g B) 0.14 g C) 1.2 g D) 10 g E) 14 g
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
105. A spherical vessel (diameter = 2.00 cm) when empty has a mass of 2.00 g. What is the greatest volume of water that can be placed in the vessel and still have the vessel float at the surface of water?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3)
A) 2.00 mL
B) 31.5 mL
C) 2.19 mL
D) 4.19 mL
E) the vessel will not float even when empty
Ans: C Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
106. A spherical vessel (diameter = 5.00 cm) when empty has a mass of 12.00 g. What is the greatest volume of water that can be placed in the vessel and still have the vessel float at the surface of benzene?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3; density of benzene = 0.879 g/cm3)
A) 45.5 mL B) 448 mL C) 53.4 mL D) 57.5 mL E) 65.4 mL
Ans: A Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
107. One of the common intravenous fluids, called physiological saline, is a homogeneous mixture of NaCl in water. In this mixture, 0.89% of the mass is contributed by the NaCl. What mass of NaCl is found in 450. mL of physiological saline?
(Given: density of physiological saline = 1.005 g/cm3)
A) 2.0 g B) 4.0 g C) 5.1 g D) 508 g E) 400 g
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
108. A special flask used in the determination of densities, called a pycnometer, has a mass of 16.3179 g when empty, and it has a mass of 48.0250 g when filled with water at 20.0°C. When this same pycnometer is filled with ethyl alcohol at 20.0°C, it is found to have a mass of 41.3934 g. Find the density of ethyl alcohol at 20.0°C.
(Given: at 20.0°C, the density of water is 0.9982 g/mL)
A) 0.7894 g/mL D) 1.303 g/mL
B) 0.7923 g/mL E) 0.7674 g/mL
C) 0.7908 g/mL
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
109. A particular flask has a mass of 17.4916 g when empty. When filled with ordinary water at 20.0°C (density = 0.9982 g/mL), the mass of the flask is now 43.9616 g. The density of so-called “heavy water” at 20.0°C is 1.1053 g/mL. What will the mass of the flask be when filled with heavy water at 20.0°C?
A) 29.2573 g B) 46.8016 g C) 46.7489 g D) 29.3100 g E) 43.9140 g
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
110. Define matter.
Ans: Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
111. Define pure substance.
Ans: Matter that has a definite composition
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
112. Give three examples of pure substances.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Gold, sugar, oxygen, argon, water, methane
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
113. Define mixture.
Ans: A mixture is a combination of two or more substances in which the substances retain their distinct identities.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
114. Give three examples of mixtures.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Air, gasoline, sea water, salt and sand, iron filings and sand
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
115. Define element.
Ans: An element is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical means.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
116. Define compound.
Ans: A compound is a substance composed of atoms of two or more elements chemically united in fixed proportions.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
117. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Ice cream.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
118. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Bread.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
119. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Seven-Up®.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
120. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Air.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
121. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Table salt (non-iodized).
Ans: Compound
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
122. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Iced tea.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
123. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Oxygen gas.
Ans: Element
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
124. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Brewed coffee, ready to drink.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
125. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Sugar to put in a cup of coffee.
Ans: Compound
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
126. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Milk.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
127. A pure yellow crystalline substance, when heated in a vacuum, releases a greenish gas and a red powder. Is the original yellow crystalline substance a compound or element?
Ans: Compound
Category: Medium Section: 1.4
128. What are the three states of matter?
Ans: Solid, liquid, and gas
Category: Easy Section: 1.5
129. What are the common names for the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of water?
Ans: Ice, water, and steam
Category: Easy Section: 1.5
130. Give examples of three physical properties.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Melting point, boiling point, density, color
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
131. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Bacteria convert milk to yogurt.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
132. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas are combined to form ammonia gas.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
133. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Formation of snowflakes.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
134. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Corrosion of a metal.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
135. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Ripening of fruit.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
136. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Fashioning a table leg from a piece of wood.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
137. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Fermenting grapes.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
138. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Antifreeze boils out of a radiator.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
139. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Food spoils.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
140. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Alcohol evaporates.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
141. Classify the following as either a physical or a chemical property: Water boils at 100°C.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
142. Classify the following as either a physical or a chemical property: Newspaper burns.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
143. In the process of fixing breakfast you:
1. break open the egg
2. fry it
3. cut the fried egg into pieces
4. toast a slice of bread
5. cut the toast in half
Which of these are chemical processes?
Ans: 2 (frying the egg) and 4 (toasting the bread)
Category: Medium Section: 1.6
144. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Density
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
145. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Length
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
146. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Cost per unit
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
147. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Total cost
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
148. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Melting point
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
149. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Boiling point
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
150. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: mass
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
151. 0 K is the lowest temperature that can be attained theoretically.
Ans: True Category: Easy Section: 1.7
152. What is the lowest temperature that can be attained in units of °C (use 3 significant figures)?
Ans: – 273 °C
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
153. An organic liquid has a density of 1.2 g/cm3. What is the mass of a 35.0 cm3 sample of this liquid?
Ans: 42 g
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
154. What is the density of copper if 11.8 cm3 of copper has a mass of 105.2 g?
Ans: 8.92 g/cm3
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
155. What is the density of a salt solution if 75.0 mL of the solution has a mass of 32.0 g?
Ans: 0.427 g/mL
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
156. The weight of a body varies according to the force of gravity exerted on the body.
Ans: True Category: Medium Section: 1.7
157. The mass of a body varies according to the force of gravity exerted on the body.
Ans: False Category: Medium Section: 1.7
158. The SI base unit of time is the hour.
Ans: False Category: Easy Section: 1.7
159. 20°C is colder than 40°F.
Ans: False Category: Medium Section: 1.7
160. 16 megagrams (Mg) is equal to 1.6 × 107 g.
Ans: True Category: Easy Section: 1.7
161. How many significant figures does the number 30.40 contain?
Ans: 4
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
162. How many significant figures does the number 0.07010 contain?
Ans: 4
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
163. The number 9.64000 × 105 contains how many significant figures?
Ans: 6
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
164. An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm3. Express this volume in liters.
Ans: 1.6 L
Category: Easy Section: 1.9
165. An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm3. Express this volume in cubic inches. (1 in = 2.54 cm)
Ans: 98 in3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
166. An investor paid market price for a chunk of gold that he was told was pure. The gold bar had a mass of 440 g, but was slightly irregular so an exact volume could not be calculated. The investor filled a large graduated cylinder with water, immersed the chunk of gold, and observed an increase in the apparent volume of material in the graduated cylinder of 25.0 mL. Pure gold has a density of 19.3 g/cm3. Did the investor get his money's worth? Why or why not?
Ans: No. The investor's metal density is 17.6 g/cm3, thus the bar must not be pure gold.
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
167. An American engineer who had been transferred to Europe was asked to build bridge pilings exactly as he had in the United States. Each piling required 20.0 cubic yards of concrete in the United States. How many cubic meters of concrete are required for each piling? Given: 1 yd = 0.914 m.
Ans: 15.3 m3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
168. A soft drink costs 75 cents for a 12-oz can. A two-liter bottle costs $1.25. In which form is the soft drink more expensive? How much more expensive? (1.0 L = 1.057 qt, 1 qt = 32 oz)
Ans: The two-liter bottle is the better value. The can is over three times more expensive by volume.
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
169. A person weighs 150.0 lb, and the correct dosage of a drug is given as 1.50 mg per kilogram of body weight. How many milligrams of the drug should be given? (2.20 lb = 1 kg)
Ans: 102 mg
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
170. An archeologist finds a huge monolith in the desert. In order to estimate the weight of this object; he estimates the dimensions of the monolith and removes some chips from the rock with his hammer, collecting the following data:
dimensions of the monolith = 1.5 m × 5.2 m × 13 m
mass of rock chips = 41.73 g
volume of rock chips = 15.2 cm3
Determine the mass of the monolith in pounds, assuming it is of uniform composition. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
Ans: 6.1 × 105 lb
Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
171. An excavator is preparing to dig a basement for a new house. Part of his contract reads that he must dispose of all the dirt he removes while digging the basement in an EPA approved landfill. He will dig a hole that is 40 feet wide by 50 feet long and 7.5 feet deep. He first uses his shovel and scoops up 1.00 kg of dirt, and then determines that the dirt has a volume of 600 cm3. The excavator knows that his dump truck can only carry 8,000 kg of dirt. How many dump-truck loads will it take to haul the dirt away?
Ans: 89 dump-truck loads
Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
172. What will be the cost of gasoline for a 3,700-mile trip in a car that gets 23 miles per gallon, if the average price of gas is $3.90 per gallon?
Ans: $630
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
173. What will be the cost of gasoline for a 4,700-mile automobile trip if the car gets 41 miles per gallon, and the average price of gas is $3.79 per gallon?
Ans: $430
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
174. The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3. Express this density in pounds per cubic foot.
Ans: 711 lbs/ft3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
175. What is the mass of 1.00 dm3 of mercury? The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3.
Ans: 1.36 × 104 g
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
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Test Bank Chemistry 11th Edition The Study of Change
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Chapter 1: Chemistry: The Study of Change
1. A tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.3
2. A concise verbal or mathematical statement of a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.3
3. A unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations is referred to as
A) a hypothesis. B) a law. C) a theory. D) none of the above.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.3
4. Complete the following sentence. A hypothesis is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.3
5. Complete the following sentence. A scientific law is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.3
6. Complete the following sentence. A theory is
A) a tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation.
B) a statement describing a relationship between phenomena that is always the same under the same conditions.
C) a unifying principle that explains a body of facts and relations.
D) a model used to visualize the invisible.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.3
7. Choose the response that includes all the items listed below that are pure substances.
i. orange juice ii. steam iii. ocean water iv. oxygen v. vegetable soup
A) i, iii, v B) ii, iv C) i, iii, iv D) iv only E) all of them are pure
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.4
8. Which of the following is an example of a physical property?
A) corrosiveness of sulfuric acid
B) toxicity of cyanide
C) flammability of gasoline
D) neutralization of stomach acid with an antacid
E) lead becomes a liquid when heated to 601oC
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.6
9. Which one of the following is an example of a physical property?
A) dynamite explodes D) ice floats on top of liquid water
B) meat rots if it is not refrigerated E) a silver platter tarnishes
C) gasoline burns
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.6
10. Which one of the following represents a physical change?
A) water, when heated to 100°C, forms steam
B) bleach turns hair yellow
C) sugar, when heated, becomes brown
D) milk turns sour
E) apples, when exposed to air, turn brown
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.6
11. All of the following are properties of sodium. Which one is a physical property of sodium?
A) It's surface turns black when first exposed to air.
B) It is a solid at 25°C and changes to a liquid when heated to 98°C.
C) When placed in water it sizzles and a gas is formed.
D) When placed in contact with chlorine it forms a compound that melts at 801°C.
E) Sodium is never found as the pure metal in nature.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.6
12. All of the following are properties of tin. Which one is a chemical property of tin?
A) Tin can be hammered into a thin sheet.
B) At –40°C a sheet of tin crumbles to a gray powder.
C) Tin melts at 231.9°C.
D) When a bar of tin is bent, it emits an audible “cry”.
E) Tin erodes when added to hydrochloric acid, and a clear gas forms.
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.6
13. Which one of the following represents a chemical change?
A) boiling water to form steam
B) burning a piece of coal
C) heating lead until it melts
D) mixing iron filings and sand at room temperature
E) breaking glass
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.6
14. Which of the following does not represent a chemical change?
A) a freshly cut apple turns brown
B) milk turns sour on standing at room temperature
C) when cooled to 0°C, liquid water becomes ice
D) frying an egg
E) fermentation of sugar to alcohol
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.6
15. The SI prefixes kilo and milli represent, respectively:
A) 10–9 and 10–6. D) 109 and 10–6.
B) 106 and 10–3. E) 10–9 and 10–1.
C) 103 and 10–3.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
16. The SI prefixes micro and milli represent, respectively:
A) 106 and 10–6. D) 10–3 and 109.
B) 10–3 and 106. E) 10–6 and 10–3.
C) 103 and 10–6.
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.7
17. The SI prefixes mega and deci represent, respectively:
A) 103 and 10–2. D) 10–6 and 102.
B) 106 and 10–1. E) 102 and 10–3.
C) 10–3 and 10–2.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.7
18. A centimeter corresponds to:
A) 10–2 meters. D) 10–9 meters.
B) 10–3 meters. E) 10–12 meters.
C) 10–6 meters.
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
19. A microliter corresponds to:
A) 10–2 liters. B) 10–3 liters. C) 10–6 liters. D) 10–9 liters. E) 10–12 liters.
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
20. Lead melts at 601.0°C. What temperature is this in °F?
A) 302°F B) 365°F C) 1,050°F D) 1,082°F E) 1,114°F
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.7
21. The element gallium melts at 29.8°C. What temperature is this in °F?
A) –54.1°F B) –7.8°F C) +13.5°F D) +51.3°F E) +85.6°F
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.7
22. Many home freezers maintain a temperature of 0°F. Express this temperature in °C.
A) –32°C B) –18°C C) 0°C D) 18°C E) 57.6°C
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.7
23. The highest temperature ever recorded in Phoenix, Arizona, was 122°F. Express this temperature in °C.
A) 50.0°C B) 64.4°C C) 67.8°C D) 162.0°C E) 219.6°C
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.7
24. Dry ice (carbon dioxide) changes from a solid to a gas at –78.5°C. What is this temperature in °F?
A) –173°F
B) –12.6°F
C) –109°F
D) –75.6°F
E) none of them are within 2°F of the right answer
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.7
25. Liquid nitrogen boils at –195.8°C. Express the boiling point of liquid nitrogen in kelvin.
A) –469.0 K
B) –77.4 K
C) all temperatures are 0 K on the Kelvin scale
D) 77.4 K
E) 469.0 K
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.7
26. Liquid nitrogen boils at –195.8°C. Express the boiling point of liquid nitrogen in °F.
A) –384.4°F B) –352.4°F C) –320.4°F D) –140.8°F E) –76.8°F
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.7
27. How many milliliters is 0.005 L?
A) 0.5 mL B) 5 mL C) 0.50 mL D) 0.000005 mL E) 200 mL
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
28. Express 7,500 nm as picometers.
A) 7.50 pm B) 75.0 pm C) 750 pm D) 7.5 × 106 pm E) 7.5 × 1012 pm
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
29. The diameter of Earth is 12.7 Mm. Express this diameter in centimeters.
A) 1.27 × 105 cm D) 1.27 × 108 cm
B) 1.27 × 106 cm E) 1.27 × 109 cm
C) 1.27 × 107 cm
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
30. In 1828, the diameter of the U.S. dime was changed to approximately 18 mm. What is this diameter when expressed in nanometers?
A) 1.8 × 109 nm D) 1.8 × 10–5 nm
B) 1.8 × 107 nm E) 1.8 × 10–10 nm
C) 1.8 × 101 nm
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
31. Which of the following represents the largest mass?
A) 2.0 × 102 mg D) 2.0 × 102 cg
B) 0.0010 kg E) 10.0 dg
C) 1.0 × 105 ng
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
32. The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3 at 25°C. Calculate the volume occupied by 25.0 g of lead.
A) 2.19 cm3 B) 0.456 cm3 C) 285 cm3 D) 1.24 cm3 E) 6.05 cm3
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
33. Iron has a density of 7.86 g/cm3. The volume occupied by 55.85 g of iron is
A) 0.141 cm3 B) 7.11 cm3 C) 2.8 cm3 D) 439 cm3 E) None of the above.
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.7
34. Bromine is a red liquid at 25°C. Its density is 3.12 g/cm3. What is the volume of 28.1 g of liquid bromine?
A) 87.7 cm3 D) 28.1 cm3
B) 0.111 cm3 . E) None of the above
C) 9.01 cm3
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.7
35. What is the volume of a 2.5 g block of metal if its density is 4.75 g/cm3?
A) 0.53 cm3 B) 1.9 cm3 C) 2.5 cm3 D) 4.75 cm3 E) 11.9 cm3
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.7
36. Which of the following objects will sink when dropped into a bucket of water?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3)
A) a cube of aluminum (density = 2.702 g/cm3)
B) a diamond (density = 3.51 g/cm3)
C) a chunk of dry ice (density = 1.56 g/cm3)
D) a chunk of sodium (density = 0.91 g/cm3)
E) a sphere of magnesium (density = 1.74 g/cm3)
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.7
37. You just measured a block of wood and obtained the following information:
mass = 55.120 g
length = 8.5 cm
height = 4.3 cm
width = 3.3 cm
Determine the volume and density of the wood block.
Ans: Volume of the wood block = 120 cm3; density of the wood block = 0.46 g/cm3.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
38. You just measured a metal cylinder and obtained the following information:
mass = 3.543 g
diameter = 0.53 cm
height = 4.4 cm
Determine the volume (V) and density of the cylinder. (V=pr2 h, where r = radius, h = height, p = 3.14)
Ans: Volume of the cylinder = 0.97 cm3; density of the cylinder = 3.7 g/cm3.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
39. You just measured a sugar cube and obtained the following information:
mass = 3.48 g
height = length = width = 1.3 cm
Determine the volume and density of the cube. Suppose the sugar cube was added to a cup of water. Before it dissolves, will the sugar cube float or sink to the bottom?
Ans: Volume of the sugar cube = 2.2 cm3; density of the sugar cube = 1.6 g/cm3. Before dissolving, the sugar cube will sink in a cup of water.
Category: Medium Section: 1.7
40. Express the number 26.7 in scientific notation.
A) 2.67 × 10–2
B) 2.67 × 10–1
C) 2.67 × 101
D) 2.67 × 102
E) 26.7 is already written in scientific notation
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
41. Express the number 0.000053 in scientific notation.
A) 5.3 × 10-2 B) 5.3 × 10-3 C) 5.3 × 10-4 D) 5.3 × 10-5 E) 5.3 × 10-6
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
42. The number 1.050 × 109 has how many significant figures?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 9 E) 13
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
43. How many significant figures are there in 0.3070 g?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) 2
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
44. After carrying out the following operations, how many significant figures are appropriate to show in the result?
(13.7 + 0.027) ÷ 8.221
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.8
45. How many significant figures does the result of the following operation contain?
8.52010 × 7.90
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.8
46. How many significant figures does the result of the following sum contain?
8.5201 + 1.93
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
47. How many significant figures does the result of the following sum contain?
8.520 + 2.7
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.8
48. How many significant figures does the difference 218.7201 – 218.63 contain?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.8
49. Using the arithmetic problem below, determine the correct number of significant figures.
(1.5 × 10–4 × 61.3) + 2.01 =
A) 2.0192 B) 2.0 C) 2.019 D) 2.02 E) 2.019195
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.8
50. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
2.4 x 10-4 + 3.1 x 10-2 =
A) 5.5 x 10-6 B) 5.5 x 10-8 C) 5.5 x 10-4 D) 3.1 x 10-2 E) 2.4 x 10-4
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.8
51. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
5.80 x 10-1 – 3.4 x 10-2 =
A) 5.5 x 10-1 B) 5.46 x 10-1 C) 2.4 x 10-3 D) 2.4 x 102 E) 5.5 x 10-2
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.8
52. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
4.5 x 1014 / 8.3 x 108 =
A) 5.4 x 1021 B) 5.4 x 1022 C) 5.4 x 106 D) 5.4 x 1014 E) 5.4 x 105
Ans: E Category: Easy Section: 1.8
53. Give the correct number of significant figures to the problem below.
6.2 x 10-13 x 5.68 x 108 =
A) 3.5 x 10-13 B) 3.5 x 10-5 C) 3.5 x 10-104 D) 3.5 x 10-4 E) 3.5 x 10-21
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
54. Convert 2.340 x 10-4 to decimal format.
A) 23,400 B) 2,340 C) 0.000234 D) 0.0002340 E) 0.002340
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.8
55. Convert 4.5 x 104 to decimal format.
A) 45,000 B) 4,500 C) 0.00045 D) 0.0045 E) 0.000450
Ans: A Category: Easy Section: 1.8
56. Convert 5.00 x 102 milliliters to quarts. (1L = 1.06 qt)
A) 1.88 qt B) 0.472 qt C) 0.528 qt D) 4.72 × 105 qt E) 5.28 × 105 qt
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
57. 1 US barrel = 4.21 cubic feet. Express this volume in liters.
A) 3.99 × 10–5 L B) 1.99 × 10–2 L C) 19.9 L D) 105 L E) 119 L
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
58. 1 barrel of oil contains 42.0 gallons. How many liters is this? (1L = 1.06 qt)
A) 9.9 L B) 11 L C) 142 L D) 158 L E) 178 L
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.9
59. The average distance from Earth to the sun is 9.3 × 107 miles. How many kilometers is this?
A) 1.5 × 108 km D) 1.7 × 10–8 km
B) 1.5 × 105 km E) 1.5 × 1011 km
C) 5.6 × 107 km
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
60. What is the area, in square centimeters, of an 8.5 inch by 11 inch sheet of paper?
A) 94 cm2 B) 240 cm2 C) 420 cm2 D) 6.0 × 102 cm2 E) 1.2 × 104 cm2
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
61. Suppose a house has a floor area of 2,250 square feet. What is this area in units of square centimeters?
A) 2.42 cm2 D) 6.86 × 104 cm2
B) 2.09 × 106 cm2 E) 101 cm2
C) 5.02 × 104 cm2
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
62. What is the volume, in cubic inches, of a brick that is 4.0 in × 2.7 in × 8.0 in?
A) 15 in3 B) 51 in3 C) 78 in3 D) 87 in3 E) 150 in3
Ans: D Category: Easy Section: 1.9
63. What is the volume, in cubic centimeters, of a brick that is 4.0 in × 2.7 in × 8.0 in?
A) 5.3 cm3 B) 53 cm3 C) 87 cm3 D) 4.8 × 102 cm3 E) 1.4 × 103 cm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
64. How many square kilometers are equivalent to 28.5 cm2?
A) 2.85 × 10–9 km2 D) 2.85 × 10–4 km2
B) 2.85 × 10–6 km2 E) none of these
C) 285 km2
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
65. If a car has an EPA mileage rating of 30 miles per gallon, what is this rating in kilometers per liter? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) 200 km/L B) 180 km/L C) 70 km/L D) 13 km/L E) 11 km/L
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
66. If the price of gasoline is $3.85 per U.S. gallon, what is the cost per liter? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) $1.02/L B) $14.60/L C) $0.96/L D) $3.85/L E) $3.63/L
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
67. An aluminum beverage can contain 12.0 fluid ounces of liquid. Express this volume in liters. (1 fl oz = 29.6 mL)
A) 4.07 × 10-2 L B) 0.355 L C) 0.407 L D) 2.46 L E) 3.55 × 102 L
Ans: B Category: Easy Section: 1.9
68. 1.572 × 108 troy oz of silver were used in the United States in 1980. How many kilograms is this? (1 troy oz = 31.1 g)
A) 4.89 × 106 kg D) 4.89 x 1012 kg
B) 4.89 kg E) 5.05 × 10 3 kg
C) 5.05 × 10 6 kg
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
69. A piece of metal with a mass of 611 g is placed into a graduated cylinder that contains 25.1 mL of water, raising the water level to 56.7 mL. What is the density of the metal?
A) 2.70 g/cm3 B) 7.13 g/cm3 C) 8.96 g/cm3 D) 10.5 g/cm3 E) 19.3 g/cm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
70. A piece of a metal alloy with a mass of 114 g was placed into a graduated cylinder that contained 25.0 mL of water, raising the water level to 42.5 mL. What is the density of the metal?
A) 0.154 g/cm3 D) 6.51 g/cm3
B) 0.592 g/cm3 E) 7.25 g/cm3
C) 2.68 g/cm3
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
71. A block of iron has a mass of 826 g. What is the mass of a block of magnesium that has the same volume as the block of iron? The following densities at 25°C are provided: magnesium, 1.7 g/cm3 ; graphite, 1.8 g/cm3 ; iron, 7.9 g/cm3.
A) 1,400 g
B) 3,800 g
C) 830 g
D) 180 g
E) none of them are within 10 g of the right answer.
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
72. A block of iron has a mass of 483 g. What is the mass of a block of graphite that has the same volume as the block of iron? The following densities at 25°C are provided: magnesium, 1.7 g/cm3 ; graphite, 1.8 g/cm3 ; iron, 7.9 g/cm3.
A) 110 g
B) 2120 g
C) 6870 g
D) 34 g
E) none of them are within 10 g of the right answer.
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
73. Calculate the mass of the air contained in a room that measures 2.50 m × 5.50 m × 3.00 m (density of air = 1.29 g/dm3 at 25°C).
A) 3.13 × 10 –5 g B) 32.0 kg C) 53.2 kg D) 53.2 g E) None of the above.
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
74. Iridium is essentially tied with osmium for the distinction of being called the “densest element” with a density of 22.5 g/cm3. What would be the mass in pounds of a 1.0 ft × 1.0 ft × 1.0 ft cube of iridium. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 1.5 lb B) 5.2 lb C) 6.20 lb D) 1.4 × 103 lb E) 6.4 × 105 lb
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
75. The Hope diamond weighs 44.0 carats. Determine the volume occupied by the diamond, given that its density is 3.5 g/cm3 at 20°C, and that 1 carat = 0.200 g.
A) 2.5 cm3 B) 0.40 cm3 C) 0.016 cm3 D) 63 cm3 E) 150 cm3
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
76. The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. What is the mass in pounds of 1.0 gallons of mercury? (1 lb = 453.6 g; 1 gal = 3.785 L)
A) 0.11 lb B) 30. lb C) 51 lb D) 83 lb E) 110 lb
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
77. The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. What volume (in quarts) is occupied by 100. g of Hg? (1 L = 1.06 qt)
A) 144 qt B) 7.35 qt C) 7.79 qt D) 7.79 × 10–3 qt E) 1.44 × 10–4 qt
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
78. The "escape velocity" from Earth (the speed required to escape Earth's gravity) is 2.5 × 104 miles per hour. What is this speed in m/s? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A) 4.2 × 10–3 m/s D) 1.1 × 104 m/s
B) 6.9 m/s E) 4.0 × 107 m/s
C) 4.2 × 102 m/s
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
79. Which of the following speeds is the greatest? (1 mile = 1609 m)
A) 40 mi/h D) 0.74 km/min
B) 2.0 × 105 mm/min E) 400 m/min
C) 40 km/h
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
80. Convert 4.5 m3 to L
A) 4.5 x 10-1 L D) 4.5x103 L
B) 4.5 x 101 L E) 4.5 x 102L
C) 4.5 x 10-3 L
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
81. Convert 6.4 mm3 to mL
A) 6.4 x 10-3 mL D) 6.4 x 10-2 mL
B) 6.4 x 10-1 mL E) 6.4 mL
C) 6.4 x 103 mL
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
82. Convert 7.2 cm3 to mm3
A) 7.2 x 101 mm3 D) 7.2 x 102 mm3
B) 7.2 x 10-5 mm3 E) 7.2 x 103 mm3
C) 7.2 x 10-3 mm3
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
83. Convert 4.6 km to mm.
A) 4.6 x 106 mm D) 4.6 x 10-2 mm
B) 4.6 x 103 mm E) 4.6 x 104 mm
C) 4.6 x 10-6 mm
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
84. Convert 4.89 mm to µm.
A) 4.89 x 10-6 µm D) 4.89 x 106 µm
B) 4.89 x 10-3 µm E) 4.89 x 109 µm
C) 4.89 x 103 µm
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
85. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below.
56 mm + 4.5 m =
A) 61 mm B) 61 m C) 61 m2 D) 4.6 m E) 4.56 m
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
86. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below.
3.4 x 10-2 mg + 448 µg =
A) 0.48 mg B) 0.482 mg C) 4.5 mg D) 4.48 mg E) 4.5 x 102 mg
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
87. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
58.00 mg – 45.22 µg =
A) 57.95 mg B) 12.78 mg C) 12.78 µg D) 57.55 µg E) 12.78 mg2
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
88. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
4.51 m x 3.2 m =
A) 14.4 m B) 14 m C) 14 m2 D) 14.4 E) 14.4 m2
Ans: C Category: Easy Section: 1.9
89. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
4.5 m / 8.52 m =
A) 0.528 m B) 0.53 m C) 0.53 m2 D) 0.53 E) 0.528 m2
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
90. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
8.22 m2 / 9.11 m =
A) 0.902 m2 B) 0.902 m3 C) 0.902 m D) 0.902 E) 0.90 m2
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
91. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
5.46 m3/ 2.01 m2 =
A) 2.72 m5 B) 2.72 m3 C) 2.72 m2 D) 2.72 m E) 2.72 m-1
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
92. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
5.67 m/ 2.04 m2 =
A) 2.78 m3 B) 2.78 m2 C) 2.78 m D) 2.78 E) 2.78 m-1
Ans: E Category: Medium Section: 1.9
93. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
(3.45 m + 2.78 m)/ 565 s =
A) 1.10 x 10-2 m2/s D) 1.10 x 10-2 s
B) 1.10 x 10-2 m/s E) 1.10 x 10-2 m2
C) 1.10 x 10-2 s-1
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
94. Give the correct number of significant figures and units to the problem below
(5.62 cm – 0.45 cm)/ 342 s =
A) 1.51 x 10-2 s-1 D) 1.5 s-1
B) 1.5 x 10-2 cm2/s E) 1.51 x 10-2 cm2·s
C) 1.51 x 10-2 cm/s
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
95. A long course triathlon entails a 2.0 mile swim, an 85.5 mile bike ride and a 15.0 mile run. What is the total distance in kilometers for the triathlon?
A) 160 km B) 165 km C) 103 km D) 164.9 km E) 102.5 km
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
96. A cyclist averages 18.5 miles per hour. How many minutes will it take for him to complete a 125 kilometer race?
A) 252 min B) 652 min C) 420 min D) 1440 min E) 405 min
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
97. A runner averages 8 minutes and 25 seconds per mile. What is her average velocity in miles per hour?
A) 7.27 mi/hr B) 7.13 mi/hr C) 8.42 mi/hr D) 4.36 mi/hr E) 0.140 mi/hr
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
98. Iron has a density of 7.87 g/cm3. What mass of iron would be required to cover a football playing surface of 120 yds × 60 yds to a depth of 1.0 mm? (1 inch = 2.54 cm; 1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 6.4 × 103 lb D) 4.7 × 107 lb
B) 6.4 × 104 lb E) 4.7 × 108 lb
C) 1.0 × 105 lb
Ans: C Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
99. Americans combined drive about 4.0×109 miles per day and their vehicles get an average of 20 miles per gallon of fuel used. For each 1 kg of gasoline that is burned, about 3.0 kg of CO2 are produced. How many kilograms of CO2 are emitted into the atmosphere each day by cars in the U.S.? One gallon of gas weighs about 3.5 kg.
A) 2.1 × 109 kg D) 93 kg
B) 8.4 × 1011 kg E) none of these
C) 1.7 × 108 kg
Ans: A Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
100. How many cubic centimeters of an ore containing only 0.22% gold (by mass) must be processed to obtain $100.00 worth of gold? The density of the ore is 8.0 g/cm3 and the price of gold is $818 per troy ounce. (14.6 troy oz = 1.0 ordinary pound, called an avoirdupois pound; 1 lb = 454 g)
A) 0.48 cm3 D) 1.7 × 103 cm3
B) 220 cm3 E) 1.8 × 104 cm3
C) 1.4 × 103 cm3
Ans: B Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
101. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, which is 3.00 × 108 m/s. How many minutes does it take for a radio message to reach Earth from Saturn if Saturn is 7.9 × 108 km from Earth?
A) 4.4 × 10–2 min D) 44 min
B) 1.6 × 105 min E) 2.6 min
C) 4.0 × 1015 min
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
102. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, which is 3.00 × 108 m/s. How many kilometers will radio messages travel in exactly one year?
A) 9.46 × 1015 km D) 9.46 × 1012 km
B) 7.30 × 108 km E) 3.33 × 10–3 km
C) 7.10 × 1010 km
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
103. The city of Los Angeles is now approximately 2400 miles south of Alaska. It is moving slowly northward as the San Andreas fault slides along. If Los Angeles is to arrive near Anchorage, Alaska, in 76 million years, at what average rate will it have to move in mm per month?
A) 2.0 × 10–10 mm/mo. D) 9.5 mm/mo.
B) 6.6 × 10–6 mm/mo. E) 51 mm/mo.
C) 4.2 mm/mo.
Ans: C Category: Medium Section: 1.9
104. The recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium is 1.2 g. Calcium carbonate contains 12.0% calcium by mass. How many grams of calcium carbonate are needed to provide the RDA of calcium?
A) 0.10 g B) 0.14 g C) 1.2 g D) 10 g E) 14 g
Ans: D Category: Medium Section: 1.9
105. A spherical vessel (diameter = 2.00 cm) when empty has a mass of 2.00 g. What is the greatest volume of water that can be placed in the vessel and still have the vessel float at the surface of water?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3)
A) 2.00 mL
B) 31.5 mL
C) 2.19 mL
D) 4.19 mL
E) the vessel will not float even when empty
Ans: C Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
106. A spherical vessel (diameter = 5.00 cm) when empty has a mass of 12.00 g. What is the greatest volume of water that can be placed in the vessel and still have the vessel float at the surface of benzene?
(Given: density of water = 1.00 g/cm3; density of benzene = 0.879 g/cm3)
A) 45.5 mL B) 448 mL C) 53.4 mL D) 57.5 mL E) 65.4 mL
Ans: A Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
107. One of the common intravenous fluids, called physiological saline, is a homogeneous mixture of NaCl in water. In this mixture, 0.89% of the mass is contributed by the NaCl. What mass of NaCl is found in 450. mL of physiological saline?
(Given: density of physiological saline = 1.005 g/cm3)
A) 2.0 g B) 4.0 g C) 5.1 g D) 508 g E) 400 g
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
108. A special flask used in the determination of densities, called a pycnometer, has a mass of 16.3179 g when empty, and it has a mass of 48.0250 g when filled with water at 20.0°C. When this same pycnometer is filled with ethyl alcohol at 20.0°C, it is found to have a mass of 41.3934 g. Find the density of ethyl alcohol at 20.0°C.
(Given: at 20.0°C, the density of water is 0.9982 g/mL)
A) 0.7894 g/mL D) 1.303 g/mL
B) 0.7923 g/mL E) 0.7674 g/mL
C) 0.7908 g/mL
Ans: A Category: Medium Section: 1.9
109. A particular flask has a mass of 17.4916 g when empty. When filled with ordinary water at 20.0°C (density = 0.9982 g/mL), the mass of the flask is now 43.9616 g. The density of so-called “heavy water” at 20.0°C is 1.1053 g/mL. What will the mass of the flask be when filled with heavy water at 20.0°C?
A) 29.2573 g B) 46.8016 g C) 46.7489 g D) 29.3100 g E) 43.9140 g
Ans: B Category: Medium Section: 1.9
110. Define matter.
Ans: Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
111. Define pure substance.
Ans: Matter that has a definite composition
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
112. Give three examples of pure substances.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Gold, sugar, oxygen, argon, water, methane
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
113. Define mixture.
Ans: A mixture is a combination of two or more substances in which the substances retain their distinct identities.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
114. Give three examples of mixtures.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Air, gasoline, sea water, salt and sand, iron filings and sand
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
115. Define element.
Ans: An element is a substance that cannot be separated into simpler substances by chemical means.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
116. Define compound.
Ans: A compound is a substance composed of atoms of two or more elements chemically united in fixed proportions.
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
117. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Ice cream.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
118. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Bread.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
119. Classify the following as a pure substance or a mixture: Seven-Up®.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
120. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Air.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
121. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Table salt (non-iodized).
Ans: Compound
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
122. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Iced tea.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
123. Classify the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture: Oxygen gas.
Ans: Element
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
124. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Brewed coffee, ready to drink.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
125. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Sugar to put in a cup of coffee.
Ans: Compound
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
126. Classify the following as a mixture, a compound, or an element: Milk.
Ans: Mixture
Category: Easy Section: 1.4
127. A pure yellow crystalline substance, when heated in a vacuum, releases a greenish gas and a red powder. Is the original yellow crystalline substance a compound or element?
Ans: Compound
Category: Medium Section: 1.4
128. What are the three states of matter?
Ans: Solid, liquid, and gas
Category: Easy Section: 1.5
129. What are the common names for the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of water?
Ans: Ice, water, and steam
Category: Easy Section: 1.5
130. Give examples of three physical properties.
Ans: (Answers will vary.) Melting point, boiling point, density, color
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
131. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Bacteria convert milk to yogurt.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
132. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas are combined to form ammonia gas.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
133. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Formation of snowflakes.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
134. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Corrosion of a metal.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
135. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Ripening of fruit.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
136. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Fashioning a table leg from a piece of wood.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
137. Identify the following as a physical or chemical change: Fermenting grapes.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
138. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Antifreeze boils out of a radiator.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
139. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Food spoils.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
140. Classify the following as a physical or chemical change: Alcohol evaporates.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
141. Classify the following as either a physical or a chemical property: Water boils at 100°C.
Ans: Physical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
142. Classify the following as either a physical or a chemical property: Newspaper burns.
Ans: Chemical
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
143. In the process of fixing breakfast you:
1. break open the egg
2. fry it
3. cut the fried egg into pieces
4. toast a slice of bread
5. cut the toast in half
Which of these are chemical processes?
Ans: 2 (frying the egg) and 4 (toasting the bread)
Category: Medium Section: 1.6
144. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Density
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
145. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Length
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
146. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Cost per unit
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
147. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Total cost
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
148. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Melting point
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
149. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: Boiling point
Ans: intensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
150. Classify the following as an intensive or an extensive property: mass
Ans: extensive
Category: Easy Section: 1.6
151. 0 K is the lowest temperature that can be attained theoretically.
Ans: True Category: Easy Section: 1.7
152. What is the lowest temperature that can be attained in units of °C (use 3 significant figures)?
Ans: – 273 °C
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
153. An organic liquid has a density of 1.2 g/cm3. What is the mass of a 35.0 cm3 sample of this liquid?
Ans: 42 g
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
154. What is the density of copper if 11.8 cm3 of copper has a mass of 105.2 g?
Ans: 8.92 g/cm3
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
155. What is the density of a salt solution if 75.0 mL of the solution has a mass of 32.0 g?
Ans: 0.427 g/mL
Category: Easy Section: 1.7
156. The weight of a body varies according to the force of gravity exerted on the body.
Ans: True Category: Medium Section: 1.7
157. The mass of a body varies according to the force of gravity exerted on the body.
Ans: False Category: Medium Section: 1.7
158. The SI base unit of time is the hour.
Ans: False Category: Easy Section: 1.7
159. 20°C is colder than 40°F.
Ans: False Category: Medium Section: 1.7
160. 16 megagrams (Mg) is equal to 1.6 × 107 g.
Ans: True Category: Easy Section: 1.7
161. How many significant figures does the number 30.40 contain?
Ans: 4
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
162. How many significant figures does the number 0.07010 contain?
Ans: 4
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
163. The number 9.64000 × 105 contains how many significant figures?
Ans: 6
Category: Easy Section: 1.8
164. An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm3. Express this volume in liters.
Ans: 1.6 L
Category: Easy Section: 1.9
165. An automobile engine has a piston displacement of 1,600 cm3. Express this volume in cubic inches. (1 in = 2.54 cm)
Ans: 98 in3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
166. An investor paid market price for a chunk of gold that he was told was pure. The gold bar had a mass of 440 g, but was slightly irregular so an exact volume could not be calculated. The investor filled a large graduated cylinder with water, immersed the chunk of gold, and observed an increase in the apparent volume of material in the graduated cylinder of 25.0 mL. Pure gold has a density of 19.3 g/cm3. Did the investor get his money's worth? Why or why not?
Ans: No. The investor's metal density is 17.6 g/cm3, thus the bar must not be pure gold.
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
167. An American engineer who had been transferred to Europe was asked to build bridge pilings exactly as he had in the United States. Each piling required 20.0 cubic yards of concrete in the United States. How many cubic meters of concrete are required for each piling? Given: 1 yd = 0.914 m.
Ans: 15.3 m3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
168. A soft drink costs 75 cents for a 12-oz can. A two-liter bottle costs $1.25. In which form is the soft drink more expensive? How much more expensive? (1.0 L = 1.057 qt, 1 qt = 32 oz)
Ans: The two-liter bottle is the better value. The can is over three times more expensive by volume.
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
169. A person weighs 150.0 lb, and the correct dosage of a drug is given as 1.50 mg per kilogram of body weight. How many milligrams of the drug should be given? (2.20 lb = 1 kg)
Ans: 102 mg
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
170. An archeologist finds a huge monolith in the desert. In order to estimate the weight of this object; he estimates the dimensions of the monolith and removes some chips from the rock with his hammer, collecting the following data:
dimensions of the monolith = 1.5 m × 5.2 m × 13 m
mass of rock chips = 41.73 g
volume of rock chips = 15.2 cm3
Determine the mass of the monolith in pounds, assuming it is of uniform composition. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
Ans: 6.1 × 105 lb
Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
171. An excavator is preparing to dig a basement for a new house. Part of his contract reads that he must dispose of all the dirt he removes while digging the basement in an EPA approved landfill. He will dig a hole that is 40 feet wide by 50 feet long and 7.5 feet deep. He first uses his shovel and scoops up 1.00 kg of dirt, and then determines that the dirt has a volume of 600 cm3. The excavator knows that his dump truck can only carry 8,000 kg of dirt. How many dump-truck loads will it take to haul the dirt away?
Ans: 89 dump-truck loads
Category: Difficult Section: 1.9
172. What will be the cost of gasoline for a 3,700-mile trip in a car that gets 23 miles per gallon, if the average price of gas is $3.90 per gallon?
Ans: $630
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
173. What will be the cost of gasoline for a 4,700-mile automobile trip if the car gets 41 miles per gallon, and the average price of gas is $3.79 per gallon?
Ans: $430
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
174. The density of lead is 11.4 g/cm3. Express this density in pounds per cubic foot.
Ans: 711 lbs/ft3
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
175. What is the mass of 1.00 dm3 of mercury? The density of mercury is 13.6 g/cm3.
Ans: 1.36 × 104 g
Category: Medium Section: 1.9
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Test Bank Changing Families Relationships in Context 3rd Edition
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CHAPTER 1
Introduction to Family Studies
TRUE-FALSE
1. An institution is a recognized area of social life that is organized along a system of norms regulating behaviour.
Answer: True Difficulty: easy Page: 3 Skill: conceptual
2. In complex societies like Canada, the institution of the family has a great deal of stability.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 3 Skill: conceptual
3. Jennifer lives with her grandparents, John and Susan Smith. She is living in a horizontal nuclear family.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 5-6 Skill: applied
4. John cohabits with Jane. Jane was previously married to Jack. While Jane was married to Jack, they had two children, Sam and Edith. Sam and Edith now live with John and Jane. This is referred to as a extended nuclear family.
Answer: False Difficulty: challenging Page: 5-6 Skill: applied
5. Marriage is a more or less recent cultural invention in the history of humanity and so should not be equated with families.
Answer: True Difficulty: easy Page: 4 Skill: factual
6. One of the problems with including friends in an inclusive definition of the family is that family is an acquired status and friends are ascribed.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 4 Skill: conceptual
7. Political economy perspectives analyze social inequalities within the context of the historical development of the economy.
Answer: True Difficulty: moderate Page: 11 Skill: factual
8. A functionalist perspective differs from a political economy perspective in that social change is a necessitated.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 11 Skill: conceptual
9. A social construct is a socially accepted definition of a situation; it is a cultural interpretation.
Answer: True Difficulty: easy Page: 16 Skill: conceptual
10. The following statement is an example of social stratification by gender: The household division of labour is still largely unequal in that it gives more flexibility to males because they can choose the activities they engage in at home.
Answer: True Difficulty: moderate Page: 16 Skill: conceptual
11. An important feature of the developmental perspective in family studies is the emphasis it places on cross-sectional analysis.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 23 Skill: conceptual
12. Symbolic interactionism emphasizes the formation of meanings and self-concept.
Answer: True Difficulty: moderate Page: 25 Skill: conceptual
13. The analysis of motherhood as a social product rather than as a purely natural product is the focus of the behaviour genetics perspective.
Answer: False Difficulty: moderate Page: 27 Skill: conceptual
14. Quantitative research methods are more scientific than qualitative research methods.
Answer: False Difficulty: easy Page: 31 Skill: conceptual
15. A statistical survey is an example of qualitative research data.
Answer: False Difficulty: easy Page: 31 Skill: conceptual
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A society transmits its values and traditions to the next generation through the process of
a. social control.
b. socialization.
c. institutionalization.
d. reproduction.
e. role models.
Answer: b Difficulty: easy Page: 3 Skill: conceptual
2. The minimum requirement to meet the definition of the family consists of
a. two close friends who share a household.
b. the extended family.
c. a husband and a wife.
d. two related generations in one household.
e. a monogamous relationship.
Answer: d Difficulty: easy Page: 4 Skill: conceptual
3. A horizontal family
a. includes grandparents in the household.
b. sisters, or brothers, or cousins living together without the parent generation.
c. includes remarried or cohabiting spouses residing with at least one child from a previous union.
d. refers to a temporary period in which a LAT family shares a household residence.
e. refers to a situation in which adult children return to live with parents.
Answer: b Difficulty: easy Page: 5-6 Skill: conceptual
4. Juanita lives with her mother part of the time but spends weekends and holidays with her father. She is living in
a. a binuclear family.
b. an extended family.
c. a horizontal nuclear family.
d. a reconstituted family.
e. a LAT family.
Answer: a Difficulty: moderate Page: 6 Skill: applied
5. Fictive kinship refers to
a. parents' friends who are incorporated in the family as uncles and aunts.
b. relatives or extended family.
c. families in fiction or novels.
d. adoption.
e. polygamous relationships.
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 7 Skill: conceptual
6. Which of the following statements regarding polygamous marriage is most accurate?
a. A woman most likely to enter a polygamous marriage lives in a community with a sex ratio imbalance of more women than men.
b. A woman most likely to enter a polygamous marriage lives in a urban setting, has a fairly high level of education, and comes from a upper class family.
c. A woman most likely to enter a polygamous marriage lives in a rural setting, has little education, and comes from a disadvantaged family.
d. A woman most likely to enter a polygamous relationship lives in a society in which polygamous unions are widely accepted.
e. A woman most likely to enter a polygamous marriage lives in society where gender inequality is unknown.
Answer: c Difficulty: challenging Page: 8 Skill: conceptual
7. Political economy perspectives focus on the social inequalities that may arise from the
a. capitalist market.
b. federal government.
c. provincial government.
d. underground economy.
e. family structure.
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 11 Skill: conceptual
8. Which of the following statements about political economy perspectives is correct?
a. Society functions as an organism that collaborate together for optimal success.
b. There is little interest in redressing inequality.
c. Gender inequality plays a key role in the proper functioning of society.
d. There is the possibility for change at the global level.
e. Maternal employment threatens the equilibrium of the family.
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 11 Skill: conceptual
9. Conflict theory is rooted in which historical theory?
a. Structural functionalism.
b. Marxism
c. Life course perspectives
d. Symbolic interactionism
e. Behaviour genetics
Answer: b Difficulty: moderate Page: 11 Skill: factual
10. Gender differentiation within a structural functionalist perspective holds that there is an instrumental role and an expressive role to be fulfilled within the family. An example of the instrumental role would be
a. a father as breadwinner and conduit between family and society.
b. a mother as caregiver and domestic labourer.
c. a heterosexual couple fulfilling the economic needs of the family through wage labour.
d. children engaged in domestic chores suitable to their age and development.
e. a mother engaged in maintaining community relations between family and society.
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 11 Skill: conceptual
11. According to structural functionalism, when Maria is engaged in making a meal for her family and her husband, Phillipe, is still at work, she is engaging in a(n) _________ function and he is engaging in a(n) ________ function.
a. masculine, feminine
b. feminine, masculine
c. instrumental, expressive
d. expressive, instrumental
e. cooking, earning money
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 11 Skill: applied
12. Nghia, 26, is contemplating marriage with his girlfriend whom he has been dating since high school. His decision is complicated because another woman, whom he finds very attractive, has made it very clear that she is interested in him. Compared to his girlfriend, she is better educated and has a better job. His difficulty in making this decision best reflects the tenets of
a. feminist perspectives.
b. interactional-transactional perspectives.
c. developmental perspectives.
d. rational theory.
e. social exchange theory.
Answer: e Difficulty: challenging Page: 14 Skill: applied
13. Which of the following is an example of parental transmission of cultural capital?
a. Parents who provide nutritious meals for their children.
b. Parents who provide their children with a large financial allowance.
c. Parents who take their children to a science museum.
d. Parents who take their children on long walks.
e. Parents who set early bedtimes for their children.
Answer: c Difficulty: moderate Page: 15 Skill: applied
14. A family whose members often interact informally with a number of politicians and their families have more ___________ than a family who never has an opportunity to meet with politicians on an informal basis.
a. rational choices
b. human capital
c. social capital
d. economic alternatives
e. instrumental value
Answer: c Difficulty: moderate Page: 15 Skill: applied
15. Which of the following concepts is most closely identified with the catch phrase “it takes a village to raise a child”?
a. Effective community
b. Cultural capital
c. Distributive justice
d. Altruistic motives
e. Social closure
Answer: a Difficulty: moderate Page: 15 Skill: conceptual
16. An example of a social construct is
a. a social definition.
b. childhood.
c. the description of a woman who nurses her child.
d. a cultural invention.
e. a function for which the family as an institution is responsible.
Answer: b Difficulty: easy Page: 16 Skill: applied
17. The way in which motherhood is socially constructed in a particular society is primarily a product of
a. the internal practices of family interaction.
b. the choices parents make in socializing their children.
c. genetics.
d. the economic system.
e. the socioeconomic status of a particular family.
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 17 Skill: conceptual
18. In which geographic region is multiple mothering or parenting the norm?
a. Canada
b. Europe
c. Africa
d. Australia
e. The United States
Answer: c Difficulty: easy Page: 18 Skill: factual
19. That the family is understood to be a private institution, unaffected by external inequities, is criticized by both
a. structural functionalism and feminist perspectives.
b. rational theory and feminist perspectives.
c. structuralism and feminist perspectives.
d. symbolic interactionism and feminist perspectives.
e. social constructionism and feminist perspectives.
Answer c Difficulty: challenging Page: 20-21 Skill: conceptual
20. Gender stratification refers to
a. the organization of society whereby males have access to more resources, power, and autonomy than women.
b. gender roles.
c. the analysis of the social system within a feminist perspective.
d. the organization of social classes.
e. the intersection of race, class, and gender.
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 22 Skill: conceptual
21. Developmental theories of the family that focus on the macro-level would analyze which of the following?
a. The economic structure of society.
b. The role of current political affairs.
c. The effects of current technological innovations on the family.
d. The historical context of the society.
e. The intergenerational transmission of a family’s culture.
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 23 Skill: factual
22. Which of the following is an example of an off-time family event?
a. A child graduating from high school at eighteen years of age
b. A mother bearing her first child at age fifteen
c. A mother returning to waged labour when her child starts kindergarten
d. Becoming a grandparent when middle-aged
e. A couple choosing to have their first child after completing post-secondary education
Answer: b Difficulty: easy Page: 23 Skill: applied
23. The recognition that the age at which couples have their first child will affect family dynamics, child development, and life chances is derived from
a. social structural perspectives.
b. symbolic interactionism.
c. rational theory.
d. feminist perspectives.
e. developmental perspectives.
Answer: e Difficulty: moderate Page: 23 Skill: conceptual
24. Symbolic interactionism is highly suitable for the study of _____________, a previously neglected aspect of the study of family life.
a. significant others
b. emotions
c. the development of gender identity
d. ascribed status
e. the looking glass self
Answer: b Difficulty: moderate Page: 25 Skill: conceptual
25. Symbolic interactionism refers to the idea that people develop their ___________through interaction with significant others.
a. self-definition
b. egos
c. emotions
d. instincts
e. values
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 25 Skill: conceptual
26. The interactional-transactional perspective explains how, for instance,
a. interactions between parents and children feedback upon each other.
b. family members develop their feelings of group solidarity.
c. the transactions between parents and the economic system operate.
d. family members are part of a larger kinship system.
e. fictive kin become important to a nuclear family.
Answer: a Difficulty: easy Page: 26 Skill: conceptual
27. When parents are teaching their children to ride a bicycle, they are dependent upon the interest and cooperation of their children in order to be successful. This example underlines the importance of
a. parent-child bonding.
b. discipline in parent-child relations.
c. good balance.
d. seeing the child as an active social actor.
e. teaching children the skills necessary to interact with peers.
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 26 Skill: applied
28. According to behaviour genetics, child development is a product of
a. biological determinism.
b. the genetic makeup of the parents.
c. evolutionary processes.
d. the interaction between genetics and environment.
e. the shared environment of genetically related individuals.
Answer: d Difficulty: moderate Page: 27 Skill: conceptual
29. In the following statement, which is the independent variable? “Children who are cared for in day care centres develop a high degree of comfort in social interaction with both peers and adults.”
a. children who are cared for in day care centres
b. children who are not cared for in day care centres
c. child care
d. degree of comfort in social interaction
e. peers and adults
Answer: c Difficulty: challenging Page: 29 Skill: applied
30. In the following statement, which is the dependent variable? “Husbands who beat
their wives were raised in abusive families.”
a. abusive families
b. wives
c. degree of physical harm to wives
d. husbands who beat their wives
e. spousal abuse
Answer: e Difficulty: challenging Page: 29 Skill: applied
31. Which of the following is stated as a testable hypothesis?
a. A hypothesis is a testable prediction or sentence.
b. Families come in many different shapes and sizes..
c. Women with higher earnings than their husbands receive more help in housework than women with lower earnings than their husbands.
d. Husbands and wives tended to lead entirely separate lives among lower-class Romans 22 centuries ago.
e. Young single mothers make up the majority of Canada’s urban poor.
Answer: c Difficulty: moderate Page: 29 Skill: applied
32. The HIV ‘epidemic’ in South Africa has created enormous numbers of orphaned children. This event provides an opportunity for
a. observation.
b. a ‘natural’ experiment.
c. a contextual analysis.
d. an invasion of private grief.
e. evaluative research.
Answer: b Difficulty: moderate Page: 30 Skill: applied
33. What concerns us most as family sociologists is choosing
a. statistical methods that include very large samples.
b. a research method that can best describe the human reality we wish to study within its social context.
c. a method that allows us to draw from personal experience.
d. a research method that is longitudinal.
e. a research method that is most suitable to the nuclear family structure.
Answer: b Difficulty: easy Page: 30 Skill: factual
34. Which of the following is a characteristic that can be used to describe qualitative research?
a. statistical
b. simple
c. holistic
d. economic
e. linear
Answer: c Difficulty: easy Page: 31 Skill: factual
35. Which of the following statements is the most accurate? The family is an ideal phenomenon for
a. making associations between microsociological and macrosociological analysis.
b. recognizing the polarization of micro and macro level sociological analysis.
c. creating holistic theories about social institutions.
d. debunking the ability of sociologists to adequately explain small groups.
e. recognizing that sociological analysis is primarily commonsense.
Answer: a Difficulty: moderate Page: 31 Skill: conceptual
SHORT ANSWER
1. Describe why Durkheim (1895) refers to families as institutions.
Answer: An institution is a recognized area of social life that is organized along a system of widely accepted norms that have developed over time to regulate behaviours. The elements of organization and norms contribute to the predictability of life: People know what to expect—it is a shared culture. Over time, each society evolves a set of norms or rules that guides the behaviours of family members toward one another and toward other institutions.
Difficulty: easy Page: 3 Skill: factual
2. Describe how developmental (life course) perspectives are unique to the study of families.
Answer: Family development theory is unique to the study of families for two reasons: This perspective considers families in relation to their internal dynamics at the microsociological level while at the same time studying families within the historical context of their society at the macrosociological level. Microsociology concentrates on interactions between individuals within small groups while macrosociology concentrates on large-scale social phenomena such as economic forces, gender, race, class, and cultural context. At the micro level, the life course perspective holds that families change throughout the course of their life cycle so that the roles of individual family members but also the family as a whole change or adapt according to the part of the cycle in which they happen to be located. For example, the birth of a newborn results in the new roles of father and mother (or parenthood), and children moving out of the house at a later stage in the family’s development bring about other changes to the family dynamic at a later stage in the family’s life cycle. At the macro level, families are influenced by global social developments and thus change and adapt accordingly. For example, changes in changes in technology but also normative influences such as socially accepted ages at which child-bearing occurs influence the internal dynamics of family decision-making and role adaptation. Families are affected by the interaction of both of these levels of society. It is necessary to study both the internal dynamics of family life and human development as well as how these factors are affected by larger social contexts.
Difficulty: challenging Page: 22-23 Skill: conceptual
3. Describe the interactional–transactional approach and its use in the study of the family.
Answer: The interactional–transactional approach proposes that individuals construct their own environment, at the interpersonal level, at the same time as they are being shaped by their environment. Interactions between family members feedback on each other. Parents affect children while, at the same time, children affect parents. This approach is sensitive to the diversity of the family and stresses the multiplicity of factors and interactions that impact on family members.
Difficulty: moderate Page: 26 Skill: conceptual
4. How are social constructionism and feminism related in the study of the family?
Answer: Social constructionism argues that family life is a cultural invention or a socially accepted definition of how people should make families and interact within families. The power of socially approved constructions encourages people to follow the norms that have developed in regard to family life in a particular society during a particular historical period. The definitions which arise come from those who are in power and those who produce valued knowledge at a particular time in history. This knowledge can be religious, medical, psychological, or legal and have all developed from a masculine power base. Feminists study the effects of a patriarchal society on women’s experiences and how gender roles develop within various cultural groups during different periods of history. Patriarchal societies are understood to be male dominated.
Difficulty: moderate Page: 28-29 Skill: conceptual
5. How is family defined in this chapter? In what ways is this definition an exclusive one? In what ways is it an inclusive one? What are the problems with definitions of family that are too inclusive?
Answer: The author defines family in the following way: A family is a social group and institution. At it is most basic and essential level, family consists of at least two generations in one household or it can refer to persons living together who are related to one another through another generation, such as siblings or cousins. Family members are related to one another by blood, adoption, or marriage/cohabitation. This definition is exclusive in the sense that family membership is an enduring ascribed status such that it does not include unrelated single people living together in the same household based on their achieved status which are fleeting and may change over time (boarders, friends or roommates sharing the same house, neighbours, and ex-spouses). This definition is inclusive in that it also includes same sex parents, single parents, and number of parents. When families are defined too inclusively we run into the following analytical problems: First, an inclusive family group has much in common with the concepts of social networks and support networks such as friends and neighbours and so the specificity of the concept family becomes too broad and cumbersome. Second, social policies at the level of the state require a high degree of definitional precision in order to determine, for example, who qualifies for parental benefits. Third, if we broaden the definition of the family too much, the term family becomes meaningless and, more importantly, it would become difficult to compare contemporary families with those of the past.
Difficulty: moderate Page: 3-5 Skill: conceptual
6. What is the distinction between the concepts of gender stratification and gender roles? Explain how these two concepts relate to each other.
Answer: Gender roles represent the social definition of what, in a society, is constructed as appropriately masculine or feminine in terms of behaviour. Gender roles are norms or rules that define how males and females should think and behave. Together, they result in men and women accepting their proper place in society according to the dictates of gendered structural arrangements. Gender roles occur at the interface of macro and microsociological levels of interaction. At the macro level, gender roles are supported by the masculine, patriarchal organization or stratification system of society that provides more power and resources to men than to women. This affects relationships between men and women at an interpersonal level and contributes to differentiated gender roles.
Difficulty: moderate Page: 22 Skill: conceptual
7. How can quantitative and qualitative methods complement each other?
Answer: Qualitative methods are based on numbers, percentages, and averages and they provide correlational information about broad patterns of behaviour. Quantitative methods provide opportunities for family members to express their understandings of their experiences and are arrived at through diaries, case studies, summaries, quotes, and open-ended questions. Together they provide a more holistic perspective on family experiences.
Difficulty: moderate Page: 31 Skill: conceptual
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Test Bank Changing Families Relationships in Context 3rd Edition Solution
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Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
Chapter 1
Introduction to Family Studies
INSTRUCTOR'S INTRODUCTION
The two distinctive features of this chapter reside, first, in the broader range of theoretical perspectives presented compared to other textbooks. All the theoretical perspectives presented in this chapter are highlighted at some point in the text. Second, as explained in the Preface of the textbook, the themes provide the threads that link various topics together, often leading to matters of social policies affecting family life. The themes present the text's “voice,” “flavour,” or perspective. This perspective comes from my own fieldwork as well as from readings that have particularly influenced me throughout the years. These themes are useful instruments of integrative analysis, social critique, and social policy building.
ADDITIONAL CLASS MATERIAL ON METHODS
The following class material is meant to accompany Table 1.2 on Methods in Family Research. Instructors may wish to return to this topic in a later lecture to avoid beginning the course with methods. Although qualitative material is discussed, the emphasis is on quantitative methods. The reason is that Canadian instructors in family studies, including myself, tend to have a greater expertise in qualitative methods. The additional material is intended to complement instructors’ expertise whenever appropriate.
Another suggestion: You may reserve these notes and the related pages from Chapter 1 and use them to accompany the Family Research inserts that appear in each chapter. Or these inserts may be put together along with Table 1.2 to create a Module or special lecture on research methods in family studies at a convenient point in your program.
Surveys
Surveys probably constitute the largest source of research information in the sociology of families. The results of many longitudinal surveys of large samples, including several generations within a family, are becoming available. For Canada, one can think of Statistics Canada's General Social Surveys and the National Longitudinal Survey of Children and Youth which began in the early 1990s. In the U.S., one can think here of the National Longitudinal Survey of Youth, the Panel Study of Income Dynamics, and the National Survey of Families and Households--which are older than the Canadian survey of children and youth and include several generations within a same family. Family research utilizing surveys has recourse to a multiplicity of "instruments" (i.e., questionnaires in this case), but a few prominent "scales" or questionnaires that have been extensively tested are used repeatedly throughout family studies. One can think here of the Marital Adjustment Test for Marital Satisfaction developed by Locke and Wallace in 1959, the Conflict Tactics Scale to measure the
Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
behaviours of people during a situation of conflict which was developed by Straus in 1979, and the Psychological Maltreatment of Women Inventory developed by Tolman in 1989, which is a self-report questionnaire for men.
Online questionnaires are now the least expensive survey method followed by phone interviews. Face-to-face interviews are the most expensive forms of surveys. The latter, however, particularly when combined with a self-administered questionnaire, including some open-ended questions for qualitative data and interviewers' observations, provide a far richer and textured set of data or information than mail or phone surveys and, so far, even online surveys.
In order to generalize to the rest of the population, surveys have to use a random sample. A random sample gives an equal chance to all the members in a category of people of being selected. When a targeted sample includes a small minority of the population, for instance lesbian couples who give birth, researchers often turn to other sampling techniques that are not random. They may ask colleagues for names of persons who would be willing to be interviewed and, in turn, these persons may provide additional referrals. This is at times called the "snowball sampling technique." Other researchers place advertisements on campuses for student volunteers or advertisements in newspapers or magazines. The people who respond to these ads are then interviewed. While the latter methods may be useful to explore a topic, they do not necessarily yield generalizable data or information. Why? Because respondents are self-selected. For instance, fathers who respond to an ad seeking subjects for a study of father-daughter incest may be those fathers who feel truly guilty for their actions, who have maintained a good relationship with their daughter, or who may not have engaged in sexual intercourse with them. In contrast, fathers in denial may not respond and neither might fathers who are unrepentant. Thus, the study will not reach the entire spectrum of types of father-daughter incest and consequences.
Surveys have several limitations. First, they can focus on only a limited number of topics and can ask only a limited number of questions. Therefore, this presents a problem for secondary analyses. That is, researchers who later have recourse to these large data banks for their own topics may have very limited material at their disposal, such as only one question (indicator) for, say, marital happiness. This is often too little. Second, multiple-choice questions do not offer respondents the chance to express the magnitude of their experience or feelings. The latter are better obtained through open-ended questions that yield in-depth qualitative data. Third, surveys often ask questions that respondents have never thought about before or questions that do not address respondents' current preoccupations, joys, and problems. In contrast, in-depth interviews or questionnaires can avoid this pitfall as they are in great part driven by respondents. The students' autobiographies in the textbook are an example of an in-depth questionnaire that allows respondents to choose which of their own life experience and preoccupations they will use as the basis of their responses. Thus, qualitative surveys yield richer data but they are time consuming and expensive to analyze. They also require great analytical skills and extensive theoretical linkages.
Observations
Observers may simply record what they see or they can do audio and now videotapes that are analyzed later by independent coders. Coders are persons hired to give a name to the behaviour they observe on the video by segments of a few seconds at a time. A code number is generally assigned to
Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
each type of behaviour so that statistics can be derived. For instance, a child who smiles at his mother while she speaks to him may be coded as "warm response" and receive a score of 5 on a 5-point scale. Such codings often take place with the help of a computer already equipped with keys corresponding to the observed categories: The coders then simply press the key corresponding to "warm versus cold behaviours" and then press the number or code 5 in the above example.
Indirect observations, combined with a form of instant (or “live”) surveys, are also used. For instance, families can be given a pager or their members can be “beeped” on their cell phones at random times during a day. At that point, all family members are asked to check multiple-choice questions (the same for all members) in order to gain a more holistic picture and also to compare the perspective of each family member with that of the others. For example, parents’ answers can be compared to each other, to their children’s, or siblings to each other. Questions generally ask where they are at the time of beeping, what they are doing, with whom, and what their mood or feelings are, etc.
Observation studies can be designed to include a great deal of qualitative information in addition to the statistical one. Observation of families in their natural settings is a very difficult enterprise to undertake for many reasons. Families may be reluctant to participate, they may alter their daily activities to look better in the observer's eyes, or they may not have enough space at home to accommodate the observer. Naturalistic observations in public places are also possible, such as when parents and children are playing together in a park or are talking in a restaurant.
Experiments
At times, fieldwork can include a level of experimentation, particularly when it takes place in a laboratory setting. One can think here of the research whereby various instruments are attached to the respondents' skin to measure heart rate, pulse, perspiration levels (as in a lie-detector test), and even draw samples of blood to examine chemical changes in response to happiness or stress, for example. Couples interact around assigned tasks and the researchers can follow chemical and organic changes that take place when a stressor is introduced, when a couple disagrees, or when a couple is affectionate.
Real experiments generally include at least two groups: The experimental group that is given a specific stimulus such as the possibility to watch a violent or an erotic video; also needed is a control group similar to the other one which does not receive the stimulus or the treatment in medical research. The two groups are measured on various dimensions derived from the researcher's theory both before and after the stimulus. For instance, along these lines, it has been found that parents who were asked to interact with a child who had been trained by researchers to behave in an oppositional-conflictual manner tended to drink more alcoholic beverages after the session than similar parents who had interacted with the same child who had played a very cooperative and prosocial role with them. These children who are trained by researchers on how to behave are called "child confederates."
Naturalistic experiments are those that involve, for instance, the study of family functioning before a mother is diagnosed with breast cancer and after the diagnosis or even the surgery. Such families can be observed or interviewed. Their level of warmth toward each other, of help to the mother, and so
Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
on, is measured before and after a natural situation (or stimulus) occurs. Naturalistic experiments are not frequent because researchers rarely have the opportunity of knowing in advance of positive or negative changes that occur in a family. But longitudinal surveys often do catch changes, such as a divorce, and are able to compare a family's behaviour years before and even after, and also compare such a family with one in which divorce does not occur, or before and after a natural disaster. Experiments can be combined with indirect observations mentioned above.
Evaluative Research
Evaluative studies may involve a quasi-experimental design whereby researchers test parents, children, or families before a treatment or a social intervention is initiated and re-test them after. Generally, a control group is involved. The goal of evaluative research is to appraise the success or failure of an intervention or of several interventions which are being compared to see which is the most effective. For instance, researchers recently compared two programs designed to lower levels of wife abuse. They used pre- and post-measures as is generally the case in a well-designed evaluative study.
Welfare initiatives are often evaluated but one has to be very careful and closely examine the procedures involved in the evaluation, particularly when a government agency evaluates its own programmes (self-evaluation). For instance, after WorkFare for people on social assistance was introduced in Ontario, the government reported a sharp decline in the welfare caseload of assisted families. This was touted as proof of success for this initiative. Yet, independent researchers found that only one third of the former welfare recipients had actually exited poverty. The rest were still as poor as before. At the same time, food banks were noticing an increase in the utilization of their resources by families. Obviously, what was needed was a methodology whereby WorkFare families (generally mother-headed) were followed up carefully to see how many were still employed, whether they were still poor or if they were worse off than when they were socially assisted. Reliance on just one statistics, such as a drop in the welfare rolls, can be very misleading when evaluating the success of a programme. (Evaluative research is mentioned in the textbook in Chapter 14 as it is very important with respect to outcomes of social policies.)
Content and Secondary Analysis and Historical Research
Secondary analysis refers to the very widespread practice whereby researchers utilize the data contained in the various surveys discussed earlier and analyze some segments of it. These analyses are secondary because they come after the original design of the surveys has occurred. The researchers who design a survey and analyze its data engage in a primary analysis: They had designed the survey to answer certain specific research questions. Researchers who engage in secondary analyses fall into two categories. Those who are knowledgeable in a field and are testing specific hypotheses derived from their theoretical perspective or are searching for an answer to a research question that has not yet been analyzed. These researchers know that a given survey contains relevant information. Then there are those who are simply in search of "publishable material" and take the data in the survey and analyze it until they find what are called "statistically significant differences" or, yet, correlations. The latter researchers are not guided by knowledge or theory and may try to find a theoretical perspective that explains what they have found after the fact, so to speak.
Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
Content analyses of, for instance, television programmes, websites, YouTube, social media, and magazine articles can be very useful to pinpoint trends that can influence children's behaviours (i.e., violence) or family relations (i.e., portrayal of parents or of the maternal or paternal role). Historical family research utilizes, in addition to public statistics, the content analysis of personal documents such as diaries, family genealogies and marking events, marriage and baptism records in churches of past centuries, advice books written for parents, advertising in old magazines and newspapers, old newspapers' accounts that pertain to family life, biographies, ledgers and bookkeeping records of farms, estates, and plantations, ship manifests and captains' logbooks, to name only the main sources for content analysis. Novels can also be content analyzed for portrayal of family. Paintings of family groups can also be examined, a method that Philippe Aries has used to demonstrate that children in earlier European centuries were part of the adult world at a relatively young age. Poetry, oral tradition, and written songs can also be sources of insight into family lifestyles and preoccupations of a given period.
HELP WITH ANALYTICAL QUESTIONS (located at the end of chapter in the textbook)
Question 1. Possibilities: Some instructors, for ideological reasons, see families as a "traditional" concept. Others like to emphasize that the element of choice and intimate relations seem to fulfill this perspective. However, not all family members are involved in intimate relations; some may actually be strangers but still recognize that they belong to the same family (as illustrated in a quote in the Student’s Guide and in a question also in the Guide). The emphasis on intimate relations will not cover such family members. As well, one can have intimate relations outside the family and with individuals who pass through one's life for only a brief period of time, and who never penetrate one's familial circle. Thus, families and intimate relations are two separate concepts that overlap in some instances but cover different realities in other instances. The concept of intimate relations misses the notion of institution, the intergenerational aspect of families, and the reality of extended families. As well, it is not a concept that is well adapted to the situation of many new Canadians.
Question 3. Linkages of themes to theories:
● Social inequalities can be linked to political economy theories, structural functionalism, rational theory (capital), and feminist theories. They can also be linked to behaviour genetics in the sense that social inequalities limit individuals’ development of some of their abilities, particularly at the intellectual and personal control levels.
● Gender inequalities and roles originate from feminist theories and are also linked to political economy theories and to social constructions of reality. They can be linked to the developmental aspects of a family (as, for instance, one sees the continuation of the nurturing role of women throughout the stages of family development) as well as to social exchange theory and even interactional theories.
● Family diversity can be linked to structural functionalism or as a critique of its original conception; to political economy theories; to feminism; to social constructionism.
● Family responsibilities can be linked to political economy theories, social structural functionalism, feminism, social constructionism (the constructs of the roles of mothers, fathers, and children, for instance). They can also be linked to rational theories (families provide capital) and to developmental theories (responsibilities are continued, added, and transferred as families grow, shrink, and parents age).
Changing Families: Relationships in Context, Third Canadian Edition
● Effective community is itself derived from rational theory but can also be linked to interactional theories as well as behaviour genetics.
● Cultural context is related to social construction; feminism can also present a critique of our current cultural context.
● The interactional theme is linked to symbolic interactionism, interactive-transactional theories, developmental and behaviour genetics perspectives (in the latter case, there is an interaction between nature and nurture, between the shared and nonshared environments, and between genes and these environments which form nurture). It can also be linked to political economy theories as an explanation of the context of inequalities and its effects on family relations.
SUGGESTED VIDEOS
www.youtube.com probably still offers Jean Kilbournes’ Killing Us Softly—Advertising’s Image of Women. This video comes in several segments. It is related both to feminism and social constructionist perspectives and can also be used to illustrate what is meant by content analysis (of the media, in this case).
Sut Jhalby’s The Codes of Gender also offers an analysis of advertising that includes elements of symbolic interactionism, particular Goffman, as well as feminism and social constructionism.
The Oprah Show had an interesting hour on Sister Wives, an ideal polygamous American family, around October 13-14, 2010.
SUGGESTED LIGHT READINGS
The two historical novels by Bernice Morgan, situated in Newfoundland, provide a very good example of family as an institution lasting throughout a century: Random Passage (1992) and Waiting for Time (1994), St. John’s, NF: Breakwater. These two books provide a realistic depiction of the situation and are equally suggested for Chapter 3. A miniseries also resulted.
SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Discuss polygamy from a feminist perspective or even social exchange theory.
2. How are social constructionism and feminism related in the study of families?
3. Present a case study of an age-gapped family (or an age-condensed family) focusing on the consequences of this situation both for parents and children within a developmental perspective.
4. Use anthropological material to illustrate some of the different social constructions of motherhood that exist throughout the world.
5. Link the concept of the shared environment in behaviour genetics to symbolic interactionism as well as interactional-transactional perspectives.
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Test Bank Cell and Molecular Biology Concepts and Experiments 7th Edition
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Package Title: Test Bank
Course Title: Karp7e
Chapter Number: 1
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Who was the first person to describe living single cells?
a) Leeuwenhoek
b) Hooke
c) Schleiden
d) Schwann
e) Virchow
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
2) The first compound light microscopes were constructed by the end of the sixteenth century. What is a compound microscope?
a) It has a moveable stage.
b) It has two lenses.
c) Its lens is double the size of the original microscopes.
d) The lens has two different colors.
e) They have two different light sources.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
3) Which of the following is a tenet of the Cell Theory?
1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
2) The cell is the structural unit of life.
3) Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell.
4) Cells divide only by fission.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
4) Who is generally credited with the discovery of cells?
a) Leeuwenhoek
b) Hooke
c) Schleiden
d) Schwann
e) Virchow
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
5) Despite being correct about the first two tenets of the Cell Theory, Schleiden and Schwann made an error about another central feature of cells. What was their error?
a) They stated that all cells were smaller than 2 µ in diameter.
b) They claimed that all cells were exactly the same in every detail.
c) They stated that all cells were immortal.
d) They both agreed that cells could arise from noncellular materials.
e) They claimed that all cells had nuclei through their entire existence.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
6) Which of the following characteristics is(are) not a basic property of cells?
a) Cells carry out a variety of emotional reactions.
b) Cells engage in numerous mechanical activities.
c) Cells generally respond to stimuli.
d) Cells are capable of self-regulation.
e) Cells evolve.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
7) Which of the following characteristics is(are) a basic property of cells?
a) Cells are highly complex and organized.
b) Cells possess a genetic program and the means to use it.
c) Cells are capable of producing more of themselves.
d) Cells acquire and utilize energy.
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
8) The first culture of human cells was begun by George and Martha Gey of Johns Hopkins University in 1951). The cells were obtained from a malignant tumor and named ______ cells after the donor, _________.
a) HeLa, Herbert Lane
b) HeLa, Henrietta Lacks
c) Roberts, John Roberts
d) MaLe, Martin Lewis
e) HeLa, Helen Lassiter
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.1 Discuss the major discoveries of cell theory.
Section Reference: Section 1.1 The Discovery of Cells
9) Cells grown in culture, outside the body are called ________ cells. They have become an essential tool of cell and molecular biologists.
a) in vivo
b) live
c) in vitro
d) in culturo
e) vivacious
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
10) A high powered microscope that allows investigators to examine the detailed surfaces of cells is called a ___________.
a) scanning electron microscope
b) transmission electron microscope
c) fluorescence microscope
d) scanning tunneling microscope
e) confocal laser scanning microscope
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
11) A ______________ is used to reveal the detailed internal structure of cells.
a) scanning electron microscope
b) transmission electron microscope
c) fluorescence microscope
d) scanning tunneling microscope
e) confocal laser scanning microscope
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
12) The apical ends of intestinal cells face the intestinal channel and have long processes that facilitate the absorption of nutrients. What is the name of these processes and what cytoskeletal element forms their internal skeleton?
a) microvilli, microtubules
b) villi, microtubules
c) microvilli, actin filaments
d) villi, actin filaments
e) microvilli, intermediate filaments
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
13) Virtually all chemical changes that take place in cells require ________, molecules that greatly increase the rate at which a chemical reaction occurs.
a) DNAs
b) carbohydrates
c) proteins
d) enzymes
e) emzymes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
14) You are conducting an experiment by trying to reproduce the work performed in 1891 by Hans Driesch, a German embryologist. You are working with a fertilized sea urchin egg and allow it to complete the first cell division after fertilization. You then carefully separate the two cells of the embryo and allow their development to continue. Based on Driesch's experiment, which result below would you expect to happen?
a) Both of the cells will die.
b) Both cells develop into complete and normal embryos that are somewhat smaller.
c) One cell develops into a normal, though smaller, embryo; the other dies.
d) One cell develops into half an embryo; the other develops into the other half of the embryo.
e) One cell develops into a defective embryo and the other dies.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
15) What factor or factors discovered with electron microscopy distinguished prokaryotic from eukaryotic cells?
1) their size
2) their color
3) the types of their internal structures or organelles
4) their fragility
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1 and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
16) What characteristics distinguish prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a) Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles; prokaryotes do not.
b) Prokaryotes have relatively little DNA; eukaryotes generally have much more.
c) Eukaryotic chromosomes are linear; prokaryotic chromosomes are circular.
d) Prokaryotic DNA is naked or nearly naked; eukaryotic DNA is usually heavily associated with protein.
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
17) Which of the following are not considered to belong to the Archaea?
a) Methanogens
b) Halophiles
c) Acidophiles
d) Thermophiles
e) Eubacteria
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
18) Which of the following are considered to be eukaryotes?
a) amoebae
b) yeast
c) holly
d) starfish
e) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
19) The genetic material of a prokaryotic cell is present in a _________, a poorly demarcated region of the cell that lacks a boundary membrane to separate it from the surrounding cytoplasm.
a) nucleus
b) chromatic region
c) nucleoid
d) pharmacopeia
e) genetome
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
20) Bacteria will often pass a piece of DNA from a donor bacterial cell to a recipient bacterial cell presumably through a structure called a pilus. What is this process called?
a) confirmation
b) transduction
c) transformation
d) conjugation
e) fission
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
21) Cyanobacteria are obviously capable of photosynthesis, but many of them also convert nitrogen gas into reduced forms of nitrogen (such as ammonia) that can be used by cells in the synthesis of nitrogen-containing organic compounds, including amino acids and nucleotides. This process is called ______.
a) nitrogen fixation
b) denitrification
c) nitrification
d) respiration
e) ammoniation
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
22) The process by which a relatively unspecialized cell becomes highly specialized is called _______.
a) differentiation
b) determination
c) degeneracy
d) denaturation
e) renaturation
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
23) Bacteria often live in complex, multi-species communities, like the layer of plaque that grows on your teeth; such a community is called a(n) _________.
a) biotome
b) microtome
c) biofilm
d) anatome
e) disneyfilm
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
24) The rapidity and cost-efficiency of DNA sequencing has made it possible to sequence virtually all of the genes present in the microbes of a given habitat. This generates a collective genome for that habitat, which has come to be called a(n) _________.
a) metachron
b) metagenome
c) netagenome
d) megagene
e) exogenome
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
25) The collection of bacteria that live on and within the human body are being isolated, identified and characterized; they are referred to as the human ______. It has been demonstrated that these organisms differ based upon the age, diet, geography and state of health of the human from which they were obtained.
a) macrobiome
b) metagenome
c) minibiome
d) microbiome
e) homobiome
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
26) Studies on mice suggest that bacterial species predominating in obese individuals differ from those in the digestive tracts of lean individuals and that they play a role in weight gain in obese individuals. What are these bacteria in obese individuals proposed to do that increases weight gain in obese individuals?
a) They make obese mice eat more food.
b) They release chemicals that increase the caloric intake by the mice.
c) The bacteria in obese individuals may release more calories from digested food than their counterparts in leaner individuals.
d) The bacteria in obese individuals turn the food in the intestines to fat.
e) The bacteria in obese individuals produce gas that makes their hosts obese.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
27) Which of the following is not a model organism?
a) Mus musculus
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Homo sapiens
d) Arabidopsis thaliana
e) Caenorhabditis elegans
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
28) The field of biological research in which biologists are attempting to create a living cell in the laboratory, essentially from scratch is known as __________. More modestly, this branch of biology also has a goal of developing novel life forms, beginning with existing organisms, that have a unique value in medicine, industry or in cleaning up the environment.
a) megalomaniacal biology
b) synthetic biology
c) production-grade biology
d) industrial biology
e) pharmaceutical biology
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
29) Why are viruses not considered to be organisms and not described as being alive?
1) Virions are unable to reproduce by themselves.
2) Virions are not able to metabolize by themselves.
3) Virions are not able to synthesize DNA by themselves.
4) Virions are not able to assemble spontaneously.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
30) Which of the following statements about viruses is not true?
a) All viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites.
b) All viruses are obligatory intercellular parasites.
c) Viruses occur in a wide variety of very different shapes, sizes and constructions.
d) A viral host may be a plant, an animal or a bacterial cell.
e) Viral genetic material can be either RNA or DNA.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
31) Outside of a living cell, the virus exists as a particle called a(n) ________, which is little more than a macromolecular package.
a) virulent
b) virusette
c) virulant
d) virion
e) infectoid
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
32) Viruses like adenovirus, which causes respiratory infections in mammals, have a 20-sided polyhedral capsid. What is this polyhedral shape called?
a) tetrahedron
b) dodechedron
c) polygon
d) icosahedron
e) octahedron
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
33) Among the most complex viruses are the ________, which are also the most abundant biological entities on Earth.
a) mammalian viruses
b) bacterial viruses
c) vibriovirions
d) bacteriophages
e) bacterial viruses and bacteriophages
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
34) Usually, a virus infects a cell and arrests the normal synthetic activities of the host, redirecting the cell to use its available materials to manufacture viral nucleic acids and proteins, which assemble into new viruses. Ultimately, the infected cell ruptures and releases a new generation of viral particles that can infect neighboring cells. This type of infection is called a(n) _________ infection.
a) lytic
b) proviral
c) eluctable
d) virulent
e) avirulent
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
35) In some cases, an infecting virus does not lead to the death of the host cell, but instead integrates its DNA into the DNA of the host cell's chromosomes. Integration of the viral DNA can have different effects like exhibiting normal behavior until exposure to a stimulus that activates the dormant viral DNA, production of viral progeny that bud off of the infected cell or a loss of control over growth and division leading to malignancy. Such an infection is referred to as a(n) ______ infection.
a) lytic
b) proviral
c) eluctable
d) virulent
e) avirulent
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
36) From what is the lipid-containing outer envelope surrounding the viral capsid of many animal viruses derived?
a) the nuclear envelope
b) the outer mitochondrial membrane
c) the plasma membrane
d) the lysosomal membrane
e) the outer membrane of the chloroplast
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
37) Which of the following is not typically a behavior exhibited by a cell with a proviral infection?
1) Immediate production of new viruses and subsequent lysis of the host cell.
2) Normal behavior until exposure to a stimulus, like UV radiation, that activates dormant viral DNA, leading to lysis of the host cell and release of viral progeny.
3) Production of new viral progeny that bud at the cell surface without lysing the infected cell.
4) Loss of control in animal cells over their growth and division followed by malignancy.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 1 and 3
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
38) What advantageous uses have viruses been shown to have?
a) The activities of viral genes mimic those of host genes so they are useful for studying mechanisms of DNA replication and gene expression in their much more complex hosts.
b) They can be used as a means to introduce foreign genes into human cells, which may serve as a basis for treatment of human diseases by gene therapy.
c) Insect-killing viruses may play an increasing role in the war against insect pests.
d) Bacteria-killing viruses may play an increasing role in the war against bacterial pathogens.
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
39) Potato spindle-tuber disease, which causes potatoes to become gnarled and cracked, is caused by an infectious agent consisting of a small circular RNA molecule that totally lacks a protein coat. These infectious agents are thought to exert their effects by interfering with the cell's normal path of gene expression. Such an infectious agent is known as a(n) __________.
a) provirous
b) bacteriophage
c) viroid
d) virunette
e) eviscerion
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
Question Type: Essay
40) You are observing a cell. Its cell wall is made of a long-chain polysaccharide called peptidoglycan. It has the ability to make all but the simplest molecules and can make all of the 20 amino acids. What kind of cell is it? If the cell contained pigments capable of photosynthesis, what would it be called?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The cell is a bacterium. With photosynthetic pigments, it is a Cyanobacterium.
41) A fertilized frog egg is allowed to divide and the two daughter cells are then separated. What happens?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
Solution: Both cells will develop into a complete tadpole. The tadpoles will, however, be smaller than if the two daughter cells had not been separated.
42) Wilhelm Roux performed an experiment in which he allowed a frog embryo to divide into two cells. He then killed one of the cells with a hot needle, but did not separate the cell he had killed from the remaining cell. The embryo developed abnormally, leading Roux to conclude that the cells in a developing embryo have their developmental potential restricted at each division, even the first. Driesch and others demonstrated that separation of cells in a number of embryos resulted in the development of two smaller, but normal, embryos. Which of these investigators is most likely to have made a procedural error in his experimental design and what was it?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.2 List the fundamental properties of all cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.2 Basic Properties of Cells
Solution: Roux made the mistake. By failing to remove the dead cell from the one he had spared, he caused problems in the further development of the embryo. Had he removed the dead cell, the remaining cell would probably have developed normally.
43) Why are viruses not considered by most biologists to be living organisms?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
Solution: In order to reproduce, they must take over the cellular machinery of their host cell. They are incapable of reproducing on their own.
44) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells and have no membrane-bound organelles, which act to transport some materials around the cell and compartmentalize certain cellular processes. Why do prokaryotic cells not require such membrane-bound organelles?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Prokaryotic cells are smaller, and simple diffusion is sufficient to move things around the cell.
45) Why are Archaea restricted to such harsh and difficult habitats?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: These habitats closely resemble the Earth before oxygen appeared in the atmosphere, and they are relatively anaerobic. Archaea cannot survive in more aerobic environments.
46) If one accepts the suggestion that the Archaea are similar to the prokaryotes from which all eukaryotes are descended, how does one explain the extreme environments in which they live when their descendants thrive in more moderate environments?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The environments in which they live now more closely resemble the environment in which their ancestors evolved earlier in the Earth's history. Their descendant eukaryotes evolved to survive in the relatively benign environment now extant.
47) You are studying a virus. It has an icosahedral protein capsid and is surrounded by a lipid-containing envelope. What kind of organism does the virus infect?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
Solution: It is a eukaryotic virus. Prokaryotic viruses would not have a lipid envelope. Eukaryotic viruses often have lipid envelopes, which arise from the cell membrane that surrounds the mature virus as it buds from the cell.
48) A virus infects a cell that has been placed in culture. The cell grows into a clone of cells with no apparent infection. Three months later, the cells are exposed to ultraviolet light. Shortly thereafter, most of the cells lyse and shed large amounts of virus. What kind of infection is this? What kind of infection results in a loss of growth control at some time after infection?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
Solution: A provirus had been formed with the viral genome incorporated into the host cell's genome. The ultraviolet light caused the activation of the viral genome and subsequent lysis. A proviral infection.
49) You are studying an infectious agent, the effects of which resemble a virus. You isolate the agent and treat it with an enzyme that degrades proteins and it is unaffected. However, if treated with RNase, it loses its infectivity. What kind of pathogen is it most likely to be?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.4 Discuss the properties that would distinguish between a virus and a bacteria and the nature of the viroid.
Section Reference: Section 1.4 Viruses
Solution: A viroid.
50) Techniques for sequencing DNA have become very rapid and cost-efficient. Consequently, researchers have begun to sequence all of the genes of all of the microbes present in a given habitat. What term has been coined to describe such a collective genome? What information does such a collective genome provide? What is an example of a microbiome?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Such a collective genome for a given habitat is called a metagenome. A metagenome can provide information about the types of proteins organisms in a particular habitat manufacture and thus give information about many of the metabolic activities in which they engage. One example of a microbiome would be the microorganisms that live on or within our own bodies, in habitats like intestinal tract, the mouth, vagina and skin.
51) You study two populations of mice, a lean population and an obese population. You measure the calories released from digested food by the microorganisms in the microbiomes isolated from the digestive tracts of the two mouse populations. One of the microbiomes releases significantly more calories than the other. Which microbiome would be likely to release significantly more calories? What significance might this have for human health?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The microbiome from the obese population of mice would be likely to release more calories from digested food than the microbiome from leaner individuals. It is possible that obese humans may also have a microbiome in their digestive tracts that releases more calories from the same amount of food. For example, it has been shown that obese and lean humans have markedly different populations of bacteria in their digestive tracts. As obese individuals lose weight, their bacterial profile shifts toward that of leaner individuals. This could contribute to weight gain in obese individuals.
52) What factors presently limit the scope of organ transplantation as a treatment for human disease?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The use of organ transplantation in treating human disease is presently greatly limited by the low availability of donor organs and the high risk of immunologic rejection.
53) In bone marrow transplantation, what is the usual source of the donor cells? For what diseases is bone marrow transplantation most often used?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The interior of the donor's pelvic bones. Lymphomas and leukemias, which are cancers affecting the number of white blood cells.
54) Briefly summarize the procedure involved in bone marrow transplantation.
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: First, the patient is exposed to a high level of radiation and/or toxic chemicals. These treatments kill the cancerous cells and all of the cells involved in the formation of red and white blood cells. Once the blood-forming cells have been destroyed, they are replaced by the transplantation of bone marrow cells from a healthy donor. The small percentage of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) in the donor's bone marrow can restock the patient's blood-forming bone marrow tissue and thus regenerate the blood tissue of the transplant recipient
55) Why are radiation and toxic chemicals ideal for destroying a recipient's blood cells?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The blood-forming cells are particularly sensitive to radiation and toxic chemicals.
56) What is the difference between bone marrow transplantation and blood transfusion?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: In blood transfusion, the recipient receives only the differentiated blood cells, especially the red blood cells and platelets present in the circulation. In bone marrow transplantation, the recipient receives the hematopoietic stem cells that are not generally present in the circulation but instead are found in the bone marrow.
57) What is the normal purpose of hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: They are normally responsible for replacing the millions of red and white blood cells that age and die every minute in our bodies. A single HSC is capable of reconstituting the entire hematopoietic (blood-forming) system of an irradiated mouse.
58) What is the name for undifferentiated cells that are both capable of self-renewal (production of more cells like themselves) and multipotent, that is capable of differentiating into two or more mature cell types?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Stem cells.
59) What are glial cells?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Glial cells are the supportive cells of the brain.
60) How have investigators been able to improve the situation of golden retrievers suffering from an inherited disease very similar to the human skeletal-muscle disorder muscular dystrophy? What are isolated stem cells present in adult skeletal muscle called?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Researchers have isolated stem cells from the muscles of these dogs, corrected the genetic disorder in the isolated cells and increased the number of these genetically modified cells by growing them in culture. When these stem cells are injected back into the diseased animals, many of them return to skeletal muscle where they take up residence. Once back in the muscle tissue, the corrected cells divide and differentiate into new muscle cells and thus contribute to a marked improvement in the mobility and gait of the diseased animals. Stem cells isolated from skeletal muscle tissue are called satellite cells.
61) Why is it hoped that transplantation of stem cells may help humans who have heart disease?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The human heart contains cardiac stem cells that are capable differentiating into the cells that form the muscle tissue of the heart (the cardiomyocytes of the myocardium) and the heart's blood vessels. It is hoped that these cells might have the potential to regenerate healthy heart tissue in a patient who has had a serious heart attack or is suffering from congestive heart failure.
62) Why are adult stem cells an ideal system for cell replacement therapies?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Adult stem cells can be isolated directly from the patient, grown in culture, and reintroduced back into the same patient reducing the risk of rejection of the injected cells and the resultant tissue.
63) What are embryonic stem (ES) cells? How do ES cells differ from adult stem cells?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: They are a type of stem cell isolated from very young mammalian embryos. They are the cells in the early embryo that give rise to all of the various structures of the mammalian fetus. Unlike adult stem cells, ES cells are pluripotent, which means that they are capable of differentiating into every type of cell in the body.
64) What cells are likely to be the first used in human trials using ES cells for cell replacement therapy and what do these cells do? What have researchers had to do to get these cells to differentiate in culture? What happened when these human cells were transplanted into rats with paralyzing spinal cord injuries?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The first trials will likely utilize oligodendrocytes, which produce the myelin sheaths that become wrapped around nerve cells. Researchers have been able to differentiate pure colonies of oligodendrocytes when human ES cells were cultured in a medium containing insulin, thyroid hormone and a combination of certain growth factors. When human oligodendrocytes were transplanted into rats with paralyzing spinal cord injuries, the animals regained considerable motility.
65) What is the primary risk of using human ES cells in cell replacement therapy to treat diseases like type I diabetes and macular degeneration? Why is this a risk?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: The primary risk of using ES cells in cell replacement treatment in humans is the unnoticed presence of undifferentiated ES cells among the differentiated cell population. Undifferentiated ES cells are capable of forming a type of benign tumor called a teratoma, which may contain a bizarre mass of various differentiated tissues, including hair and teeth. Formation of a teratoma within the central nervous system could have severe consequences. Another potential risk is that culture of ES cells presently involves the use of non-human biological materials; these materials pose potential risks of causing disease.
66) What advantage in cell replacement therapy do adult stem cells have over ES cells? What disadvantage do these same cells have relative to ES stem cells?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: They can be isolated from the individual who is being treated and will thus not face immunological rejection when used in cell replacement. Adult stem cells do not seem to have an unlimited potential to proliferate as is characteristic of ES cells.
67) How might ES cells be “customized” so that they possess the same genetic makeup as the individual who is being treated, thus protecting them from attack by the recipient's immune system? What is the major ethical question associated with this procedure? What practical impediments presently stand in the way of this procedure and how might they be removed?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: This could be accomplished by a procedure called somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT). An unfertilized egg could be removed from the ovary of an unrelated woman donor. The nucleus of this unfertilized egg could be removed and replaced by the nucleus of a cell from the patient to be treated. The egg would then have the same chromosome composition as that of the patient. The egg would then be allowed to develop to an early embryonic stage, and the ES cells would be removed, cultured and induced to differentiate into the type of cell required by the patient. SCNT requires the formation of a human embryo that is used only as a source of ES cells. Many would consider it to be an abortion and would therefore object. The process of SCNT is so expensive and technically demanding that it is highly improbable that it could ever be practiced as part of any routine medical treatment. If ES cell-based therapy is ever practiced, it would probably depend on the use of a bank of hundreds or thousands of different ES cells. Such a bank could contain cells that are close enough as a tissue match to be suitable for use in the majority of patients.
68) It was long thought that cell differentiation was irreversible, i.e., once a cell like a fibroblast, a white blood cell or a cartilage cell has differentiated, it could not revert to any other cell type. Surprisingly, this is not the case. Shinya Yamanaka and his colleagues have succeeded in reprogramming a fully differentiated mouse cell, specifically a type of connective tissue fibroblast, into a pluripotent stem cell. How was this stunning feat accomplished? How did they demonstrate that iPS cells were indeed pluripotent?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: They accomplished the feat by introducing, into the mouse fibroblasts, the genes encoding four key proteins that are characteristic of ES cells. These genes (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4 and Myc) are thought to play a key role in maintaining the cells in an undifferentiated state and allowing them to continue to self-renew. The genes were introduced into cultured fibroblasts using gene-carrying viruses; those rare cells that became reprogrammed were selected from the others in the culture by specialized techniques. This new type of cells was called induced pluripotent cells (iPS cells). They injected the iPS cells into a mouse blastocyst and found that they participated in the differentiation of all of the cells of the body, including eggs and sperm.
69) What feature of iPS cells removes all the ethical reservations that accompany work with ES cells and makes it much easier to generate iPS cells in the lab? What difficulties must be overcome before iPS cells can be used as a source of cells for human therapy? How might the problem of immune rejection of iPS cell replacements eventually be avoided?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Unlike ES cells, the generation of iPS cells does not require the use of an embryo. It will be important to develop cell-reprogramming techniques that do not use gene-carrying viruses, because such cells carry the potential of developing into cancers. Like ES cells, undifferentiated iPS cells also give rise to teratomas, so it is essential that only fully differentiated cells be transplanted into human subjects. Also like ES cells, the iPS cells in current use have the same tissue antigens as the donors who originally provided them, so they would stimulate an immune attack if they were to be transplanted into other human recipients. Unlike the formation of ES cells, however, it will be much easier to generate personalized, tissue-compatible iPS cells, because they can be derived from a simple skin biopsy from each patient. While this aspect of preparing iPS cells is easier, it still does take considerable time, expense and technical expertise to generate a population of iPS cells from a specific donor. If iPS cells are ever developed for therapeutic use, they would likely come from a large cell bank that could provide cells that are close tissue matches to most potential recipients. It may also eventually be possible to remove all of the genes from iPS cells that normally prevent them from being transplanted into random recipients. If this could be achieved, it might be possible to develop a single "universal donor" iPS cell line that is invisible to the recipient's immune system. Cells of this type could be used as the basis for cell replacement in everyone.
70) What is transdifferentiation?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Transdifferentiation has occurred when one type of differentiated cell has been converted directly (without the cells passing through an intermediate stem-cell state) into another type of differentiated cell.
71) Which cells in the pancreas produce the enzymes responsible for digestion of food in the intestine? What do pancreatic beta cells do? What treatment was used to cause the reprogramming of pancreatic acinar cells into pancreatic beta cells? How did the researchers know that the transdifferentiation had, in fact, occurred and resulted in the production of more pancreatic beta cells? Why is the use of adenoviruses to deliver the genes in this experiment less of a risk in humans than using some other viruses would be?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 1.3 Describe the major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section Reference: Section 1.3 Two Fundamentally Different Classes of Cells
Solution: Pancreatic acinar cells. They synthesize and secrete the hormone insulin. Viruses that carried three genes known to be important in the differentiation of beta cells in the embryo were injected into diabetic mice. It is likely that the transdifferentiation of a significant number of acinar cells into beta cells occurred since the animals were able to regulate their blood sugar levels with much lower doses of insulin after the injection and transdifferentiation. The adenoviruses do not become a permanent part of the recipient cell as can happen with other viruses. This removes some of the concerns about using viruses as gene carriers in humans.
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Chapter 1: What Is CB and Why Should I Care?
TRUE/FALSE
1. An understanding of consumer behaviour can mean better business for companies, better public policy for governments, and a better life for individuals.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-1
2. While consumer behaviour refers to human thought and action, it is not considered a field of study.
ANS: F
Consumer behaviour can be defined from two different perspectives: (1) human thought and action and (2) a field of study that is developing an accumulated body of knowledge.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 4 OBJ: 01-1
3. Consumer behaviour can be thought of as the actions, reactions, and consequences that take place as the consumer goes through a decision-making process, reaches a decision, and then uses the product.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-1
4. Consumer behaviour is the set of value-seeking activities that take place as people go about addressing needs.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-1
5. The basic consumption process begins with the consumer recognizing that he or she wants something new.
ANS: F
Recognition of a need begins the consumption process. A want is simply a specific desire that spells out a way a consumer can go about addressing a recognized need.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
6. The basic consumption process involves a consumer assessing the costs and benefits associated with a choice.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1
7. The final step in the consumption process is satisfaction.
ANS: F
The final step in the consumption process is value.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
8. An exchange is the acting out of a decision to give something up in return for something of equal value.
ANS: F
Something is given up in return for something of greater value.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
9. Consumer behaviour represents the process by which goods, services, or ideas are used and transformed into value.
ANS: F
This is the definition of consumption, not consumer behaviour.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 4-5 OBJ: 01-1
10. Costs involve more than just the price of the product.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1
11. Benefits are the only result of consumption.
ANS: F
Costs are also the result of consumption.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
12. Consumer behaviour, as a field of study, is a very young field.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-1
13. Consumer behaviour has family roots in other disciplines such as economics, anthropology, and psychology.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-1
14. Marketing’s roots in economics are evident in the production and distribution of goods.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-1
15. Psychology is the study of human reactions to their environment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-1
16. The sub-disciplines of psychology that are highly relevant to consumer behaviour are social psychology and experimental psychology.
ANS: F
The sub-disciplines of psychology that are highly relevant to consumer behaviour are social psychology and cognitive psychology.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7 OBJ: 01-1
17. Anthropology focuses on the thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that people have as they interact with other people.
ANS: F
Social psychology focuses on the thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that people have as they interact with other people.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7 OBJ: 01-1
18. Cognitive psychology is helpful in understanding how consumers process information from marketing communications such as advertisements.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-1
19. Marketing activities include the production, promotion, pricing, and distribution of goods, services, ideas, and experiences that provide value for consumers and other stakeholders.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-1
20. Consumer behaviour focuses primarily on the study of groups of people within a society.
ANS: F
Sociology focuses on the study of groups of people within a society. Consumer behaviour studies consumers as they go about the consumption process and encompasses knowledge from sociology as well as several other disciplines.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 8 OBJ: 01-1
21. Anthropology has contributed to consumer behaviour research by allowing researchers to interpret the relationships between consumers and the things they purchase, the products they own, and the activities in which they participate.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-1
22. A highly competitive marketplace in which consumers have many alternatives is more likely to result in better customer service than a marketplace with little competition.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 9
OBJ: 01-2
23. A market-oriented firm stresses the importance of creating value for customers among all employees.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 9
OBJ: 01-2
24. Relationship marketing is based on the belief that firm performance is enhanced through repeat business.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-2
25. Interaction points refer to direct contacts between the firm and a customer.
ANS: F
Touchpoints refer to direct contacts between the firm and a customer.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 10 OBJ: 01-2
26. One theory explaining why companies succeed or fail is attribution theory.
ANS: F
Resource-advantage theory is a theory explaining why companies succeed or fail and describes how the firm goes about obtaining resources from consumers in return for the value the resources create.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 11 OBJ: 01-3
27. Benefits are the physical parts of a product.
ANS: F
Attributes are the physical parts of a product.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 11 OBJ: 01-3
28. A product is a potentially valuable bundle of benefits.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 11
OBJ: 01-3
29. Undifferentiated marketing means that the same basic product is offered to all customers.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 12
OBJ: 01-3
30. Undifferentiated marketers generally adopt a market orientation.
ANS: F
Undifferentiated marketers generally adopt a product orientation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 12 OBJ: 01-3
31. A market orientation means innovation is geared primarily toward making the production process as efficient and economic as possible.
ANS: F
This is a product orientation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 12 OBJ: 01-3
32. Differentiated marketing can be taken to the extreme with a practice known as one-to-one marketing.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-3
33. Niche marketers specialize in serving one market segment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-3
34. There are several approaches to studying consumer behaviour, but most researchers agree that the interpretive approach is the best.
ANS: F
Consumer researchers have many tools and approaches with which to study consumer behaviour, and researchers don’t always agree on which approach is the best.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 15 OBJ: 01-4
35. Interpretive research seeks to explain the inner meanings and motivations associated with specific consumption experiences.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-4
36. Quantitative research tools include things such as case analyses, clinical interviews, focus group interviews, and other tools in which data are gathered in a relatively unstructured way.
ANS: F
These are qualitative research tools.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16 OBJ: 01-4
37. Data generated from qualitative research are considered “researcher-dependent.”
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-4
38. The roots of interpretive consumer research go back over 150 years to the earliest days of consumer research.
ANS: F
The roots of interpretive research go back over 50 years.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16 OBJ: 01-4
39. The motivational research era in consumer research proved to be very useful in providing satisfying explanations for consumer behaviour on a large scale.
ANS: F
The motivational research era proved disappointing in providing satisfying explanations of consumer behaviour on a large scale.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16 OBJ: 01-4
40. Two common interpretative orientations are psychology and sociology.
ANS: F
Two common interpretative orientations are phenomenology and ethnography.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16 OBJ: 01-4
41. The phenomenological researcher relies on highly structured, formal interviews with consumers.
ANS: F
The phenomenological research relies on casual interviews.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16 OBJ: 01-4
42. An ethnographic approach to studying consumers often involves analyzing the artifacts associated with consumption.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-4
43. A researcher measuring consumers’ attitudes toward different brands on a scale ranging from 1 (very negative) to 5 (very positive) is using qualitative research.
ANS: F
Quantitative research uses numerical measurement and analysis tools.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 17 OBJ: 01-4
44. Interpretation of quantitative research data is a function of the researcher’s opinion.
ANS: F
Unlike qualitative data, quantitative data are not researcher dependent; that is, the interpretation of the data is not a matter of opinion.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 17 OBJ: 01-4
45. Qualitative research better enables researchers to test hypotheses as compared to quantitative research.
ANS: F
Quantitative research better enables researchers to test hypotheses as compared to qualitative research.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 17 OBJ: 01-4
46. Trends shaping the value received by consumers include internationalization, technological changes, changing communications, changing demographics, and the changing economy.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 18-20
OBJ: 01-5
47. Companies must deal only with geographical distances when operating in different countries.
ANS: F
Companies must deal with cultural distances as well.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 18 OBJ: 01-5
48. The Internet has made geographical distance almost a non-issue.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 19
OBJ: 01-5
49. One demographic trend impacting marketers is that households increasingly include two primary income providers.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 19
OBJ: 01-5
50. One demographic trend shaping consumer behaviour is the decreasing birth rates in the U.S. and Europe.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 20
OBJ: 01-5
51. There is a standard definition for ethical behaviour in Canada.
ANS: F
People do not agree on exactly what behaviours should and should not be considered ethical.
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
52. Marketing ethics consist of societal and professional standards of right and fair practices that are expected of managers as they develop and implement marketing strategies
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What are the two perspectives from which consumer behaviour can be defined?
a.
primary and secondary
b.
human thought & behaviour and as a field of study
c.
social and psychological
d.
based on needs and based on wants
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
2. A market researcher focuses on the psychological process, including the thoughts, feelings, and behaviour people experience once they realize they have an unmet need. What set of value-seeking activities is the researcher examining?
a.
marketing
b.
consumer behaviour
c.
cognitive psychology
d.
consumption
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
3. Poppy has decided that she should buy a car to get to her new job on the opposite side of town. In terms of the basic consumption process, what is this first step referred to as?
a.
cost and benefit analysis
b.
value assessment
c.
want specification
d.
need realization
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
4. What is the last step in the basic consumption process?
a.
exchange
b.
value
c.
reaction
d.
costs and benefits
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
5. Renee is going to a formal dance next month and goes shopping for a full-length gown. What does the gown exemplify in the basic consumption process?
a.
need
b.
want
c.
reaction
d.
satisfier
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
6. What is the term for the decision to give something up in return for something of greater value?
a.
exchange
b.
marketing
c.
consumption
d.
consumer behaviour
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
7. Customers pay money for products they believe will satisfy their needs and wants. What is the term for this transfer of money for goods or services?
a.
benefit gratification
b.
consumption
c.
transformational marketing
d.
exchange
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
8. What is the term for the negative results of consumption?
a.
wants
b.
reactions
c.
costs
d.
consequences
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
9. Dana and John are expecting their first child and are purchasing furniture for the nursery. They are searching the Internet, reading parents’ magazines and paying attention to the advertisements, and visiting many stores because they want to purchase the best quality furniture that fits their budget. In relation to the consumption process, what is the term for the effort they are expending to ensure they make the right decision?
a.
a cost
b.
a reaction
c.
a value outcome
d.
a benefit
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
10. Henry buys a new laptop because of the numerous features and upgrades that are offered from this newer model. What are these features referred to in terms of the consumption process?
a.
costs
b.
benefits
c.
enhancers
d.
satisfiers
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
11. Apple sold more than 7 million iPads within months of launching the product. Prices for this product ranged from $499 to more than $800, and Apple had difficulty keeping up with the demand. Why were so many iPads sold?
a.
satisfaction outweighed demand
b.
need was greater than want
c.
consumption exceeded the need
d.
benefits were greater than costs
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
12. What is the process by which goods, services, or ideas are used and transformed into value?
a.
value transfer
b.
cost conversion
c.
benefits conversion
d.
consumption
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
13. When consumers recognize they have an unmet need, they usually seek out specific products or services that they believe will satisfy that need and provide value to them. They are willing to give up something, such as money and effort, to find the products or services that will provide the benefits they seek. What is the term for this process that consumers go through to satisfy their needs?
a.
marketing
b.
consumption
c.
exchange
d.
purchase
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
14. A description for a marketing course in a university course catalogue states, “This course represents the study of consumers as they go about the consumption process.” What is the name of this course?
a.
Consumer Marketing
b.
Value-based Marketing
c.
Consumption Marketing
d.
Consumer Behaviour
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
15. Which of the following is NOT a discipline in which consumer behaviour has roots?
a.
economics
b.
accounting
c.
anthropology
d.
social psychology
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
16. William has been researching production and consumption patterns in China for his employer. His work estimating demand for consumer products is part of which discipline?
a.
marketing
b.
psychology
c.
economics
d.
anthropology
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
17. Juan is majoring in a discipline that examines the production and consumption of goods and services. What is Juan’s major?
a.
economics
b.
accounting
c.
anthropology
d.
production management
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
18. Which discipline studies people’s reactions to their environment?
a.
economics
b.
psychology
c.
anthropology
d.
sociology
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
19. Marian is trying to decide on a major, so she takes an aptitude test offered by the career services office at her school. The results indicate that she is interested in understanding how people react to their environment and is concerned with their thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. Which discipline should Marian pursue?
a.
economics
b.
anthropology
c.
psychology
d.
biology
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
20. What is the area of focus for social psychologists?
a.
the intricacies of mental reactions involved in information processing
b.
the value-producing activities that facilitate exchanges between buyers and sellers
c.
the relationships between people and their possessions
d.
the thoughts, feelings. and behaviours that people have as they interact with other people
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
21. John is a psychologist who analyzes the thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that people have as they interact with other people in groups. What type of psychologist is John?
a.
qualitative psychologist
b.
group psychologist
c.
cognitive psychologist
d.
social psychologist
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
22. Melanie is a psychologist who studies consumer behaviour. She specializes in the mental reactions involved in consumer information processing, such as how advertisements persuade consumers to buy a product. Which field of psychology is Melanie practising?
a.
qualitative psychology
b.
personal psychology
c.
cognitive psychology
d.
social psychology
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Higher Order
23. Which area involves the multitude of value-producing activities that facilitate exchanges between buyers and sellers?
a.
consumer behaviour
b.
marketing
c.
psychology
d.
economics
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 7
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
24. Marketing as a recognized discipline grew out of two other disciplines. What are the two disciplines?
a.
economics and psychology
b.
psychology and anthropology
c.
psychology and sociology
d.
sociology and economics
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
25. Which discipline should you study to learn about how groups of people interact within society?
a.
economics
b.
sociology
c.
anthropology
d.
cognitive psychology
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
26. Which discipline has contributed to consumer behaviour research by allowing researchers to interpret the relationships between consumers and the things they purchase, the products they own, and the activities in which they participate?
a.
economics
b.
sociology
c.
anthropology
d.
cognitive psychology
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-2 BLM: Remember
27. Two factors should be considered when trying to understand how important serving customers well should be to any given organization. The first factor is the competitiveness of the marketing environment. What is the second factor?
a.
price charged for the product or service
b.
income level of customers
c.
social impact
d.
dependency of the marketer on repeat business
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Remember
28. Kim moved from one house in a neighbourhood to another house in a nearby neighbourhood. She called her trash collection company to inform them of her address change and was dismayed to learn that her trash collection bill would be $10 a month higher than it was at her previous residence even though it is the same company. She commented on this and was told by the company that was the price and she could deal with removing her own trash if she didn’t like the price hike. Kim had to pay the higher price because there was no other company allowed to service this neighbourhood. Which of the following explains why Kim was treated so poorly by this company?
a.
the trash company was dependent on her repeat business
b.
no other competitors are providing this service
c.
trash disposal is a regulated service
d.
the company really doesn’t need her business
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
29. Due to the competitive nature of the restaurant industry, Harry’s Town Pub has implemented a new employee training program that prioritizes providing high-quality customer service and focusing on patron satisfaction. Which type of orientation is Harry’s focusing on?
a.
sales orientation
b.
employee orientation
c.
consumer orientation
d.
inward orientation
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 9
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
30. The Ritz-Carlton Hotel has a culture that embodies the importance of creating value for guests among all employees. One way this is implemented is by giving the front desk employees the authority to correct a problem presented by a guest without having to have approval from a manager. Which type of orientation does this company embrace?
a.
market orientation
b.
product orientation
c.
sales orientation
d.
outward orientation
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 9
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
31. Which type of marketing is based on the belief that a firm’s performance is enhanced through repeat business?
a.
acquisition marketing
b.
outward marketing
c.
repetition marketing
d.
relationship marketing
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Remember
32. What is the term for direct contacts between the firm and a customer?
a.
touchpoints
b.
intersections
c.
interaction points
d.
counterpoints
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Remember
33. Which of the following is NOT an example of a touchpoint?
a.
a consumer placing an order over the telephone
b.
a customer asking an attendant for directions at an amusement park
c.
a consumer replying to a request sent in an email by a company
d.
a consumer watching a television commercial
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
34. According to the textbook, what is the ultimate hallmark of success for a business?
a.
maximum profits
b.
maximum sales
c.
long-term survival
d.
short-term sales
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
35. Which theory has “obtaining resources from consumers in return for the value they create” as a basic tenet for explaining why companies succeed or fail?
a.
attribution theory
b.
resource-advantage theory
c.
the theory of reasoned action
d.
resource-elaboration theory
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 11
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
36. What is the term for the physical parts of a product?
a.
benefits
b.
elements
c.
attributes
d.
components
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 11
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Higher Order
37. Which of the following is NOT an example of a product attribute?
a.
quality
b.
satisfaction
c.
styling
d.
safety
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 11
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Higher Order
38. What is the definition of a product?
a.
a potentially valuable bundle of benefits
b.
a physical good offered to satisfy a need
c.
an item offering perceived value to a target market
d.
a resource allocated toward satisfying a felt need
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 11
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
39. Which business orientation offers the same basic product to all customers?
a.
undifferentiated marketing
b.
differentiated marketing
c.
niche marketing
d.
product marketing
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 12
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
40. Walmart’s supply chain is as efficient and as economic as possible, which allows it to offer lower prices than competing retailers. With only a few exceptions, Walmart offers the same basic products in all of its stores, even worldwide. What orientation does this illustrate?
a.
market orientation
b.
customer orientation
c.
production orientation
d.
undifferentiated orientation
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 12
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Higher Order
41. Which of the following is practised by a company that embraces differentiated marketing?
a.
adopting innovative production processes to gain efficiency and economies of scale
b.
specializing in serving one market segment with particularly unique demand characteristics
c.
focusing marketing efforts on the largest market segment
d.
serving multiple market segments each with a unique product offering
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
42. Procter & Gamble sells six different brands of laundry detergent, each with a unique offering for different market segments. Which business orientation does this illustrate?
a.
undifferentiated marketing
b.
differentiated marketing
c.
niche marketing
d.
multiple marketing
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Higher Order
43. Some marketers offer each individual customer a different product, so each customer is essentially treated as a segment of one. Which way of doing business does this represent?
a.
personalized marketing
b.
customer-based marketing
c.
one-to-one marketing
d.
niche marketing
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
44. Lane Bryant is a women’s clothing store specializing in stylish clothing and flattering fits for plus-sized women. Which business orientation best describes Lane Bryant’s approach?
a.
niche marketing
b.
one-to-one marketing
c.
mass marketing
d.
product marketing
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 13
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Higher Order
45. When consumers study consumer behaviour, they should come to make better decisions. Which of the following topics can be helpful in enlightening consumers?
a.
the idea that there are consequences associated with poor budget allocation
b.
the lack of emotions in consumer decision making
c.
the absence of social influences
d.
the effect of technology on the production process
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 15
OBJ: 01-4 BLM: Remember
46. In which research approach to understanding consumers do researchers derive meaning from talking to people and observing behaviour rather than analyzing data?
a.
interpretive research
b.
quantitative research
c.
concentric research
d.
depth research
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
47. Kayla is engaged in research that seeks to explain the inner meanings and motivations associated with purchasing clothing. She records and analyzes the words that consumers use to describe events and observes shoppers in stores. From that, she develops an understanding of what motivates shoppers. What type of research is Kayla performing?
a.
quantitative research
b.
interpretive research
c.
sociological research
d.
independent research
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
48. What does it mean when research results are “researcher dependent”?
a.
it means the design of the research is a function of the researcher’s skills and training
b.
it means an unstructured research design was used and the results cannot be replicated by other researchers
c.
it means that the results are significant only if the researcher validates them
d.
it means the interpretation of the results is a matter of the researcher’s opinion until corroborate by other findings
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
49. Which type of research includes tools such as case analyses, clinical interviews, focus group interviews, and other tools in which data are gathered in a relatively unstructured way?
a.
quantitative research
b.
qualitative research
c.
preliminary research
d.
secondary research
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
50. Which of the following represents a pair of common interpretive research orientations?
a.
regression and cluster analysis
b.
phenomenology and ethnography
c.
primary and secondary
d.
qualitative and quantitative
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
51. Which field of study represents the study of consumption as a “lived experience” and relies on casual interviews with consumers from whom the researcher has won confidence and trust?
a.
touchpoint analysis
b.
psychology
c.
sociology
d.
phenomenology
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
52. Which field of study has roots in anthropology and often involves analyzing the artifacts associated with consumption?
a.
sociology
b.
phenomenology
c.
ethnography
d.
conjoint analysis
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
53. Clark is a student who has been hired by a consumer research firm to help a pizza restaurant learn more about the student market. Part of his job entails hanging out with other students and observing how they decide when to order pizza, which pizza restaurants they order from, how they eat it, and what they do with the leftovers, if any. Clark learned from his observations that some students like to put French dressing on their pizza, which led the pizza restaurant to advertise and offer the dressing with orders. Which interpretive orientation does this best illustrate?
a.
ethnography
b.
quantitative research
c.
sociology
d.
grounded theory
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
54. Which type of research addresses questions about consumer behaviour using numerical measurement and analysis tools?
a.
quantitative
b.
qualitative
c.
interpretive
d.
final
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 17
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Remember
55. A consumer research study analyzes the factors predicting a consumer’s likelihood to purchase a 3-D television, such as age, income, and stage of family life cycle. Data were collected from 3,000 consumers using a structured questionnaire. Which type of research does this represent?
a.
qualitative
b.
interpretive
c.
quantitative
d.
focused
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 17
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
56. What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative research?
a.
Qualitative research is used for hypothesis testing, and quantitative research is used only for descriptive analyses.
b.
Quantitative research is longitudinal, and qualitative research is cross-sectional.
c.
Qualitative research is researcher dependent, and quantitative research is not.
d.
Quantitative research results in primary data, and qualitative research results in secondary data.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 17
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
57. Which statement is NOT true regarding quantitative research?
a.
common purpose is to test hypotheses or specific research questions
b.
structured response categories provided
c.
samples are typically large to produce generalizable results
d.
results are subjective
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 17
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
58. Which of the following is NOT a trend shaping the value received by consumers today?
a.
internationalization
b.
technological changes
c.
market compression
d.
changing demographics
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 18
OBJ: 01-6 BLM: Remember
59. Which of the following is a demographic trend shaping consumer behaviour patterns?
a.
increasing family size
b.
increasing number of households with two primary income providers
c.
increasing birthrates in the U.S. and Europe
d.
decreasing levels of consumer affluence in the U.S.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 19
OBJ: 01-6 BLM: Remember
60. Which aspect of the changing economy likely has the most impact on consumer spending?
a.
high interest rates
b.
high tax rates
c.
high prices
d.
high unemployment rate
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 20
OBJ: 01-6 BLM: Higher Order
RESTAURANT RESEARCH SCENARIO
Insight Research, a marketing research company, has been hired by a national chain of family restaurants to help them better understand their customers and how to serve them better. The restaurant chain has several competitors competing for the same type of customers and has experienced sales declines in the past few years. Researchers go “under cover” and pretend to be customers so that they will fit in while they observe the interactions between customers and the wait staff. Then they write a report of their interpretations of what they experienced personally while pretending to be a customer as well as what they saw regarding interactions of other customers with each other and with the employees of the restaurant. Some example conclusions drawn were that the employees were not especially attentive to the customers and that customers were overheard as saying they didn’t intend to come back. Some researchers also noted that the food was not very good, and they saw several customers send orders back.
61. Refer to Restaurant Research Scenario. What is the best reason why this restaurant chain should be concerned about customer satisfaction?
a.
because all restaurants should be concerned about customer satisfaction
b.
because the marketplace is competitive and the restaurant is dependent on repeat business
c.
because serving customers well is just the right thing to do
d.
because other restaurants in the marketplace are offering price discounts and delivering superior customer satisfaction
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 8
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
62. Refer to Restaurant Research Scenario. When customers interact with the wait staff, what are these interactions called?
a.
moments of truth
b.
interactions
c.
process nodes
d.
touchpoints
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 10
OBJ: 01-3 BLM: Higher Order
63. Refer to Restaurant Research Scenario. Which of the following can be a criticism of the research approach used by Insight Research?
a.
not providing useful information to the restaurant
b.
results are objective
c.
data are researcher dependent
d.
interpretive research is not an acceptable approach for understanding consumer behaviour
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
64. Refer to Restaurant Research Scenario. Which research approach is Insight Research using to better understand this restaurant’s customers?
a.
quantitative
b.
secondary
c.
focused
d.
qualitative
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 16
OBJ: 01-5 BLM: Higher Order
65. Refer to Restaurant Research Scenario. Which demographic trend discussed in Chapter 1 should result in the restaurant experiencing an increase, not a decrease, in sales?
a.
rise in households with a stay-at-home mom
b.
rise in households with two primary income providers
c.
decreasing birth rates
d.
advances in technology
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 19
OBJ: 01-6 BLM: Higher Order
66. What is the term for the standards or moral codes of conduct to which a person, group, or organization adheres?
a.
value perceptions
b.
market integrity
c.
ethics
d.
product principles
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1 BLM: Remember
67. A marketing company decides to run an ad that incorrectly states that a product is much better than that of its competitors. What is this an example of?
a.
increased value perception
b.
a fair value exchange
c.
good advertising
d.
unethical behaviour
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1 BLM: Higher Order
68. What occurs when companies act with integrity?
a.
their sales decrease
b.
consumers take advantage of them
c.
a fair value of exchange takes place
d.
the price of their product increases
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 4
OBJ: 01-1 BLM: Higher Order
69. How are consumers affected when companies act in an unethical manner?
a.
their value perceptions increase
b.
they are led to expect more than is delivered
c.
the value equation is positive in their favour
d.
they receive complete disclosure
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5
OBJ: 01-1 BLM: Remember
70. Why is it very detrimental for companies in today’s world to “misbehave” or act unethically?
a.
the marketplace for most products is very uncompetitive as consumers are very loyal to certain brands
b.
consumers have limited choice for products and services as there are usually only a few major providers
c.
disgruntled customers may stop buying but have no real influence over others in purchasing decisions
d.
in the modern economy consumers have a great deal of power and play a large role in whether a company will succeed
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6
OBJ: 01-1 BLM: Higher Order
ESSAY
1. Compare and contrast the concepts consumption and consumer behaviour.
ANS:
Consumer behaviour can be defined from two different perspectives. This is because the term refers to both:
(1) Human thought and action, and
(2) A field of study (human inquiry) that is developing an accumulated body of knowledge.
First, consumer behaviour is the set of value-seeking activities that take place as people go about addressing realized needs. Consumption represents the process by which goods, services, or ideas are used and transformed into value.
Consumer behaviour as a field of study represents the study of consumers as they go about the consumption process.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 4-5 OBJ: 01-2
2. Discuss the relevant contributions of one other discipline to the study of consumer behaviour.
ANS:
Consumer behaviour has roots in several other disciplines, such as economics, psychology (social psychology and cognitive psychology), marketing, sociology, and anthropology. Students can discuss any one of these.
Economics — the study of production and consumption. Marketing has its origins in economics, particularly with respect to the production and distribution of goods. By definition, economics also involves consumption. However, the economist’s focus on consumer behaviour is generally a broad, or macro, perspective, not individual consumers. Consumer behaviour researchers generally study consumer behaviour at a more micro level, often focusing on individual consumer behaviour.
Psychology — the study of humans’ reactions to their environment including behaviour and mental processes. Social psychology (group behaviour) and cognitive psychology (mental reactions), in particular, are highly relevant to consumer behaviour. Consumer behaviour most often takes place in some type of social setting; thus, social psychology and consumer behaviour overlap significantly. Every time a consumer evaluates a product, sees an advertisement, or reacts to product consumption, information is processed. Thus, cognitive psychology is also very relevant to consumer behaviour.
Marketing — involves the multitude of value-producing seller activities that facilitate exchanges between buyers and sellers. Consumer behaviour and marketing are very closely related. Exchange is ultimately involved in marketing and is central to consumer behaviour too. Marketing actions are targeted at and affect consumers while consumer actions affect marketers.
Sociology — focuses on the study of groups of people within a society. This has relevance for consumer behaviour because consumption often takes place within group settings or is in one way or another affected by group behaviour.
Anthropology — has contributed to consumer behaviour research by allowing researchers to interpret the relationships between consumers and the things they purchase, the products they own, and the activities in which they participate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 6-8 OBJ: 01-2
3. Explain why consumers get treated differently in different types of exchange environments. Give an example of a situation where you were treated poorly by a business and explain why you might have been treated that way.
ANS:
Two questions help explain how important serving customers well should be to any given organization:
(1) How competitive is the marketing environment?
(2) How dependent is the marketer on repeat business?
A business operating in a market with little or no competition and a captive audience can still survive no matter how poor the service because they know consumers will return to do more business if that is the only option available (e.g., driver’s licence bureau). On the other hand, a business operating in a highly competitive marketplace in which consumers have many alternatives practically ensures good customer service.
Students’ examples will vary, but they should include a discussion of one or both questions above in their explanation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 8-9 OBJ: 01-3
4. Explain the role of consumer behaviour in business and society.
ANS:
Consumer behaviour (CB) is important in at least three ways:
(1) CB as an input to business/marketing strategy.
(2) CB as a force that shapes society.
(3) CB as an input to making responsible decisions as a consumer.
Consumer behaviour influences the way a company will do business. Undifferentiated marketing means that the same basic product is offered to all customers. Differentiated marketers serve multiple market segments each with a unique product offering. Niche marketing is practised by firms that specialize in serving one market segment with particularly unique demand characteristics. Understanding customers and potential customers guides marketers to the appropriate way of doing business for a given situation.
The things that people buy and consume end up determining the type of society in which we live. Things like customs, manners, and rituals all involve consumption-value producing activities. Therefore, our collective choices as consumers shape the societies in which we live.
Finally, when consumers study consumer behaviour, they should come to make better decisions. Several topics can be particularly helpful in enlightening consumers including:
(1) Consequences associated with poor budget allocation.
(2) The role of emotions in consumer decision making.
(3) Avenues for seeking redress for unsatisfactory purchases.
(4) Social influences on decision making, including peer pressure.
(5) The effect of the environment on consumer behaviour.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 10-15 OBJ: 01-4
5. Apple wants to learn how consumers use its blockbuster product, the iPad. Suggest an appropriate research approach and describe how it can be implemented.
ANS:
Students’ responses will vary. Either a qualitative or a quantitative approach is appropriate.
Qualitative research tools include things such as case analyses, clinical interviews, focus group interviews, and other tools in which data are gathered in a relatively unstructured way. Data of this type require that the researcher interpret their meaning. Therefore, the data are considered “researcher-dependent.” Interpretive research, which seeks to explain the inner meanings and motivations associated with specific consumption experiences, falls into the category of qualitative research. Two common interpretive orientations are phenomenology and ethnography. Students’ examples will vary, but if they describe this research approach, they should describe one that is unstructured and does not rely on numerical answers.
Quantitative research addresses questions about consumer behaviour using numerical measurement and analysis tools. The measurement is usually structured, meaning that the consumer will simply choose a response from among alternatives supplied by the researcher. Unlike qualitative research, the data are not researcher dependent. This type of research better enables researchers to test hypotheses as compared to interpretive research. Quantitative research is more likely to stand on its own and not require deep interpretation. Students’ examples will vary, but if they suggest this research approach, they should describe activities such as using questionnaires to gather numerical answers and statistical analyses.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 16-17 OBJ: 01-5
6. Briefly discuss three recent trends shaping consumer behaviour.
ANS:
Five trends shaping the value received by consumers today are discussed in the chapter: (1) internationalization, (2) technological changes, (3) changing communications, (4) changing demographics, (5) changing economy. Students can discuss any three.
Internationalization — While businesses are expanding worldwide, companies must deal not only with geographical distances, but with cultural distances as well. Although chains, such as Starbucks, can be found worldwide, consumers are not alike everywhere these firms operate.
Technology — The Internet has made geographical distance almost a non-issue, consumers can shop on their own schedule, and communication technology has also advanced tremendously.
Communications — Technology is changing how consumers communicate with each other. Electronic communications are replacing face-to-face communications, with older consumers embracing email and younger ones relying on social media.
Demographics — In most of the Western world, notable demographic trends have shaped consumer behaviour patterns greatly. First, households increasingly include two primary income providers. Second, family size is decreasing throughout Canada, the U.S., and Europe. China and India offer opportunities due to their large populations.
Economy — High unemployment rates and financial market turmoil have led consumers to be more cautious and react favourably to price-cutting policies. Consumers perceive lower discretionary income.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 17-20 OBJ: 01-6
7. In addition to the demographic trends discussed in Chapter 1, discuss one other demographic trend in the Western world and how that trend will influence consumer behaviour.
ANS:
The chapter discusses two demographic trends: households with two primary income providers and declining birth rates. Other trends students might discuss are:
(1) aging population — a large percentage of the Canadian population, “baby boomers,” retiring will increase demand for financial services, leisure products, and health care.
(2) increasing immigration — it is predicted that by 2017 more than one in five people in Canada will have been born in another country.
These are just suggestions of what students might discuss. Specific answers to this question are not found in this chapter.
PTS: 1 DIF: Hard REF: p. 19 OBJ: 01-6
8. Briefly describe the overarching ethical principles as set out by the Canadian Marketing Association.
ANS:
Overarching Ethical Principles
Personal Information Practices
Marketers must promote responsible and transparent personal information management practices in a manner consistent with the provisions of the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (Canada) and/or applicable provincial legislation and the 10 privacy principles detailed in Section J of this Code.
Truthfulness
Marketing communications must be clear and truthful. Marketers must not knowingly make a representation to a consumer or business that is false or misleading.
Campaign Limitations
Marketers must not participate in any campaign involving the disparagement or exploitation of any person or group on the grounds of race, colour, ethnicity, religion, national origin, gender, sexual orientation, marital status or age.
Marketers must not participate in the dissemination of unsolicited material that is sexually explicit, vulgar or indecent in nature, except where required to do so by law, such as a common carrier.
Marketers must not participate in the dissemination of any material that unduly, gratuitously and without merit exploits sex, horror, mutilation, torture, cruelty, violence or hate, except where required to do so by law, such as a common carrier.
Marketers must not knowingly exploit the credulity, lack of knowledge or inexperience of any consumer, taking particular care when dealing with vulnerable consumers. The term “vulnerable consumer” includes, but is not limited to children, teenagers, people with disabilities, the elderly and those for whom English or French is not their first language.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 5 OBJ: 01-1
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CHAPTER 1
WHAT IS CB, AND WHY SHOULD I CARE?
WHAT DO YOU THINK? POLLING QUESTION
In any business, the customer is truly the most important person.
Strongly disagree 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Strongly agree
Have students access www.icancb.com to answer the polling questions for each chapter of CB. Ask them to take the online poll to see how their answers compare with those of other students taking consumer behaviour courses across the country. Then turn to the last page of the chapter to find the What Others Have Thought box feature. This graph is a snapshot of how other consumer behaviour students have answered this polling question thus far.
LEARNING OUTCOMES
After studying this chapter, the student should be able to:
LO1 Understand marketing ethics and consumer misbehaviour.
LO2 Understand the meaning of consumption and consumer behaviour.
LO3 Describe how consumers get treated differently in various types of exchange
environments.
LO4 Explain the role of consumer behaviour in business and society.
LO5 Be familiar with basic approaches to studying consumer behaviour.
LO6 Describe why consumer behaviour is so dynamic and how recent trends affect
consumers.
SUGGESTED LECTURE OPENER
Consumer behaviour is driven by many things, including the weather. If your sprinkler breaks down during a dry, hot spell, you are likely to replace it quickly. However, you might have to travel to the back of the store before you get to the product you need, passing by fans, bathing suits, and air conditioners along the way. Savvy marketers use consumers’ seasonal needs to drive sales and promote other products. Canada’s unseasonably warm winter of 2011/12 even led to a mini housing boom, driving home sales up 6.7% from the previous year, according to Garry Marr’s article in the March 15, 2012 edition of The Financial Post.
KEY CONCEPTS WITH POWERPOINT® SLIDES
Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students to explain the link between the recent economic downturn and consumption.
A: Answers will vary but should include discussion of the housing market, appliance and furniture purchases, fewer requests for services, and loss of jobs.
LO1. Understand marketing ethics and consumer misbehaviour.
Slide 4
Marketing Ethics and Consumer Misbehaviour
There are times when consumers misbehave and act in an unethical manner and there are times when marketers misbehave and act unethically. Scandals, manipulative marketing practices, and deceptive advertising can upset the value equation associated with a given exchange. Ultimately, consumers may vote with their wallets by changing their own buying behaviour and potentially that of family and friends, as well.
Slide 5 Slide 6
LO2. Understand the meaning of consumption and consumer behaviour. Consumption and Consumer Behaviour
Slide 7 Slide 8
Consumer Behaviour as Human Behaviour
Consumer behaviour is the set of value-seeking activities that takes place as people go about addressing their needs.
Slide 9
The Basic CB Process
This process is detailed in Exhibit 1.2. In this chapter, the purchase of a BlackBerry Bold is described. In the first step, the consumer determines a need for a new cellphone with better access to other people, media, and the Internet. The want is to fit into society’s norms; therefore, the consumer visits a cellphone store. The exchange occurs when money is exchanged for the phone. The costs involve the actual price of the product as well as the time and physical effort to visit the store. The benefits are the positive results of the purchase, such as better work performance. The reaction follows the purchase when the consumer evaluates the effectiveness of the phone. Ultimately, the process results in a perception of value.
Consumption
Consumption represents the process by which goods, services, or ideas are used and transformed into value.
Slide 10
Economics and Consumer Behaviour
Economics is the study of production and consumption.
Consumer Behaviour as a Field of Study
This relatively young field of study (initiated in the 1960s) represents the study of consumers as they go about the consumption process. Consumer behaviour is also referred to as buyer behaviour, or the science of studying how consumers seek value in an effort to address real needs.
Slide 11 Slide 12
LO3. Describe how consumers get treated differently in various types of exchange environments.
Slide 13
The Ways in Which Consumers Are Treated
The customer is treated differently depending on the place of business and type
of service being performed. Consider the following two questions to understand the importance to any given organization of providing good service to customers:
1. How competitive is the marketing environment?
2. How dependent is the marketer on repeat business?
Slide 14 Slide 15
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students to name places where the consumer was not “king,” such as places where the wait time was too long or the establishment was not clean.
A: Examples used in the book include the passport office, Service Canada, a dining establishment, and an apparel retailer.
Competition and Consumer Orientation
What does a consumer do if their wait time at the passport office is too long? If the alternative is not to travel, the consumer will tend to tolerate poor service.
The opposite experience is consumer (customer) orientation, in which the business prioritizes the customer. A consumer orientation is a key component of a firm with a market-oriented culture. The organizational culture that embodies the importance of creating value for customers among all employees is called a market orientation.
Slide 16
Relationship Marketing and Consumer Behaviour
Relationship marketing is based on the belief that a firm’s performance is enhanced through repeat business. Relationship marketing is the recognition that customer desires are recurring and that a single purchase may be only one touchpoint in an ongoing series of interactions with a customer. Touchpoints may include any type of correspondence with the consumer (i.e., email, phone call, text message, and face-to-face contact). Each touchpoint represents a way for the business to build value with the customer.
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students to provide examples of relationship marketing. Why should a company take the time to establish a repeat customer?
A: Examples could include emails that customers receive on a weekly basis or loyalty cards for movie rentals and groceries. It’s cheaper for a business to build customer relationships than to establish new customers.
LO4. Explain the role of consumer behaviour in business and society. Consumer Behaviour’s Role in Business and Society
Slide 17
Consumer Behaviour and Marketing Strategy
Consumer behaviour is not only an interesting subject, but also an important topic to understand from multiple perspectives:
1. CB provides an input to business/marketing strategy.
2. CB provides a force that shapes society.
3. CB provides an input to making responsible decisions as a consumer.
Businesses have a goal of achieving long-term survival. Companies that achieve that goal do so by obtaining resources from consumers in return for the value they create. This helps to explain resource-advantage theory. Exhibit 1.4 lists several companies, their products, and when they first started doing business.
Slide 18 Slide 19 Slide 20
What Do People Buy?
Theodore Levitt, a famous marketing researcher, noted that consumers don’t really seek products. Companies ultimately need to understand why people buy their products in order to understand how to keep their business current. Products that are on their way to obsolescence include VHS tapes, tape recorders, and CD players.
Slide 21
Ways of Doing Business
Various ways of doing business are summarized in Exhibit 1.5, including:
1. Undifferentiated marketing—Offering the same product to all customers with no customization.
2. Differentiated marketing—Serving multiple market segments with different product offerings, such as the variety of products found in a Toyota car dealership.
3. Niche marketing—Serving one market segment with unique needs. For example, The Running Room targets runners to the exclusion of other recreational and competitive athletes.
Slide 22
Consumer Behaviour and Society
The items that people buy and consume are representative of the type of society in which they live. For example, how does society treat smoking? Today, smoking is frowned upon not only in Canada and the United States, but also in Europe, where many places have embraced a non-smoking policy. However, smoking was commonplace and acceptable 40 years ago. Smoking is a consumption behaviour that is no longer valued by society at large in Canada.
Slide 23
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students how many of them smoke. When did they start smoking and why? How have their consumption patterns changed?
A: You will likely see a decline in the number of smokers each year. However, particular regions of Canada as well as colleges or universities might have different numbers.
Consumer Behaviour and Personal Growth
This section is based on life stages. Many university students are acquiring large amounts of credit card debt, contributing to the average Canadian debt of $110,000 per household (including mortgage) in 2009.
Several topics can be particularly helpful in enlightening consumers about consumer behaviour, including:
1. Consequences associated with poor budget allocation
2. The role of emotions in consumer decision making
3. Avenues for seeking redress for unsatisfactory purchases
4. Social influences on decision making, including peer pressure
5. The effect of the environment on consumer behaviour
The Motorola “Brick” phone of the 1980s led to smartphones being widely used today. In both Canada and the United Kingdom a large population of children age 10–14 have their own cellphones. Restrictions are being put on mobile phone users ranging from safety issues while driving to etiquette issues for phone use in public places.
Slide 24 Slide 25
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students their opinions of the list on page 16 about mobile phone etiquette. Should people be restricted on how they use their phone in a public place?
A: Student answers will vary greatly.
LO5. Be familiar with basic approaches to studying consumer behaviour. Different Approaches to Studying Consumer Behaviour
Slide 26
There is no single “best” way to study consumer behaviour. The following research methods should be considered.
Interpretive Research
Interpretive research seeks to explain the inner meanings and motivations associated with specific consumption experiences. Methods include observations and words that consumers use to describe events.
Interpretive research generally falls into the category of qualitative research. Qualitative research tools include case analyses, clinical interviews, focus group interviews, and other tools in which data are gathered in a relatively unstructured way.
Interpretive researchers adopt one of several orientations. Two common interpretive orientations are phenomenology and ethnography. Phenomenology represents the study of
consumption as a “lived experience.” Ethnography has roots in anthropology and often involves analyzing the artifacts associated with consumption.
Quantitative Consumer Research
Quantitative research addresses questions about consumer behaviour by using numerical measurement and analysis tools. The measurement is usually structured, meaning that the consumer will simply choose a response from among alternatives supplied by the researcher. In
other words, structured questionnaires typically involve multiple choice type questions. If consumers have an average attitude score of 50 for Brand A and 75 for Brand B,
it can objectively be said that consumers tend to prefer Brand B. Experimental methodologies are also a key component of quantitative research, and offer the only research method to directly assess cause-and-effect relationships. Exhibit 1.6 summarizes some key differences between quantitative and qualitative research.
Slide 27 Slide 28 Slide 29
LO6. Describe why consumer behaviour is so dynamic and how recent trends affect consumers.
Consumer Behaviour Is Dynamic
Slide 30
Today, consumers do not need to wait for a store to open in order to shop. Consumers can visit virtual stores 24 hours a day/7 days a week. The trends that are shaping the value received by consumers today are discussed in this section.
Slide 31
What can I do in class?
Q: Ask students how they feel about companies like 33Across analyzing their social networking communications to find out about products.
A: This statement should spark some debate among students to discuss how the information they volunteer online through social networking may be used. Companies strive to meet consumer demands, offer increasingly innovative products, and grow in response to increased sales. Is it OK that they gain the information for these innovative products by tracking us online?
Internationalization
Many store chains have expanded outside their home markets. Consequently, companies must deal not only with geographical distances, but with cultural distances as well. The book discusses two examples—Starbucks and Outback Steakhouse. Each corporation must adapt its product menu to the country in which it operates. For example, in Seoul, Outback Steakhouse serves kimchi (fermented cabbage) on the menu, which is neither American nor Australian.
Slide 32
Technological Changes
In the mid-20th century, television revolutionized consumer behaviour. Not only did TV change advertising forever, but true home shopping became a possibility. Although technology continues to change, the basic consumer desire for value has not changed. In fact, the dot-com
failures of the late 1990s illustrated that companies can fail if they do not enhance the value that consumers receive when buying online.
Changing Communications
Consumers’ favourite form of communication used to be face-to-face. Now, many consumers choose the telephone as their preferred communication method (either by voice or text message). Email and social networks are also used. Marketers are learning quickly how to use these tools to communicate with consumers.
Changing Demographics
Over the last 25 years, changing demographics mean families include two primary income providers and fewer people make up a family in North America and Europe, resulting in stagnant population growth. This leads marketers around the world to look harder at countries with increasing populations, like China and India.
Changing Economy
Much of the developed world has faced a recent downturn in the economy, so consumers have less money to spend. Hearing about other economies around the world that are also in turmoil causes consumers to be more cautious as well.
VIDEO CLIP
PowerPoint Clip from Netflix
Run time 1:24 minutes
Slide 33
Netflix is a subscription service that provides streaming video over the Internet or delivers DVDs via mail. Netflix changed the way people rent movies and TV shows by cutting out the “shop front.” For a monthly fee, consumers have increased selections, no late fees, the ability to rent as many times as they like, and no need to leave their homes. Headquartered in Silicon Valley, CA, Netflix maintains distribution centres all over North America in order to maintain the company’s business model of speedy delivery and catering to consumers’ convenience needs.
Ask your students:
1. How has Netflix’s business model successfully tapped into consumer behaviour?
Answer: By removing the need to drive to a store to rent or return films and by removing late fees, Netflix provides considerably greater consumer convenience than the traditional method of film rental.
2. How does Netflix use consumer behaviour and the Internet to avoid becoming obsolete as technology changes?
Answer: Netflix provides a website with film summaries, reviews, a queue for tracking and rating your videos, as well as a service called “Watch Instantly” that allows consumers even more convenience by eliminating the need to wait for a DVD to arrive in the mail. This delivery method uses current technology to stream video instantly to consumers.
END OF CHAPTER MATERIAL
CASE ANSWERS: The Hudson’s Bay Company
1. Using the basic consumption process in Exhibit 1.2, discuss how a young Canadian “consumes” clothing.
Answer: Consumers develop a need for new clothing in a variety of ways—new clothes for school or work, the introduction of a new fashion trend, or the desire to fit in with a particular group. Clothes are necessary to keep consumers warm and protected from the elements, but they are also a fashion item and young consumers like to feel good about the clothes they wear because it brings them self-esteem.
These needs drive consumers to want clothing that not only serves the basic functional needs, but also looks attractive and makes them feel fashionable and good about themselves. For this reason, they may be attracted to The Bay’s positioning as a store that’s in touch with fashion trends, with many fashion-forward labels in stock.
Consumers’ wants may lead them to consider an exchange with The Bay if the clothing styles in fact do closely match their desires.
The decision to participate in an exchange (or to forgo one) has costs and benefits. Clothing costs money, and trendy labels tend to cost more than less current designs or lower quality items. In return, however, consumers may project an improved image, and boost their self-esteem. To the extent that consumers believe they are supporting a Canadian retailing institution (regardless of its current ownership), they may gain additional value from the exchange.
If consumers indeed achieve the goal of projecting the desired image and feeling good about themselves, they will react favourably to their purchase from The Bay. The consumer will in that case experience positive value. If the product does not achieve those ends, then no positive value will have been received.
2. Do you think it makes sense for The Bay to pursue more fashionable apparel brands to attract younger shoppers?
Answer: Answers may vary. The Bay’s strategy of offering more fashionable apparel brands in order to attract young shoppers is a good business decision if it addresses a real need that its target market can afford to satisfy. If successfully implemented, the strategy may allow The Bay to differentiate itself from lower-priced competitors that do not offer higher-end fashion brands, while offering an alternative to exclusive, high-fashion retailers such as Holt-Renfrew.
3. Is The Bay a consumer-oriented company?
Answer: Based on its stated desire to cater to the wants and needs of a specific market segment (young consumers), The Bay appears to have adopted a consumer-oriented approach. Hiring a high-profile CEO from within the fashion industry and aggressively pursuing the fashion brands most desired by its customers are further proof of a desire to maximize consumer satisfaction. Its awareness of competitors’ strategies indicates that this is part of a market-oriented business approach.
4. What sort of research will Bonnie Brooks need to drive her strategic decisions for The Bay in the next few years? Interpretive, quantitative, or experimental?
Answer: No single type of research is likely to provide answers to all the questions Ms. Brooks is likely to have. Quantitative approaches can analyze consumers’ current buying patterns, indicating where specific types of products (such as fashion brands) are being purchased, who is buying them, how frequently they buy, and so on. Point-of-sale technologies provide a wealth of data the researcher can analyze to form a detailed picture of consumer buying habits. This information may need to be supplemented with interpretive research, which can help to explain the motivation behind these patterns, such as why certain consumers prefer to do business with certain types of stores. Finally, experimental research may be useful in assessing the effectiveness of specific marketing approaches. A test market can be a very useful tool in helping a retail chain to develop the most effective way to display, promote, and price its merchandise.
5. Almost any business involves some ethical questions. In this case, do you see any problems with positioning The Bay as Canada’s oldest corporation when it is owned by an American private equity firm?
Answer: Answers will vary. Many brands are associated with a country of origin that no longer reflects its ownership (or never did so). The quintessentially British Mini Cooper brand is owned by Germany’s BMW, while Jaguar belongs to India’s Tata. Roots, which uses Canada and the beaver as part of its brand imagery, was founded by two Americans. Tim Hortons remained a Canadian icon even after its purchase by U.S.-based Wendy’s.
Students will have varying opinions on The Bay’s ability to retain its Canadian heritage and the ethical issues of potential misrepresentation.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
(*) Indicates material on prep cards.
1. [LO1] List two perspectives from which consumer behaviour can be defined.
Answer: Consumer behaviour can be defined as (1) a field of study and as (2) human activity involving human thoughts and actions.
2. [LO1] Define consumer behaviour from both perspectives.
Answer: Consumer behaviour as a field of study represents the study of consumers as they go about the consumption process. In this sense, consumer behaviour is the science of studying how consumers seek value in an effort to address real need.
Consumer behaviour as a human activity is the set of value-seeking activities that take place as people go about addressing realized needs.
3. [LO1] List each stage in the consumption process, and briefly describe this process.
Answer: The stages include needs, wants, exchange, costs and benefits, reaction, and value. The basic consumption process is a chain reaction of events through which consumers receive value (i.e., the steps in consumption).
4. *[LO1] What is consumption? Provide three examples of something you have “consumed” recently, and illustrate the concept of consumption with each example.
Answer: Consumption represents the process by which goods, services, or ideas are used and transformed into value. Examples should be easy. Music is enjoyable only when one listens to it (and likes it). Consumption can turn an mp3 file into value by listening.
5. [LO1] Explain the interrelationships among economics, psychology, marketing, and consumer behaviour.
Answer: In some ways, economics is an overarching discipline in that it also studies consumption but at a more abstract level than does consumer behaviour. Marketing studies stemmed from economics and psychology, and marketing itself represents potentially value-producing activities aimed at addressing consumer needs. As a field of study, consumer behaviour grew from the marketing field, and it was very much influenced by psychology because great emphasis was placed on the way consumers made decisions.
6. [LO2] What role does competition play in determining the way in which consumers are treated in the marketplace?
Answer: Competition eventually drives businesses toward a consumer orientation because the firm that doesn’t serve customers well is vulnerable to the customer going elsewhere. Thus, the more competitive the market, the greater the chance that the consumer is treated with respect as a valuable resource to the firm. Because firms depend on repeat business (and as they recognize the advantages of doing so), they are more likely to treat customers better in an effort to build or maintain a strong relationship.
7. [LO2] Define consumer orientation. How do firms become consumer oriented?
Answer: Consumer (customer) orientation refers to a way of doing business in which the actions and decision making of the institution prioritize consumer value and satisfaction above all other concerns. A consumer orientation is often a response to a competitive marketplace.
8. [LO2] Think about a consumer on a business trip out of town. What “touchpoints” take place during a typical day in a hotel for a business traveller?
Answer: Touchpoints are direct contacts between a firm and a customer. A day for the traveller may involve the following touchpoints:
Wake-up call
Visiting the fitness centre
Going down for breakfast and being served Asking for directions
Checking out of the hotel
Getting help with transportation
9. [LO2] How is niche marketing different than differentiated marketing?
Answer: Niche marketers are pursuing exchanges within one market segment. Differentiated marketers attempt to serve multiple segments with multiple products.
10. [LO3] List three main reasons why consumer behaviour is such an important topic to understand.
Answer: Consumer behaviour is important in at least three ways:
CB as an input to business/marketing strategy CB as a force that shapes society
CB as an input to responsible consumer decision making
11. [LO3] How can consumer behaviour contribute to public policy?
Answer: Public policy includes measures taken to restrict consumer freedom in the interest of the common good. Restrictions on consumer freedom exist in the form of traffic laws as well as restrictions on trade, such as prescription drugs, and consumption activities, such as smoking. Such decisions should only be made with a thorough understanding of the consumer behaviour issues involved, such as consumer psychology and sociology and the impact of such decisions on the marketplace and economy.
12. *[LO4] What two basic approaches to studying (i.e., researching) consumer behaviour are discussed in this chapter? How do they differ?
Answer: Interpretive research seeks to explain the inner meanings and motivations associated with specific consumption experiences. Quantitative research addresses questions about consumer behaviour by using numerical measurement and analysis tools. Exhibit 1.5 demonstrates specific differences between the approaches.
13. [LO4] When a researcher gathers information from consumers, such as household income and family size, and then uses this information to determine how much families will spend on a home, what “type” of research is being used here? Explain.
Answer: Quantitative research is being used because these measures will involve concrete, numeric measurements and statistical analyses to provide information.
14. [LO5] What is meant by the phrase “consumer behaviour is dynamic”?
Answer: Consumers are constantly changing, and therefore marketers’ responses to consumers are constantly changing, too. Several marketplace trends contribute to the
dynamic nature of consumer behaviour: internationalization, changing technologies, and changing demographics.
15. *[LO5] How is the fact that communication media preferences are changing affecting consumer behaviour and the effective use of consumer behaviour in business?
Answer: Consumers no longer communicate by voice to the extent that they used to. In fact, younger consumers have turned to social networking as a preferred means of communication. Older consumers may still prefer speaking to someone in person or on the phone. Middle-aged consumers may prefer email. Marketers have had to change the way they communicate with their consumers and one result is a shift in resources toward social networking sites like Facebook as a way of reaching customers with effective marketing communication.
INTERACTIVE/APPLICATION EXERCISES
16. *Ethics is an important aspect of consumer behaviour. Later chapters will focus on ethics in more detail. However, given that consumer behaviour is useful from a business, societal, and personal viewpoint, in which area are ethics and consumer behaviour most closely related? Explain your choice.
Answer: Students can defend any area by discussing the behaviour of people involved in consumption and action. Students are likely to choose the societal viewpoint because issues such as public policy are most closely associated with ethics. However, students should also consider behaviour from both the individual consumer and potential marketing employee perspectives.
17. Review the following situations, and discuss the relevance of consumer behaviour to explain each scenario:
A student selling a textbook back to the university bookstore
A student purchasing a value meal from an on-campus fast-food stand A family purchasing a new home
A corporate CEO taking a prospective customer to lunch
A consumer injured during a pick-up football match who is given a tetanus shot at a first aid clinic
A consumer in a third-world nation who is considering the purchase of a battery-operated television from a government-owned store
Answer: Any activity involving consumer decisions that could lead to differing amounts of value is clearly relevant to consumer behaviour. The case of the injured football player is the least relevant scenario because the consumer has very little choice.
18. Do some research on the Internet on the following multinational companies:
Tesco Auchan
Lotte Department Store Walmart
Sephora Exxon
Based on the descriptions of these companies found on the Internet, which way of treating customers do you believe each has adopted? Which company would you argue is the most multinational?
Answer: All of these companies are multinational in the sense that they have operations in multiple countries. Sephora and Exxon probably have operations in more countries than do the others. The answer to which orientation each company has adopted to deal with their customers should be related to the degree of competition as well as the potential amount of government regulation that each company faces.
19. The following is a way to get a little practice as an interpretive researcher. Find two consumers who are significantly older than you, two consumers slightly older than you, and two consumers substantially younger than you who will allow you to observe them while they browse the Internet. Collect some field notes that describe their behaviour as well as the discussion that you have with them during the exercise. Based on these interviews, prepare a brief report on the way people from different generations obtain value from their use of the Internet.
Answer: Students should attempt to provide explanations of behaviour by interpreting what they see and what the consumer does.
20. *Team Exercise: Use the Internet to do a brief research paper on a current public policy issue in which consumer behaviour plays an important role. Develop an opinion on whether some type of new regulation or restriction might actually address the issue and create a better societal outcome. Prepare a brief skit to enact your issue, and summarize the ways in which knowledge of consumer behaviour can contribute to understanding the issue.
Have some fun with this. Relate the consumer behaviours to the amount of competition involved and the fact that public policy has both advantages and disadvantages for consumers.
Answer: Students tend to focus more quickly on the short-term advantages without considering the long-term market implications of regulations.
21. Team Exercise: Interview at least five consumers from each of the following age groups: 10–15 years old, 20–29 years old, 35–45 years old, and over 55 years old. Ask the consumers what is their preferred method of communicating with a) friends, b) family, and c) businesses. Also, ask them what types of products they use to help them communicate with friends and family. Do the results suggest that they derive value from all communication technologies to the same degree, or do they use different technologies to communicate? Do you think the answers would be the same if you were dealing with consumers from Europe, Mexico, or Japan? How might firms cope with the dynamics of this situation?
Answer: Students should focus on the dynamic nature of consumer behaviour in discussing the results of the interviews.
GROUP ACTIVITY
Track consumption patterns in your class over the next week. Have students work in teams of two or as individuals if class size permits. This activity can also be used as a trimester- or semester-long project and will work best at the beginning of the term. Have students collect their receipts throughout the week and track all purchases from books to bottles of water. Students will meet in their groups during the second class and compare their purchase patterns. Students should present their findings in the following journal entry format.
Feelings
Items
Place of
Planned or
Descriptive
Reason for
Associated with
Date
Purchased
Purchase
Price
Impulse?
Information
Purchase
Purchase
Week 1
Books
Bookstore
$190
Planned
Needed for
Course
Positive,
9/7/13
class
requirement
should get a
good grade
now.
CHAPTER VIDEO CASE
To view the video case ReadyMade Do It Yourself, go to the CB companion website www.icancb.com to select this video.1
In 2001, when Grace Hawthorne, CEO, and Shoshana Berger, Editor-in-Chief,
came up with their idea for ReadyMade, there were no other publications with their unique do-it - yourself (DIY) theme. ReadyMade was to be a magazine about fun and creative projects for the home. Since its development, the bi-monthly magazine has enjoyed a loyal subscriber base and continues to gain readership across the country. All issues include numerous do-it-yourself (DIY) projects, each rated by their level of difficulty, as well as several feature articles exploring the latest in innovation and design. In this video, pay attention to ReadyMade’s methods as they launched their magazine. Note also how ReadyMade uses its knowledge of its consumer base to tailor the product.
Ask your students:
1. While the ReadyMade magazine was still in the design stages, very little research was done to determine whether an interested market existed. Did this adversely affect the magazine as it moved forward to publication? Explain.
Answer: The founders of ReadyMade magazine did little formal research, but they were immersed in the lifestyles and expectations of their target market, which in essence, was themselves. Whether their subscriber base would have been larger at the outset had they done more research is difficult to say, but since launching, the DIY market segment has grown exponentially and perhaps carried them along. Perhaps ReadyMade’s founders were lucky, or perhaps they were inspired. CEO Grace Hawthorne remarked that their marketing plan was, in essence, “if [we] build it, they will come.”
1 From Lamb, Hair, McDaniel. ReadyMade-Do It Yourself from Marketing 9e, pg. 183. Copyright © 2008 South-Western, a part of Cengage Learning, Inc. Reproduced by permission. www.cengage.com/permissions
2. How does the cover of ReadyMade magazine reflect the principles of packaging design as influenced by the known behaviour of its consumers?
Answer: The cover of ReadyMade magazine is carefully designed to provide a new reader, with just one glance, an understanding of the magazine’s purpose: a dual-gender, youth-spirited, DIY, project-related, home improvement guide.
3. To what extent does ReadyMade rely on opinion leaders to promote the magazine? Is this a successful tactic?
Answer: ReadyMade heavily relies on peer-to-peer recommendations; those DIY peers are the opinion leaders in the DIY market segment and have generated new subscriptions. For the DIY market, relying on opinion leaders has proven a successful tactic.
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Test Bank Cases in Leadership 4th Edition Solution
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Cases in Leadership, 4thEdition with Glenn Rowe and Laura Guerrero
Chapter 1
Discussion Questions – what is leadership?
1. What is leadership?
This question generates discussion about what students think leadership is. The instructor can take this opportunity to comment on misconceptions or myths about leadership. One way to guide the discussion is by asking whether leadership is a behavior, a behavioral pattern, an attitude, a process or something else.
2. Who is a leader?
We often think that leadership is a role that a certain person has. This question can uncover how students identify someone with a leadership role. One way to guide this discussion is by asking whether certain well-known people are leaders. Some examples that can be used are Donald Trump, Oprah Winfrey, Barack Obama, Vladimir Putin,Pope Francis, your instructor, and many others. The instructor can follow up with questions as to why one person is thought of as a leader but not another one.
3. Why is leadership important?
Thousands of books have been written about leaders and leadership. This discussion can be guided to discover the difference between a popular topic and an important one. Is leadership just a popular topic or an important one? Why?
4. Why is followership important?
Is the ability to follow a leader important as well? This topic is less popular than the topic of leadership. The discussion can follow the previous question of whether a popular topic is more important than an unpopular one. Another way to lead this discussion is to ask whether a leader can be equally effective if he or she has subordinates who are not good followers.
Preparation Questions
1. Think of a well-known person who is regarded as a leader and another one who is not. Search for a short biography of both individuals. This can be done on the Internet. Compare and contrast the biographies. How is the leader different from the non-leader?
2. How are they similar?
These preparation questions will help students when asking discussion questions number 1 and 2.
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Test Bank Cases in Cost Management A Strategic Emphasis 3rd Edition Solution AirWrap Packaging, Inc
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AirWrap Packaging, Inc.
Teaching Commentary
Overview
This is a very challenging case that gives students practice in customer value analysis, product costing, full cost versus marginal cost analysis, “capacity costing,” and product line profitability. For students who are up to the challenge, it makes an excellent end-of-term review case or final exam. I have used it successfully in both contexts at both Tuck and Babson.
The case also provides an excellent vehicle to demonstrate the link between marketing strategy and financial analysis in a context where students must evaluate a choice between “stick to your knitting” and “be flexible as business conditions change.”
answers to Assignment questions
Questions 1 and 2 deal with profitability analysis for the base product (Air Seal), with accounting for excess capacity thrown in. Question 3 covers the break-even point and the issue of “operating leverage.” Questions 4 through 7 deal with LCC for four different product situations drawn from the four cells in the LCC matrix in the case. The four examples illustrate the wide range of market attractiveness for AirWrap across different business settings.
Questions 8 and 9 deal with the overall attractiveness of producing AW on AS equipment, using the excess capacity. Questions 10 and 11 deal with the overall attractiveness of creating new manufacturing capacity dedicated to uncoated bubbles. All eleven questions are necessary to provide a full analysis of the new product (AW) opportunity. The calculations for each of the eleven questions are shown below.
Question 1
(a) What is the Return on Investment (ROI) for AirSeal for 1985?
Profit = $9.3 million, per Exhibit 1 in the case
Investment
A/R
(45 DSO)
= $ 4.3 million
Inventory
(4 Turns)
= $ 4.6 million
Gross Equipment Cost
($2.6 x 1/2 x 20)
= $26.0 million
TOTAL
= $34.9 million
ROI = Profit / Investment = 9.3 / 34.9 = 26.7% (before tax)
(b) How is the AirSeal product line doing, using the “DuPont formula?”
P/S = 9.3/34.8 = 27% = Great!
S/A = 34.8/34.9 = ~1= Marginal
P/A = 27% x 1 = ~26.7%
Doing quite well!
Question 2
How would the ROI change if excess capacity (Fixed Manufacturing Overhead, Factory Labor, and Manufacturing Equipment) were not charged to the product line?
1985 volume = 721 million sf
Capacity = 961 million sf
Excess capacity = 240 million sf (961 – 721) = 25%
a. Add 25% of Factory Labor and Fixed Manufacturing Overhead expenses back to product line operating income
9.3 + .25(10.3 + 2.6) = 9.3 + 3.2 = 12.5
b. Delete 25% of Equipment Cost from Investment
34.0 – (26 x .25) = 34.9 – 6.5 = 28.4
c. Recalculate ROI 12.5 / 28.4 = 44% = Pretty obscene!
Question 3
(a) Calculate the break-even sales volume in dollars for AirSeal in 1985.
Contribution Margin
= Sales – RM – VOH – Freight – Commissions (at 2% of Sales)
CM
= $34.8 – $3.9 – $1.4 – $3.1 – $.7
= $25.7
CM % of sales
= $25.7 / $34.8
= 74%
Fixed Cost
= Factory Labor + Fixed Overhead + Other Expenses (less Commissions)
Fixed Cost
= $10.4 + $2.6 + $4.1 – $.7
= $16.4
Break Even
= Fixed Cost ¸ CM% of Sales = $16.4 /.74
= $22.2 million
(b) Discuss the “Operating Leverage.”
Capacity Sales
= 961 Mft2 x $48.32/1000
= $46.4M
B/E as % of Capacity
= 22.2/ 46.4 = 48%
which is pretty low.
Fixed Costs
= $16.4 million = 35% of Capacity Sales
which is pretty high.
AirSeal is a high contribution margin, high fixed cost business, which means it has a high degree of operating leverage.
Question 4
(a) Calculate the LCC to Noritake per shipment for AirSeal and AirWrap.
(b) Based on part (a), what is the market potential of AirWrap for this customer?
Part (a)
Life Cycle Cost (LCC)
AirSeal
AirWrap
Packaging
$ .671
$ .492
1 $ 47.65 x .014
Other Shipping
$ 3.05
$ 3.05
2 $ 34.79 x .014
Total Shipping
$ 3.72
$ 3.54
3 .015 ($90. + $3.72)
Breakage Loss
$ 1.413
$ 3.744
4 .04 ($90. + $3.54)
Total
$ 5.13
$ 7.28
Part (b) The “Value Proposition” for AirWrap (comparative LCC)
is negative $2.15
This price/performance buyer in Cell I will continue to use AirSeal. The introduction of an uncoated product will not affect sales of AirSeal in this market segment.
Question 5
(a) Calculate the LCC for NEW per-shipment for AirSeal and AirWrap.
(b) Based on part (a), what is the market potential for AirWrap for this customer?
Part (a)
Life Cycle Cost (LCC)
AirSeal
AirWrap
Packing material
$ 0.581
$ 0.322
Other shipping costs
$ 20.273
$ 20.27
Total shipping
$ 20.85
$ 20.59
Breakage loss
$ 0.024
$ 0.025
Total
$ 20.87
$ 20.61
1 $72.40 x .008
2 $39.63 x .008
3 $20.85 - 0.58
4 .0001 x ($90 + $63 + $2.50 + $20.85)
5 .0001 x ($90 + $63 + $2.50 + $20.59)
Part (b)
The “Value Proposition” for AirWrap = $20.87 — $20.61 = $0.26.
An uncoated bubble is the better choice for this application, which falls into Cell II.
The price/performance buyer in Cell II will switch from AirSeal to an uncoated product. An uncoated product will eventually dominate in Cell II. AirSeal currently has 32% SOM in the segment (25.5 – 12 = 13.5 / 42 = 32%). Although the introduction of AirWrap will cannibalize sales of AirSeal, an uncoated product will eventually take the sales anyway, even if AirSeal does not introduce its own uncoated line.
AirSeal is vulnerable here and will have to cut price 45% to match the competition.
Question 6
(a) Calculate the LCC per shipment for FAP for Air Cap, AirWrap, and “Loose Peanuts,” using the data from the case.
(b) Based on part (a), what is the market potential for AirSeal and for AirWrap for this customer?
Part (a)
Life Cycle Cost (LCC)
“Loose Peanuts”
AirSeal
AirWrap
Product Carton
$ .37
$ .37
$ .37
Packing labor
$ .21
$ .13
$ .13
Freight Cost
$ 2.05
$ 2.00
$ 2.00
Packaging Material
$ .45
$ .651
$ .362
Total Shipping
$ 3.08
$ 3.15
$ 2.86
Breakage Loss
$ .233
$ .024
$ .035
Total
$ 3.31
$ 3.17
$ 2.89
1 $72.40 x .009 = $ .65
2 $39.63 x .009 = $ .36
3 .005 x ($43. + $3.08) = $.23
4 .0005 x ($43. + $3.15) = $.02
5 .0006 x ($43. + $2.86) = $.03
Part (b)
AirSeal should dominate “peanuts” ($3.17 vs. $3.31), but the Purchasing Agent looks only at packaging materials cost and chooses “peanuts” ($ .45 vs. $ .65).
AirWrap would dominate “peanuts.” Its LCC is lower ($2.89 vs. $3.31). The Purchasing Agent will miss this but will still see lower packaging cost ($ .36 vs. $ .45).
This Cell III customer (in the largest sales volume cell) offers a good potential market for uncoated bubble wrap because of lower packaging material cost versus “peanuts.” Over time, if buyers can be convinced to look at LCC, a trend toward uncoated air bubbles would be even more pronounced.
This is a good opportunity for AirWrap at a 45% discount off AirSeal prices.
Question 7
(a) Calculate the LCC per carton for College-Craft Glassware for AirSeal, AirWrap, and Cardboard.
(b) Based on part (a), what is the market potential for AirSeal and AirWrap for this customer?
Part (a)
Life Cycle Cost (LCC)
Cardboard
AirSeal
AirWrap
Shipping Carton
$ .45
$ .45
$ .45
Packing Labor
$ .12
$ .03
$ .03
Freight Cost
$ 2.30
$ 2.25
$ 2.25
Packaging Material
$ .55
$ .691
$ .442
Total Shipping
$ 3.42
$ 3.42
$ 3.17
Breakage Loss
$ .963
$ .074
$ .385
Total
$ 4.38
$ 3.49
$ 3.55
1 $57.25 x .012 = $ .69
2 $36.63 x .012 = $ .44
3 .02 x 12 x $4.00 = $ .96
4 .0015 x 12 x $4.00 = $ .07
5 .008 x 12 x $4.00 = $ .38
Part (b)
Although the “Value Proposition” for AirSeal is $ .89 per shipment ($3.49 vs. $4.38), the Purchasing Agent chooses cardboard because of the packaging material cost ($ .55 vs. $.69).
AirWrap shows a positive “Value Proposition” versus cardboard ($3.55 vs. $4.38), but the Purchasing Agent will not see this. AirWrap will be chosen anyway because packaging cost is lower ($ .44 vs. $ .55).
AirSeal should be the preferred material for this Cell IV customer, but Purchasing Agents don’t value the full LCC perspective. But uncoated bubbles can still gain volume here over cardboard based solely on cost of packaging materials.
AirWrap should do well with customers like this.
Question 8
(a) What annual sales level for AirWrap can be supported using the excess capacity on the AirSeal equipment as of 1985? Assume average price of $29 to distributors.
Total Capacity
961 million sq ft.
Less Air Cap Sales
721 million sq ft.
= Available for Uncoated Volume
240 million sq ft. (per Question 2)
Maximum Uncoated Sales
240 million x $29 / 1000 = $6.96 million
(b) So what?
Maximum sales are only about 6.5% of the potential U.S. bubble wrap market in Cells II, III, and IV (7/108), which seems very modest. Assuming further growth for AirSeal in the United States and abroad, even less capacity will be available for uncoated.
New uncoated bubble wrap equipment costing $13 million would support sales of about $28 million (961 million x $29 / 1000), which is still only 26% of the current potential market in just the United States (28 / 108).
Overall, it seems inappropriate to assume that AirWrap will be produced for very long, if at all, using excess AirSeal capacity — perhaps in the first year, but not later.
Question 9
(a) Estimate the variable cost per 1,000 sq. ft., on average, to manufacture and ship AirWrap using the AirSeal Equipment. (Assume the average bubble thickness is 3/16 inch.)
Raw Material (weighted average of 2.90 and 9.11)
$3.22
Variable Manufacturing OH (given)
$1.94
Freight (from the case for 3/16" bubbles)
$2.64
Sales Commission (2%)
$ .58
Total
$8.38
(b) Estimate the full cost per 1000 sq. ft., on average, to manufacture and ship AirWrap using the AirSeal Equipment.
Variable Cost (as above)
$ 8.38
Factory Labor Cost($10.3 million ¸ 961 million sq. ft.)
$10.72
Fixed Manufacturing OH ($2.6 million ¸ 961 million sq. ft.)
$ 2.71
Total
$21.81
(c) Comment on the estimated contribution margin and gross margin of AirWrap when produced on AirSeal machinery.
Contribution Margin = $29. - $8.38 = $20.62 / 1,000 s.f. = 71% of sales
This compares favorably to 74% for AirSeal (Question 3)
Gross Margin less shipping and commission = $29. - $21.81 = $7.19 / 1,000 s.f. = 24.8%
This compares unfavorably to 36.5% for AirSeal (16.5 - 3.1 -.7 = 12.7 / 34.8 = 36.5%)
In short, AirWrap is an “okay CM, poor profit product” when produced on the AirSeal equipment.
Question 10
(a) Estimate the full cost per 1000 sq. ft. to manufacture and ship AirWrap using its own equipment.
Raw Material
$ 3.22 (assuming 3/16" is the “average” product)
Var Manufacturing OH
$ 1.94
Factory Labor
$ 6.45 ($6.2 million ¸ 961 million)
Fixed Manufacturing OH
$ 1.70 ($1.63 million* ¸ 961 million)
Freight
$ 2.64
Sales Commission
$ 58
$16.53
*Depr. = $1.3 ¸ 2 = $.65; Other = $1.3 x 75% = .98; total = $.65 + $.98 = $1.63 million
(b) Comment
CM is the same as in Question 9, but GM less selling and shipping now is $29.00 - $16.53 = $12.47. This is 43%, which is substantially better than AirSeal (36.5%).
Question 11
(a) Estimate the ROI for AirWrap if it could operate at 90% of capacity in its own manufacturing facilities. Assume Selling and Marketing at 7% of Sales, R&D at zero, and Administrative cost at 3% of Sales. Assume the $29 average selling price.
Income Statement (Millions$)
Sales
$25.1
(961,000 x .9 = 865,000 x $29.)
Raw Material
$ 2.8
(865,000 x $3.22)
Factory Labor
$ 6.2
Given
Variable OH
$ 1.7
($1.94 x 865,000)
Fixed OH
$ 1.6
(from Question 10)
Freight
$ 2.3
($2.64 x 865,000)
Selling & Mktg.
$ 2.5
(10%)
Administration
$ 0.8
(3% of $25.1)
Total Expenses
$17.9
Operating Profit
$ 7.2
Investment
A/R
$ 3.1
(45 DS0)
Inventory
$ 3.0
(4 inventory turns: $12.3 ÷ 4)
Equipment (gross)
$13.0
TOTAL
$ 19.1
ROI = $7.2 / $19.1 = 37.7%, with excess capacity of 10% included in the costs.
(b) Comment
This is better than AirSeal in 1985 (27%). This result is very good, for a mostly undifferentiated product. With substantially higher volume over time, AirWrap might actually produce more total profit dollars than AirSeal, at a good ROI.
Air Packaging should definitely enter the uncoated market. Uncoated deserves its own manufacturing facilities. An AirWrap division should be created in two or three U.S. plants within two or three years, with further expansion later as justified by sales growth.
Teaching Strategy
The case will easily support two class periods of ninety minutes each. In fact, I don’t think it is fair to the students to ask them to prepare the case in one three-hour block (normal preparation time for one ninety minute class). When using the case over two class periods, I assign Questions 1 through 5 for day one, and Questions 6 through 11 for day two. This format allows time to discuss LCC calculations and ROA analysis on day one. Day two reviews both areas, covers the product costing issues for both AS and AW, and allows time to discuss management recommendations.
When used as a final exam, I distribute the case without the assignment questions before the exam. I allow students as much time as they want to read and study the case and make whatever calculations they think are relevant. I then allow three hours for the exam, handing out the eleven questions at the beginning of the exam period. Not many students will produce comprehensive answers to all eleven questions in that amount of time, but I typically get a good, full distribution of grades, which is the purpose of a final exam.
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Test Bank Case Studies in Finance Managing for Coprate Value Creation 7th Edition Solution
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Warren E. Buffett, 2005
Teaching Note
Synopsis and Objectives
Suggested complementary case about investment managers and superior performance: “Bill Miller and Value Trust” (UVA-F-1481).
Set in May 2005, this case invites the student to assess Berkshire Hathaway’s bid, through MidAmerican Energy Holdings Company, its wholly owned subsidiary, for the regulated energy-utility PacifiCorp. The task for the student is to perform a simple valuation of PacifiCorp and to consider the reasonableness of Berkshire’s offer. Student analysis readily extends into the investment philosophy and the remarkable record of Berkshire’s chair and CEO, Warren E. Buffett.
The case is an introduction to a finance course or a module on capital markets. The analytical tasks are straightforward and intended to provide a springboard into discussion of the main tenets of modern finance. Thus, the case would be useful for:
· setting themes at the beginning of a finance course, including risk-and-return, economic reality (not accounting reality), the time value of money, and the benefits of alignment of agents and owners
· linking valuation to the behavior of investors in the capital market
· modelinggood practice in management and investment using Warren Buffett as an example by returning to the image of Buffett repeatedly during a finance course to ask students what Buffett would likely do in a situation
· characterizing stock prices as equaling the present value of future equity cash flows
· exercising simple equity-valuation skills
While the numerical calculations in the case are simple, novices will find it to be a meaty introduction to a number of important concepts in finance. Ideally, the case could be positioned near the beginning of a course or module, after which it can be reinforced by other cases and exercises.
Suggested Questions for Advance Assignment
1. What is the possible meaning of the changes in stock price for Berkshire Hathaway and Scottish Power plcon the day of the acquisition announcement? Specifically, what does the $2.55 billion gain in Berkshire’s market value of equity imply about the intrinsic value of PacifiCorp?
2. Based on the multiples for comparable regulated utilities, what is the range of possible values for PacifiCorp? What questions might you have about this range?
3. Assess the bid for PacifiCorp. How does it compare with the firm’s intrinsic value? As an alternative, the instructor could suggest that students perform a simple discounted cash-flow (DCF) analysis.
4. How well has Berkshire Hathaway performed? How well has it performed in the aggregate? What about its investment in MidAmerican Energy Holdings?
5. What is your assessment of Berkshire’s investments in Buffett’s Big Four: American Express, Coca-Cola, Gillette, and Wells Fargo?
6. From Warren Buffett’s perspective,what is the intrinsic value? Why is it accorded such importance? How is it estimated? What are the alternatives to intrinsic value? Why does Buffett reject them?
7. Critically assess Buffett’s investment philosophy. Be prepared to identify points where you agree and disagree with him.
8. Should Berkshire Hathaway’s shareholders endorse the acquisition of PacifiCorp?
Suggested Supplemental Readings
As the case indicates, there is a growing library of books and articles about Buffett and his investment style. The instructor may choose to assign readings from one or more of the publications listed in Exhibit TN1. Alternatively, it may be appropriate simply to share the list of books with students to illustrate the breadth of scholarship and reportage about the Sage of Omaha, Warren Buffett.
Suggested Teaching Plan
The following questions could be used to motivate a 90-minute discussion of the case:
1. What does the stock market seem to be saying about the acquisition of PacifiCorp by Berkshire Hathaway?
This opening offers the opportunity to develop the notion that stock prices are the present value of expected cash flows. Moreover, it deals with the immediate opening problem of the case: the market’s response to the PacifiCorp announcement. Finally, it should help to motivate a discussion of Buffett’s investment philosophy.
2. Based on your own analysis, what do you think PacifiCorp was worth on its own before its acquisition by Berkshire?
This question expands upon the opening question and helps deepen the mystery about the acquisition—the bid price seems to be a fairly full-price offer for PacifiCorp.
3. Well, maybe Buffett is overpaying—does he have a record of overpaying in the past?
Here, the discussion should shift to an analysis of Berkshire’s general record, its experience with MidAmerican, and its experiences buying equity positions in the Big Four. The general conclusion will be that Buffett has done very well as an investor and as the manager of Berkshire.
4. Here are the major elements of Buffett’s philosophy. What do those elements mean? Do you agree with them?
On a sideboard, one could list the major topic headings given in the case. The aim here should be to discuss the intuition behind each point: why Buffett holds those views and what they imply for his work. If the students already have been exposed to the major underpinnings of modern finance, this segment of the discussion would take the form of a quick review. For novices, this segment would warrant slower development.
5. Let’s return to the basic issue. Is the PacifiCorp acquisition a good or bad deal? Why?
This question returns the discussion to the opening and aims to rationalize some of the contradictions that will have emerged during class. The main contradiction is the full price and the positive market reaction to the announcement. As a value investor, Buffett would probably say that he sees something that others do not—the positive market reaction is just the market revising its expectations about the future profitability of PacifiCorp.
6. Take a vote on whetherthe shareholders should endorse the acquisition.For those of you who believe that PacifiCorp will be a good purchase, what justifies your belief? For those of you who voted no, why did you oppose it?
Hearing from both sides will serve as a summary of the major themes in the case and will invite a discussion about the sustainability of Buffett’s record.
The instructor could close with a discussion of the core tenets of finance and then discuss how the class will return to those themes repeatedly during the course. The instructor could also augment the discussion of tenets with more reading of material about Buffett. Finally, students could be updated on Berkshire Hathaway’s performance since the date of the case. See the firm’s Web site, http://www.berkshirehathaway.com, for updated reports as well as a compilation of Buffett’s letters to shareholders.
Case Analysis
Investor reaction to the PacifiCorp announcement
The investor reaction suggests that the deal will not only create value for PacifiCorp’s acquirer, Berkshire Hathaway, but also for the seller, Scottish Power. In fact, as a relative matter, it would appear that the market sees more value accruing to Scottish Power because of its divestiture of PacifiCorp than to Berkshire, as a result of its acquisition of the company. Students could be encouraged to consider why this might be so (i.e., why Scottish Power would seem to gain more benefit from the deal than Berkshire Hathaway).
Discussion question 1
The $2.55 billion increase in Berkshire Hathaway’s market value indicates an expected benefit to Berkshire from the acquisition. Some students will measure the extent of this benefit as a gain of $2.55 billion in Berkshire’s market value of equity divided by PacifiCorp’s 312.18 million shares outstanding or $6.95 per PacifiCorp share more than Buffett is paying. Berkshire is offering $5.1 billion in cash for PacifiCorp’s equity, for a per-share price of $16.34; altogether, this would imply a per-share expected value for PacifiCorp’s shares of $23.29. Is this a fair estimate of PacifiCorp’s intrinsic value? Students must perform their own valuation of PacifiCorp in order to arrive at an independent judgment about this value.
Valuation of PacifiCorp
Because PacifiCorp is a privately held company that does not pay a dividend, the case does not contain enough information to derive a valuation for PacifiCorp using market values or the dividend discount model. It is necessary, therefore, to rely on an implied valuation for the firm using multiples from comparable regulated utilities. Case Exhibit 9 provides financial data for the comparable firms, and case Exhibit 10 presents implied valuations for PacifiCorp using averages and medians of those firms’ multiples. Table 1 presents a summary of the range of valuations provided in the case:
Table 1. Summary of PacifiCorp valuation estimates.
Enterprise Value as Multiple of:
MV Equity as Multiple of:
Rev.
EBIT
EBITDA
Net Income
EPS
Book Value
6,252
8,775
9,023
7,596
4,277
5,904
6,584
9,289
9,076
7,553
4,308
5,678
Because the case states that it would take 12 to 18 months for the deal to acquire PacifiCorp to close, the instructor may wish to solicit a present value for Berkshire Hathaway’s offer for the equity portion of PacifiCorp. An appropriate discount rate may be derived using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). Footnote 13 in the case explains that the yield on the 30-year U.S. Treasury bond was 5.76% and that Berkshire’s beta was 0.75, and the case states that the long-run market return was 10.5%. So Berkshire’s cost of equity may be estimated as 9.32%. Using this rate to discount Berkshire’s $5.1 billion offer over 12 or 18 months, we get a present value of about $4.7 billion.
Berkshire’s offer for PacifiCorp was, therefore, roughly in line with the range of peer firm valuations. This does not explain why the market reacted so positively to the news of the acquisition. It is possible that the investors perceived potential synergies between PacifiCorp and MidAmerican, but in the highly regulated and regionally focused electric-utility business, such synergistic benefits may be weak. Was there perhaps something in Buffett’s record as an investor that led to the market’s response?
Buffett’s record
Discussion questions 4 and 5
The case affords three opportunities to analyze Berkshire Hathaway’s historical record.
Berkshire Hathaway’s historical wealth creation: The case offers a range of evidence about shareholder wealth creation at Berkshire Hathaway. The case gives a rate of 24% compound annual growth in stock prices from 1965 to 1995.In comparison, wealth creation for large firms averaged 10.5% per year over the same period. The first chart in the case helps students visualize the supernormal performance of Berkshire Hathaway. Novices to finance should be encouraged to consider how difficult it is to beat the market by such a wide margin.
Berkshire’s experience with MidAmerican: Data in the case and case Exhibit 6 give information with which to perform a simple analysis of Berkshire’s return on investment in MidAmerican. Beginning in 2000, Berkshire Hathaway made an outlay of $1.642 billion for an eventual 80.5% economic interest in MidAmerican. Berkshire’s economic interest in MidAmerican was composed of both equity and debt investments such that the cash flows to Berkshire included interest payments, common dividends, and preferred dividends. Therefore, Berkshire’s return on investment can be approximated by computing Berkshire’s share of MidAmerican’s free cash flows, the cash flows available to all debt and equity claims. The income statement and balance sheet data in case Exhibit 6 may help us derive Berkshire’s share of MidAmerican’s free cash flows from 2001 to 2004, revealing that Berkshire had an internal rate of return (IRR) on this investment of 71%. Exhibit TN2 presents those calculations.
Berkshire’s experience with equity investments: The data in case Exhibit 3 give a foundation for a simple assessment of the major equity investments by Berkshire. With a class of novices, the instructor could motivate them to observe that all those issues have market values considerably higher than their costs. With a class of students more experienced in finance, it would be possible to estimate a holding-period returnforBerkshire’s investments in the Big Four. Using the information in this exhibit and its footnote, we find that Berkshire’s investments in American Express, Coca-Cola, Gillette, and Wells Fargo generated a compound annual growth rate of 16.07%. Students could be encouraged to compare this return with the long-term return for all large stocks, 10.5%.
Buffett’s Investment Philosophy
Discussion questions 6 and 7
Buffett’s investment philosophy reads mostly like a summary of the theory of modern finance. As the subheadings in the case indicate, the elements of the philosophy are as follows:
1. Economic reality, not accounting reality
2. Account for the cost of the lost opportunity
3. Focus on the time value of money
4. Focus on wealth creation
5. Invest on the basis of information and analysis
6. The alignment of agents and owners is beneficial to firm value
Buffett strongly disagrees, however, with three other elements of modern finance:
1. Use of risk-adjusted discount rates: The method he uses seems rather similar to the certainty equivalent approach to valuation (i.e., discount certain cash flows at a risk-free rate). Although it seems doubtful that the cash flows he discounts are truly certain, the very fact that he matches riskless cash flows with a risk-free discount rate implies an approach consistent with the risk-and-return logic of the CAPM.
2. Benefits of portfolio diversification: Although Buffett disavows portfolio diversification, the breadth of Berkshire Hathaway’s holdings probably approaches efficient diversification. Case Exhibit 2 gives a breakdown of Berkshire’s diverse business segments (also described in the case); case Exhibit 3 gives a listing of Berkshire’s 10 major investees. From the list, students could be asked whether the portfolio looks diversified—this should stimulate a discussion of what diversification means to them and what it might mean in finance theory.
The case does not provide the data with which to complete an analysis based on market values and asset allocations, but by just looking, one might identify possible industry concentrations in Berkshire’s holdings. Those concentrations do not seem to account for the bulk of Berkshire’s market value. The firm’s portfolio consists of an assortment of odd manufacturing and service businesses suggested in the case, plus some major equity holdings (case Exhibit 3) that are not easily classified in the concentration groups. The mass of research on portfolio diversification suggests that it does not require very many different equities to achieve the risk-reduction benefits of diversification. Despite his public disagreement with the concept of diversification, Buffett seems to practice it.
3. Capital-market efficiency: Buffett’s emphasis on the value of information asymmetries seems to confirm some appreciation for efficiency in security prices. From his public statements as reported in the case, Buffett’s disagreement with efficiency focuses on two aspects:
· The concept of passive portfolio management (i.e., indexing)
· The implication that quoted prices equal intrinsic values
The theory of efficiency does not absolutely preclude benefits of active management or the possibility that prices may not equal intrinsic values. But it does suggest that without an information advantage or some unusual skill, it would be very difficult to earn supernormal returns consistently over time. It is in this context that Warren Buffett appears to be a major anomaly. The supernormal returns of Berkshire Hathaway suggest that it is possible to beat the market by a wide margin. Still, Buffett’s investment style is consistent with efficiency in some important ways:
· Discipline and rationality: If one is trying to beat the market, it makes no sense to invest in shares that are fairly priced. Buffett’s quotations in the case and his acquisition philosophy in case Exhibit 8 suggest that he is looking for the market’s pricing anomalies. Looking for the anomalies (the rationality part) and waiting to find them (the discipline part) are not inconsistent with a market that generally prices securities efficiently. Indeed, one could argue that the activities of investors such as Buffett help to create the efficiency that he denies.
· Information: By virtue of Berkshire’s large stockholdings in selected firms, Buffett holds directorships and enjoys an informational advantage unavailable to outside investors. Information advantages are valuable in a world of only semi-strong efficient markets.
Conclusion
The final issue raised by the case has to do with the sustainability of Buffett’s record. A bid for PacifiCorp of $9.4 billion does not seem unreasonable relative to current comparable valuations. For the PacifiCorp acquisition to be a success in the sense of matching historical returns at Berkshire, Buffett’s expectations for PacifiCorp must be radically different from current, implied, and expected values for peer firms. With an investment of this size, a mistake will have lasting adverse consequences for Berkshire and Buffett. Even if Buffett’s bet on PacifiCorp in May 2005 is correct, the need to deploy larger amounts of money will invite mistakes—as Buffet said, “A fat wallet is the enemy of superior investment results.” With more than $40 billion in cash and cash equivalents, Buffett would have been mindful of this admonition.
As described here, the case gives the novice a broad introduction to the valuation of, and investment in, equities. The elements of this introduction include the following:
· ex postanalysis of investment returns (Berkshire, MidAmerican, and the Big Four) and comparison of those returns with a benchmark, such as the S&P 500 Index or the Ibbotson total return figures
· peer multiples valuation analysis of PacifiCorp
· discussion of the meaning of share-price movements following the announcement of the PacifiCorp acquisition
· review of the major tenets of finance in the context of Buffett’s investment philosophy
Exhibit TN1
WARREN E. BUFFETT, 2005
Bibliography for Warren E. Buffett
Buffett, Mary, and David Clark. The New Buffettology: The Proven Techniques for Investing Successfully in Changing Markets That Have Made Warren Buffett the World’s Most Famous Investor.(New York: Simon & Schuster), 2002.
Cunningham, LawrenceA.How to Think Like Benjamin Graham and Invest Like Warren Buffett.(New York: McGraw-Hill), 2002.
———.The Essays of Warren Buffett: Lessons for Corporate America.1st rev. ed. (New York: Cunningham Group), 2001.
Hagstrom, Robert G. The Warren Buffett Way. 2nd ed. (New York: John Wiley & Sons), 2004.
Heller, Robert. Business Masterminds: Warren Buffett.(Dorling Kindersley Publishing), 2000.
Kilpatrick, Andrew.Of Permanent Value: The Story of Warren Buffett. (New York: Andy Kilpatrick Publishing Empire), 2004.
———.Warren Buffett: The Good Guy of Wall Street.reprint ed.(New York: Plume), 1995.
Lowe, Janet.Warren Buffett Speaks: Wit and Wisdom from the World’s Greatest Investor.2nd ed. (New York: John Wiley & Sons), 1997.
Lowenstein, Roger. Buffett: The Making of an American Capitalist.(Main Street Books), 1996.
Morio, Ayano. Warren Buffett: An Illustrated Biography of the World’s Most Successful Investor.(New York: John Wiley & Sons), 2004.
O’Loughlin, James. The Real Warren Buffett: Managing Capital, Leading People.(London: Nicholas Brealey Publishing), 2003.
Reynolds, Simon.Thoughts of Chairman Buffett: Thirty Years of Unconventional Wisdom from the Sage of Omaha.(New York: Collins), 1998.
Steele, Jay.Warren Buffett: Master of the Market.(New York: Harper Paperbacks), 1999.
Train, John. The Midas Touch: The Strategies That Have Made Warren Buffett America’s Preeminent Investor. Reprint ed. (New York: HarperCollins), 1988.
Exhibit TN2
WARREN E. BUFFETT, 2005
Example of Completed IRR Analysis for Berkshire
Hathaway’s Investment in MidAmerican
($ in millions except per-share figures)
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Test Bank Caring for Older Adults Holistically 5th Edition
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Chapter 1: Holistic Caring
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. According to the 2002 U.S. Census, approximately how many Americans are older than age 65?
a.
5%
b.
20%
c.
12%
d.
2%
____ 2. Today, the average life expectancy is
a.
70.2 years
b.
75 years
c.
79 years for women and 72.9 for men
d.
longer for men than for women
____ 3. All of the following would be good explanations of “holistic nursing” except
a.
Holistic nursing focuses on the specific disease or disorder a person has in order to treat it effectively
b.
Holistic nursing aims to treat the whole person, not just a specific disease or disorder the person may have
c.
Holistic nursing focuses on the individual patient and uses many techniques such as empathetic listening, music, and imagery as well as specific clinical skills
d.
Holistic nursing weaves the technical skills of nursing with the social science skills that enhance communication and rapport between the nurse and the person receiving care
____ 4. The Science of Human Caring was developed by
a.
Florence Nightingale
b.
Clara Barton
c.
Jean Watson
d.
Savage and Money
____ 5. The Science of Human Caring emphasizes all of the following except
a.
Transpersonal caring
b.
A focus on the person while you are with him or her
c.
Ensuring that all nonessential tasks, such as bathing, are given according to a strict schedule
d.
Reaching out to the patient, making eye contact, touching if appropriate, speaking softly
____ 6. Basic concepts of holistic nursing include
a.
Using your developed clinical expertise
b.
Developing a close relationship with the patient’s family members and significant others
c.
Remembering the personal intuition and creativity of patients in your nursing plan
d.
All of the above
____ 7. Most elderly people having a heart attack have
a.
Pain diffused over the entire chest area
b.
No pain
c.
Crushing sternal pain
d.
Pain on the left side of the chest and pain that radiates down the left arm
____ 8. Compared with the doses of medication given to a young adult, the doses given to an old-old person are usually
a.
Smaller
b.
Larger because the old-old person is probably sicker
c.
The same
d.
Minimal because the person is very old and probably near death
____ 9. What communication technique has been developed specifically for dealing with demented elderly persons?
a.
Cognitive therapy
b.
Validation therapy
c.
Geriatric Depression Scale
d.
MMSE (Mini-Mental Status Examination)
____ 10. Mr. Leopold is an 82-year-old man in your care. He has been diagnosed with liver cancer and has long-standing cardiovascular problems. He begins to scream at you and pushes his meal tray away. What would be an appropriate response?
a.
Take the meal tray and leave the room without saying anything
b.
Tell him to stop screaming in a loud voice
c.
Calmly ask him what he is upset about and listen carefully to him
d.
Call your supervisor
____ 11. You enter the room of Mrs. Brewster, an 87-year-old frail woman with congestive heart failure. As you enter, you say, “Good morning, dear. I’d like to bathe you now, honey.” Later, your supervisor reprimands you because your way of speaking to Mrs. Brewster was an example of
a.
Beneficence
b.
Paternalism
c.
Caring
d.
Malfeasance
____ 12. Mr. Johnson is recovering from abdominal surgery and complains of pain and asks for pain-relieving medication. What should be your first action?
a.
Ask him to rate the pain on a 1-to-10 scale, with 10 being the most severe pain
b.
Observe him and try to ascertain his level of pain
c.
Tell him he must tell his physician and that you can do nothing for him
d.
Tell him that the pain medication he had been given earlier should be controlling his pain
____ 13. The term “elite old” is used for people
a.
85 to 100 years old
b.
Older than 100 years
c.
75 to 84 years old
d.
65 to 74 years old
____ 14. Which of the following are key concepts in holistic nursing?
a.
Following physician instructions and follow-up with the physician
b.
Developing a relationship with family members of the patient
c.
Using what you have learned—your clinical experience
d.
All of the above
Chapter 1: Holistic Caring
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C
According to the census, 1 in 8 Americans was older than age 65 years in 2002. That corresponds to 12.5%. There were 20.8 million women and 14.8 million men older than age 65.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
2. ANS: C
The average life expectancy has increased dramatically in the last 75 years—from 59.7 years in 1930 to 79 years for women and 72.9 years for men, according to the 2002 U.S. Census Bureau.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
3. ANS: A
The word “holism” is derived from the Anglo-Saxon root “hal,” which means “whole” or “to heal.” Holistic nursing focuses on the whole person, not the person’s specific disease or disorder, and it employs many alternative therapies as well as specific clinical skills of modern medicine to help the patient.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
4. ANS: C
The Science of Human Caring is a nursing philosophy developed by Dr. Jean Watson of the University of Colorado. This philosophy is taught worldwide and serves as the basis for teaching and caregiving. Florence Nightingale, known as the Mother of Modern Nursing, practiced holistic nursing long before the term was even used. Clara Barton served as an exemplary nurse during the Civil War, and Savage and Money have written on the concepts of holistic nursing.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
5. ANS: C
It is important that essential tasks, such as giving medications, be done according to schedule, but if a patient is in distress, needs to talk, or needs answers, there should be some flexibility for nonessential tasks. The nurse needs to treat the whole person, not just give out drugs and see to it that certain grooming tasks are performed routinely.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
6. ANS: D
The practice of holistic nursing includes following physicians’ orders, using your clinical expertise, respecting and drawing on a person’s knowledge of and intuition of his or her own body, and integrating significant others in the patient’s life into their care.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
7. ANS: B
Most elderly people who have a heart attack do not have chest pain. The symptoms associated with chest pain, described in responses A, C, and D, are symptoms often found in younger people.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Assessment | Patient Care Area: Cardiovascular
8. ANS: A
Medication doses for a young or middle-aged person may overwhelm the systems of an elderly person with devastating results. As people age, their metabolism often slows, and there are many changes in body systems that can affect a drug’s absorption and excretion. Older people often require smaller drug dosages. For these reasons, responses B and C are incorrect. Response D is also wrong—and insensitive and uncaring.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation | Patient Care Area: Medication
9. ANS: B
Validation therapy is a communication technique that has been developed specifically for dealing with demented elderly persons (including persons with Alzheimer’s disease). It focuses on accepting the person’s view of reality and age-appropriate behavior and can be used to calm a pacing, agitated older person. Responses C and D refer to tools used in neurological and psychological assessment. Cognitive therapy (response A), also known as cognitive behavioral therapy, is a method of treating many emotional and psychological problems, including anxiety, depression, and phobias.
PTS: 1
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation | Patient Care Area: Mental health, psychology
10. ANS: C
You should try to find out what is bothering him and ask specific questions—for example, is it the food? You should remember that he has been given a very serious and probably terminal diagnosis, and anger is understandable. There is a reason for every behavior, and you have the responsibility to learn the reason before reacting. Response A is uncaring and insulting to the patient. Response B is responding with anger and does not allow you to determine the cause of the outburst. If the patient becomes unruly, you should ask for assistance, but you should first try to determine the reason for the outburst and provide comfort if you can.
PTS: 1
KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation | Patient Care Area: Mental health, psychology
11. ANS: B
You were speaking to Mrs. Brewster as if she were a child, a form of paternalism. Elderly people should be addressed with respect, usually by Mr. or Mrs., unless they specifically ask you to use their first name. Responses A and D are ethical principles in nursing—beneficence to be aimed for, malfeasance to be avoided. Response C is also incorrect: your supervisor would not reprimand you for that. More importantly, caring includes respect, and paternalism is not respectful to an older adult.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
12. ANS: A
A cardinal rule is “A patient’s pain is what the patient tells you it is.” If he reports a pain level of 9 and you think it might be 5, you should act on the basis of the reported level of 9. You cannot determine how he feels (response B). Most physicians leave standing orders for postoperative pain, so response C is incorrect. His pain is not being controlled, so response D would be belittling.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Implementation | Patient Care Area: Pain management
13. ANS: B
The increased numbers of elderly people in the United States has resulted in new definitions. The term “young old” is used for people 65 to 74 years old; “middle-old,” for people 75 to 84 years old; “old-old,” for people 85 to 100 years old; and “elite old,” for people older than 100 years.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
14. ANS: D
Key concepts in holistic nursing include following physician instructions and communicating with the physician; using your own clinical experience; respecting the ideas the elderly patient has about his or her own body and how to make it well and incorporating those ideas into the nursing plan, if possible; and involving family members in the care of the elderly patient.
PTS: 1 KEY: Nursing Process Step: Not applicable | Patient Care Area: Not applicable
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Test Bank Career information Career Counseling and Career Development 11th Edition
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Career Information, Career Counseling, and Career Development
Eleventh Edition
Table of Contents
Introduction…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….1
Chapter 1 Introduction to the Global Economy, Social Justice, and Career Development……………………...…2
Chapter 2 Ethical and Legal Guidelines and the Competencies Needed for Career Development Practice…….…9
Chapter 3 Person-Environment Congruence (PEC) theories: Frank Parson, Theory of Work Adjustment, John Holland and a Values-Based Approach and their Application…………………………………………14
Chapter 4 Developmental Theories and Their Applications: Donald Super and Linda Gottfredson…………..…20
Chapter 5 Learning-Theory Based and Socioeconomic Theories and Their Application…………………...……25
Chapter 6 Contextualist and Chaos Theories and Their Applications: the Vancouver Group, Bloch, Pryor and Savickas………………………………………………………………………………………………...30
Chapter 7 Gender as an Issue in Career Counseling: Women, Men, and Sexual Orientation Minorities…...……35
Chapter 8 A Values-Based, Multicultural Approach to Career Counseling and Advocacy………………………39
Chapter 9 Career Counseling with Clients with Unique Concerns: Disabled, Economically Disadvantaged, Veterans and Older Workers……………………………………………………………………...……45
Chapter 10 Assessment in Career Counseling and Development………………………………………………..…51
Chapter 11 Using Information to Facilitate Career Development…………………………………………….……57
Chapter 12 Virtual and Brick and Mortar Career Exploration Centers: Design and Implementation…………..…63
Chapter 13 Preparing for Work………………………………………………………………………………..……67
Chapter 14 Facilitating the Global Job Search in a Digital Age……………………………………………………73
Chapter 15 Designing and Implementing K-12 Career Development Programs within the Framework of the
ASCA National Model…………………………………………………………………………………79
Chapter 16 Career Development Programs in Post-Secondary Educational Institutions……………………..……85
Chapter 17 Career Counselors in Private Practice; Counseling, Coaching, Consulting and Beyond………………91
Chapter 18 Career Development in Business Organizations……………………………………………….………97
Chapter 19 Program Evaluation and Evidenced-Based Practice…………………………………………….……103
Chapter 20 Trends in the Labor Market, Factors that Shape Them, and Issues for Decision Makers…….………108
Introduction
To the Instructor:
This manual accompanies Career Information, Career Counseling and Career Development: Toward a Global Perspective is intended to provide both new and experienced professors with material that can be used either to develop a new course approach or to modify an existing course related to the topic. In most counselor education or counseling psychology programs the "career" area is introduced in the first year, often in the first semester. Consequently, the instructor usually can assume that the students' psychological background is limited to whatever basic courses were included in their undergraduate program. This manual is built on the assumptions that students have some familiarity with at least introductory concepts of human development, general and educational psychology, and general sociology, as encountered in undergraduate courses in these subjects.
Each chapter in this manual follows the same format. Each of the sections in the manual is intended to assist the instructor in focusing student attention on the rationale and content of the chapter, in broadening and enriching the learning process, and assisting in assessment of the learning process.
The six sections are the following:
Learning Objectives -- These statements attempt to specify the knowledge and/or skill the student should be able to demonstrate with mastery of the chapter’s content.
Key Terms/Concepts -- These terms, phrases, or titles are included in the chapter, and an understanding of them is necessary for full command of the content.
Suggested Exercises/Activities -- Practical application of ideas, materials, or techniques enhances the learning process and often turns vague concepts into realistic and useful tools.
Class Discussion Questions -- These items are intended for use in those classes where group discussion can be used to focus on broadening and deepening student grasp of the material.
Examination Questions -- This section includes suggested true-false, multiple choice, short essay, and long essay questions that can be used in whatever assessment approach the instructor prefers.
Suggested Additional Assignments -- Instructors who expect students to read beyond the textbook will find these items useful in directing students toward references that relate to the chapter content. Most items included are drawn from the references listed for each chapter.
Chapter 1
Introduction to Career Development in the Global Economy and Its Role in Social Justice
Objectives
Students should be able to:
1. Articulate an understanding of the impact of the global economy on work in the U. S.
2. Explain how people view work as a part of their lives and the lives of others.
3. Form a personal view oftheir own career development.
4. Show familiarity with the basic terminology used in career development.
5. Demonstrate the role career development programs can play in the drive for social justice in the U. S.
6. Demonstrate knowledge of the historical roots of career development.
Key Terms/Concepts
Career coaching NCDA/NVGA
Career counseling Position
Career development Career development programs
Technological change Career information
Work Historical roots
Career/Job/Occupation Work ethic
Job satisfaction Work force
Job sharing Work place
Flattened world economy Social Justice
Unemployment and Its Consequences
Work ethic Frank Parsons
O*NET Vocation vs. job vas career
Off-shoring
Suggested Exercises/Activities
1. Interview two or three school principals on each school level to determine efforts made in each school to assist students in career development.
2. Interview two or three teachers at each school level to determine what aids their classroom and their school provides for career development.
3. Interview two or three school counselors to identify their viewpoint and activities in career development.
4. Visit the career counseling and placement service on your campus and discuss the services provided. Ask if they have seen increased interest in working abroad.
5. Interview two or three workers in different occupations about their jobs. Ask what they like and dislike, what led to their accepting the job, and what they would do if they could start over.
6. Interview several workers for information about how their job relates to early career plans, education, and family background.
7. Articulate the frustrations and psychological issues related to unemployment.
Class Discussion Questions
1. What was work like at these historic points:
a. Ancient civilizations - Greece/Rome/Egypt
b. Middle Ages (500 - 1500 A.D.)
c. Pre-industrial revolution (1700s)
d. The 1930s in the United States
e. Post World War II
f. The 1990s until current time
g. Has work changed? How? For better or worse”
2. Discuss changes occurring in the work place as a result of the following:
a. Electric power
b. Internal combustion engine
c. Air-conditioning
d. Computers
e. Robotics
f. The Internet
3. What changes have occurred in women's work roles since 1960? Why do women earn less in the modern workplace?
4. Give at least four reasons why people work today.
5. Give examples of stereotypes of work roles based on gender, age, ethnicity, sexual orientation.
6. Contrast your career development process with that of your parents and grandparents for the same age span.
Examination Questions for Chapter 1
True/False
1. Volatile political and diplomatic relations among major world powers usually have little or no impact on the work force in the countries involved.
2. Experts agree on most of the terms used in to describe occupations and the career development process.
3. Increased use of robots and computers is expected to decrease competitiveness in the work force.
4. Historic periods such as the Protestant Reformation and the Industrial Revolution have had great influence on social structure, but only slight impact on the world of work.
5. New technological developments will continue to reduce employment in the manufacturing sector.
6. Population growth, food scarcity, and modernization in third world countries have great impact on employment in the United States.
7. Most people started in their present job either through family influence or job availability.
8. Positions are usually professional or clerical while jobs are usually skilled or semi-skilled.
9. About one-third of all young workers do not have the skills to perform semiskilled, entry-level jobs.
10. The concept of a global economy is more myth than reality.
11. Generally speaking, minorities express greater interest in getting more occupational information than do white, European Americans.
12. Career development in this country began primarily as an effort to reform education.
13. If one had to pick a city as the cradle of career development it would be San Francisco.
15. Career development practitioners concern about minorities’ career development began with the civil rights
movement in mid-twentieth century
16. Career school counselors who encounter illegal or undocumented students hands are tied because they have no right to be in schools and should be reported,
Multiple Choice
1. The term career development refers to:
a. Training for a career.
b. An aspect of total development specifically involving career choice, planning, and knowledge
c. Advancement that one makes after starting to work.
d. The development of increased understanding of one's own abilities and values.
2. The use of job and vocations as synonyms may depend upon the
a. Type of job
b. The professional background of the person who is using the terms
c. The income of the worker
d. How long the job has been in existence
3. Using one's work as an opportunity for self-expression seems to be more important for which major occupational group?
a. Unskilled.
b. Skilled.
c. Professional
d. Sales and kindred.
4. A group of tasks performed by one person in one business is the definition for:
a. Position
b. Job.
c. Occupation.
d. Vocation.
5. George Merrill, Jesse Davis and Anna Reed had one thing in common. It was:
a. They founded the National Vocational Guidance Association
b. They initiated career development programs at the turn of the 20th century
c. They developed some of the tests used in the 1930s in career guidance programs
d. They successfully lobbied Congress for passage of the Merrill Act, which supported vocational education.
6. The first formal theory of career development was published by:
a. Super
b. Holland
c. Bordin and Associates
d. Ginzberg and Associates
7. The poverty rate for minorities is generally greater than that of white workers. Which of the following situations reflect recent research by the U. S. Department of Labor?
a. Hispanic have about the same level of poverty as whites.
b. Hispanic and African American poverty rates are approximately equal
c. The poverty rate among Asian Americans is about is about the same as that for Native Americans
d. Hispanics have the highest poverty rate of any group
8. By emphasizing social justice career development professionals are
a. Adopting a new goal
b. Renewing a goal first articulated in the 1960s
c. In keeping with the founders of the career development movement
d. Departing from the main theme of career development
9. In relative terms, women’s earnings when compared to men’s
a. Have stayed about the same for the past 25 years
b. Have lost ground, that is, women make relatively less today
c. Have gained ground, that is, they make relatively more today
d. Cannot be calculated because of differences in occupations entered.
10. The concept of career education is
a. Gaining in popularity because it emphasizes the relationship between career and academic performance
b. Rapidly being displaced by the term career guidance
c. Rapidly being displaced by the term career development programming
d. Is favored by vocational educators
11. The impact of the global economy on the workforce in the U. S.
a. Has had its greatest impact on unskilled worker to date
b. Will impact skilled and professional workers in the near future
c. Will slow in the long term as U. S. businesses reorient themselves
d. a & b above
12. Friedman identifies several forces and events that led to the linking of the major economies. The single factor that seemed most influential in the process according to Friedman was.
a. The Internet
b. Labor costs
c. The breakup of the Soviet Union
d. Immigrations
13. In the author’s view one factor overlooked by Friedman in his discussion of the development of the global economy was
a. The influence of unions
b. The relative value of currency around the world
c. Worker productivity
d. The profit motive
14. Countries that seem best equipped to take advantage of the global economy
a. Have a well-developed infrastructure
b. Have an attractive tax structure that encourages new businesses
c. Have socialist governments
d. Have an abundant supply of cheap labor
15. The cost of labor is a major factor in the business decisions to businesses from this country to another country (offshore). If labor costs were the only considerationU. S. businesses would most likely move their businesses to which of the following countries
a. Germany
b. Canada
c. Australia
d. Spain
16. The first comprehensive source of information about careers was
a. O*NET
b. The Dictionary of Careers in the U. S.
c The Dictionary of Occupational Titles
d. The Career Advisor’s Handbook
17. The ethnic group in America with the highest average family income is
a. Asian American
b Hispanic
c. Caucasian
d. African America
Answer key for Chapter 1
True/False
1. F
2. F
3. F
4. F
5. T
6. T
7. T
8. F
9. T
10. F
11. F
12. F
13. F
14. F
15. F
16. F
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. D
Short Essay Questions: The answers to essay questions should be determined by the instructor and should be based both on the input from the instructor and the text. The questions and answers that follow are offered as models only. Questions only are offered for the following 19 chapters.
1. Briefly identify and define three factors that are likely to have a major influence on work in the U. S. in the 21st century.
a. Technology – computers, robots, the world-wide web, etc.
b. Minorities coming into the workplace, particularly immigrants, legal and illegal
c. Global competition from low wage countries
d. Monetary policy
e. Quality of the infrastructure
2. What is the long-term impacts of the Internet on working Americans?
It will become easier to offshore jobs that involve information. Communication will be easier and lower skilled jobs will be the most affected although professions will be impacted when costs for services become disproportionately high.
3. Differentiate among career counseling, career coaching, and career intervention.
Career intervention is the broadest term and subsumes individual, small group, large group and organizational career development instruments.
Career coaching is, usually a one on one intervention and is often initiated by managers to improve individual employees functioning, but some employees identify and employ career coaches.
Career counseling occurs both individually and in groups and may deal both with personal issues nnd specific career problem. Career counseling I more likely to be regulated by codes of ethics and legislation at the state level.
Long Essay Questions
1. Why do people work?
For most people work pays the bills by which I mean the bills for housing, transportation leisure activities, education, etc. Work is an important to one’s identity development and may be an important contributor to self-esteem. Just as importantly work is the basis of lifestyle options. Where one lives (geography) and the types of leisure activities one chooses are largely determined by the nature of one’s occupations. Family activities and friendships are also influenced by work. Finally one’s social status is also tied to the nature of one’s employment.
Suggested Additional Assignments
Blustein, D. L. (2006). The psychology of working. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum.
Search BLS and Bureau of Census reports on unemployment, poverty, and the working poor
Do a Google search on employment, discrimination, and women. Also look at wage information for men and women.
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Test Bank Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology Essentials of Respiratory Care 6th Edition
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Chapter 1 The Anatomy and Physiology of the Respiratory System
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following are primary components of the upper airway?
a.
nose, oral cavity, pharynx
b.
larynx, trachea, and bronchi
c.
nose, oral cavity, larynx and trachea
d.
nose, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and trachea
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The nose, oral cavity, and pharynx are the primary structures that compose the upper airway
B
The trachea and bronchi and subglottic portion of the larynx are located in the lower aiway
C
The trachea and subglottic part of the larynx are located in the lower airway.
D
The trachea and subglottic portion of the larynx are located in the lower airway.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Upper Airway
OBJ: 1
2. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the nose?
a.
conduct gas and food to lower airway
b.
humidfy inspired gas
c.
filter the inspired gas
d.
warm the inspired gas
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The nose serves as passageway for gas, not food, to the lower airway.
B
The nose humidifies,, warms, and filters the inspired gas.
C
The nose humidifies, warms, and filters the inspired gas.
D
The nose humdifies, warms, and filters the inspired gas.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 3
3. Which of the following are functions of the upper airway?
I. Conduction of gas to lower airway
II. Prevent foreign materials from entering lower airway
III. Warm, filter, and humdify inspired gas
IV. Aid in speech and smell
a.
I, II, III, and IV
c.
I, III, and IV only
b.
I, II, and III only
d.
I, II, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The upper airway performs all of the listed functions
B
The upper airway performs all of the listed functions
C
The upper airway performs all of the listed functions
D
The upper airway performs all of the listed functions
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Upper Airway
OBJ: 2
4. Which structures form the upper third of the nose?
I. Nasal bones
II. Frontal process of maxilla
III. Lateral nasal cartilage
IV. Greater alar cartilage
a.
I and II only
c.
I. II, and IV only
b.
I , II, and III only
d.
I, II, III, and IV
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.
B
The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.
C
The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.
D
The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 4
5. Which structure form the lower two-thirds of the nose?
I. Lateral nasal cartilage
II. Lesser and greater alar cartilages
III. Septal cartilage
IV. Fibrous fatty tissue
a.
I, II, III, and IV
c.
I, II, and IV only
b.
I, II, and III only
d.
I. III, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose
B
All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose
C
All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose
D
All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 4
6. What is the term for widening of the nostrils that can occur during respiratory distress?
a.
nasal flaring
c.
retractions
b.
alar collapse
d.
grunting
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns
B
Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns
C
Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns
D
Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-1: Flaring Nostrils
OBJ: 5
7. Which of the following structures form the anterior nasal septum?
I. Septal cartilage
II. Vomer
III. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
IV. Frontal process of maxilla
a.
I only
c.
II, III, and IV only
b.
I and II only
d.
I, II, and III only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage
B
The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage
C
The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage
D
The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
8. Which structures form the posterior section of the floor of the nasal cavity?
I. Nasal bones
II. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
III. Palatine process of maxilla
IV. Superior portion of soft palate
a.
IV only
c.
II, III, and IV only
b.
III and IV only
d.
1, II, III only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate
B
The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate
C
The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate
D
The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
9. What is the term for the openings created by the alae nasi and septal cartilage?
a.
nares
c.
vestibule
b.
glottis
d.
choana
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.
B
The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.
C
The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.
D
The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
10. What type of epithelium lines the anterior third of the nasal cavity?
a.
stratified squamous
b.
pseudostratified ciliated squamous
c.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
d.
cuboidal
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
B
The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C
The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
D
The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
11. In which structure would vibrissae normally be found?
a.
nasal cavity
c.
laryngopharynx
b.
oropharynx
d.
trachea
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.
B
Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.
C
Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.
D
Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
12. What type of epithelium is present in the posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity?
a.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
c.
stratified squamous
b.
cuboidal
d.
pseudostratified squamous
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.
B
The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.
C
The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.
D
The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
13. What is another term for conchae?
a.
turbinates
c.
vestibule
b.
choana
d.
alae
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.
B
The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.
C
The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.
D
The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
14. Where is the olfactory region located in the nasal cavity?
a.
superior and middle turbinates
c.
choana
b.
middle and inferior turbinates
d.
vestibule
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.
B
The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.
C
The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.
D
The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
15. Which of the following sinuses are considered to be paranasal sinuses?
I. Maxillary
II. Frontal
III. Ethmoid
IV. Sphenoid
a.
I. II. III, and IV
c.
I. III, and IV only
b.
I, II, and III only
d.
I and II only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.
B
The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.
C
The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.
D
The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose OBJ: 6
16. What effect, if any, would be expected from the topical application of phenylephrine on the nasal mucosa?
a.
vasoconstriction
c.
bronchospasm
b.
vasodilation
d.
no known effect
ANS: A
Feedback
A
When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.
B
When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.
C
When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.
D
When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-2: The Nose: An Excellent Route for Administration of Topical Agents OBJ: 7
17. Among pediatric patients, in which age range is epistaxis most prevalent?
a.
2-10 years
c.
8-16 years
b.
newborn -2 years
d.
10-14 years
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.
B
In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.
C
In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.
D
In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-3: Nosebleeds (Epistaxis)
OBJ: 8
18. Approximately what portion of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell?
a.
80%
c.
40%
b.
60%
d.
20%
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.
B
Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.
C
Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.
D
Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-4: Nasal Congestion and Its Influence on Taste
OBJ: 9
19. Which of the following can cause sinusitis?
I. Upper respiratory infection
II. Dental infection
III. Air travel
IV. Scuba diving
a.
I, II, III, and IV
c.
I, II, and III only
b.
I and II only
d.
I, II, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis
B
All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis
C
All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis
D
All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-6: Sinusitis
OBJ: 10
20. In the oral cavity, what is the term for the space between the teeth and lips?
a.
vestibule
c.
vibrissae
b.
vallecula
d.
ventricle
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.
B
The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.
C
The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.
D
The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oral Cavity OBJ: 11
21. What is the name of the structure that secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
a.
lingual frenulum
c.
instrinsic lingual muscles
b.
extrinsic lingual muscles
d.
uvula
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
B
The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
C
The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
D
The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oral Cavity OBJ: 11
22. Which epithelium lines the oral cavity?
a.
stratified squamous
c.
pseudostraified ciliated columnar
b.
cuboidal
d.
pseudostratified squamous
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
B
The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C
The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
D
The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oral Cavity OBJ: 11
23. To what structure is the uvula attached?
a.
soft palate
c.
palatopharyngeal arch
b.
hard palate
d.
palatoglossal arch
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The uvula is attached to the soft palate.
B
The uvula is attached to the soft palate.
C
The uvula is attached to the soft palate.
D
The uvula is attached to the soft palate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oral Cavity OBJ: 11
24. What is another name for the palatine tonsils?
a.
faucial
c.
lingual
b.
pharyngeal
d.
adenoids
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.
B
The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.
C
The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.
D
The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oral Cavity OBJ: 11
25. Which structure extends from the posterior nares to the superior portion of the soft palate?
a.
nasopharynx
c.
tongue
b.
oropharynx
d.
palatine tonsils
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.
B
The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.
C
The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.
D
The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Nasopharynx
OBJ: 12
26. Which epithelium is present in the nasopharynx?
a.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
c.
stratified squamous
b.
cuboidal
d.
pseudostratified squamous
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B
The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
C
The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
D
The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Nasopharynx
OBJ: 12
27. What is another name for pharyngeal tonsils?
a.
adenoids
c.
lingual tonsils
b.
palatine tonsils
d.
faucial tonsils
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.
B
The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.
C
The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.
D
The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Nasopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-7: Infected and Swollen Pharyngeal Tonsils (Adenoids)
OBJ: 13
28. What is another name for the pharyngotympanic tubes?
a.
auditory
c.
faucial
b.
adenoids
d.
conchae
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.
B
The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.
C
The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.
D
The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Nasopharynx
OBJ: 12
29. What is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children?
a.
otitis media
c.
tonsillitis
b.
sinusitis
d.
pharyngitis
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.
B
Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.
C
Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.
D
Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Nasopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-8: Otitis Media OBJ: 14
30. Which structure extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue?
a.
oropharynx
c.
laryngopharynx
b.
nasopharynx
d.
uvula
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.
B
The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.
C
The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.
D
The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oropharynx OBJ: 12
31. What type of epithelium is found in the oropharynx?
a.
stratified squamous
c.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
b.
pseudostratified squamous
d.
cuboidal
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
B
The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C
The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
D
The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oropharynx OBJ: 12
32. What structure is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx?
a.
vallecula epiglottica
c.
palatine tonsils
b.
lingual tonsils
d.
rima glottidis
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.
B
The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.
C
The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.
D
The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Oropharynx OBJ: 12
33. Which type of epithelium lines the laryngopharynx?
a.
stratified squamous
c.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
b.
pseudostratified squamous
d.
cuboidal
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
B
The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C
The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
D
The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Laryngopharynx
OBJ: 12
34. What is a common site for misplacement of endotracheal tubes during emergency intubation?
a.
esophagus
c.
stomach
b.
left mainstem bronchus
d.
left upper lobar bronchus
ANS: A
Feedback
A
During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus
B
During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus
C
During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus
D
During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Laryngopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-9: Endotracheal Tube
OBJ: 15
35. Which structure extends from the base of the tongue to the upper end of the trachea?
a.
larynx
c.
thyroid gland
b.
laryngopharynx
d.
rima glottidis
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.
B
The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.
C
The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.
D
The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Larynx OBJ: 17
36. Which of the following are functions of the larynx?
I. Passageway for gas
II. Protects against aspiration
III. Generation of sounds for speech
IV.Warming and filtration of inspired gas
a.
I, II, and III only
c.
I and III only
b.
I and II only
d.
I, III, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.
B
The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.
C
The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.
D
The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Larynx OBJ: 21
37. Which of the cartilages of the larynx are unpaired?
a.
thyroid, epiglottis, and cricoid
b.
thyroid, cricoid, and cuneiform
c.
artyenoid, cuneiform, and corniculate
d.
thyroid, epiglottis, and arytenoid
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.
B
The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.
C
The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.
D
The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Cartilages of the Larynx
OBJ: 16
38. To what structure does the upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attach by a membrane?
a.
hyoid bone
c.
epiglottis
b.
tongue
d.
mandible
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.
B
The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.
C
The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.
D
The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Cartilages of the Larynx
OBJ: 16
39. Which laryngeal cartilage is primarily responsible for preventing food, liquids, and foreign bodies from entering the lower airways?
a.
epiglottis
c.
cricoid
b.
thyroid
d.
corniculate
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.
B
The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.
C
The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.
D
The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Cartilages of the Larynx
OBJ: 16
40. Which laryngeal cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms a large portion of the posterior laryngeal wall?
a.
cricoid
c.
corniculate
b.
cuneiform
d.
epiglottis
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.
B
The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.
C
The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.
D
The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Cartilages of the Larynx
OBJ: 16
41. Which of the laryngeal cartilages are paired?
I. Cuneiform
II. Arytenoid
III. Corniculate
IV. Cricoid
a.
I, II, and III only
c.
I, II, and IV only
b.
I, II, III, and IV
d.
II, III, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.
B
The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.
C
The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.
D
The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Cartilages of the Larynx
OBJ: 16
42. What is the space between the true vocal cords called?
a.
rima glottidis
c.
vallecula
b.
vestibule
d.
choana
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.
B
The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.
C
The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.
D
The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Interior of the Larynx
OBJ: 17
43. What is the treatment of choice for post-extubation laryngeal edema?
a.
aerosolized alpha adrenergic agent such as racemic epinephrine
b.
antibiotics
c.
cough medicine
d.
long-acting bronchodilators
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.
B
The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.
C
The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.
D
The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-10: Laryngitis
OBJ: 18
44. Which of the following is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by the parainfluenza virus?
a.
laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
c.
tonsillitis
b.
epiglottitis
d.
pharyngitis
ANS: A
Feedback
A
LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.
B
LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.
C
LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.
D
LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-11: Croup Syndrome
OBJ: 19
45. What is causative agent in the majority of cases of acute epiglottitis?
a.
Haemophilus influenzae type B
c.
MRSA
b.
Parainfluenza virus
d.
Streptococcus
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.
B
The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.
C
The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.
D
The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-11: Croup Syndrome
OBJ: 19
46. Which type of epithelium is present in the larynx above the vocal cords?
a.
stratified squamous
c.
pseudostratified squamous
b.
cuboidal
d.
pseudostratified ciliated columnar
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
B
Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
C
Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
D
Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Interior of the Larynx
OBJ: 17
47. Which laryngeal muscles are primarily responsible for adduction of the vocal cords?
a.
lateral cricoarytenoid
c.
transverse arytenoid
b.
posterior cricoarytenoid
d.
thyroarytenoid
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.
B
The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.
C
The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.
D
The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Laryngeal Musculature
OBJ: 20
48. Which of the following muscles pull the larynx and hyoid downward?
a.
infrahyoid group
c.
cricothyroid muscles
b.
suprahyoid group
d.
posterior cricoarytenoid muscles
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.
B
The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.
C
The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.
D
The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Laryngeal Musculature
OBJ: 20
49. What is the secondary vital function of the larynx?
a.
Valsalva’s maneuver
c.
Babinski reflex
b.
Gag reflex
d.
Moro maneuver
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.
B
Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.
C
Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.
D
Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Ventilatory Function of the Larynx
OBJ: 21
50. What type of epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles?
a.
pseudostratified ciliates columnar
c.
pseudostratified squamous
b.
cuboidal
d.
stratified squamous
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.
B
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.
C
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.
D
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
51. What is the primary component of the mucous blanket in the tracheobronchial tree?
a.
water
c.
glycoproteins
b.
lipids
d.
DNA
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.
B
The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.
C
The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.
D
The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
52. At what level in the tracheobronchial tree are cilia completely absent?
a.
respiratory bronchioles
c.
mainstem bronchi
b.
lobar bronchi
d.
bronchioles
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.
B
Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.
C
Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.
D
Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
53. Which cranial nerve innervates the submucosal glands?
a.
tenth
c.
eighth
b.
ninth
d.
seventh
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.
B
The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.
C
The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.
D
The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
54. What is the term for the viscous layer of the mucous blanket?
a.
gel
c.
basal
b.
sol
d.
epoxic
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.
B
The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.
C
The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.
D
The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
55. How many times per minute do the cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move?
a.
1500 times
c.
500 times
b.
2500 times
d.
50 times
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.
B
The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.
C
The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.
D
The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree
OBJ: 22
56. When excessive secretions are present in the lungs, what term describes the sound heard by ascultation over large airways during exhalation?
a.
rhonchi
c.
crackles
b.
wheeze
d.
stridor
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present
B
Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present
C
Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present
D
Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree |Clinical Connection 1-12: Excessive Airway Secretions OBJ: 23
57. Which of the following factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism?
I. Excessive bronchial secretions
II. Tobacco smoke
III. Hypoxia
IV. Air pollution
a.
I, II, III, and IV
c.
I, II, and III only
b.
I, II, and IV only
d.
I and II only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.
B
All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.
C
All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.
D
All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree |Clinical Connection 1-13: Abnormal Mucociliary Transport Mechanism OBJ: 24
58. Where are mast cells located in the tracheobronchial tree?
I. Lamina propria
II. Intra-alveolar septa
III. Sub-mucosal glands
a.
I, II, and III
c.
I and III only
b.
I only
d.
I and II only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.
B
Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.
C
Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.
D
Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Immune Response
OBJ: 22
59. Approximately how many IgE receptor sites are present on a single mast cell?
a.
100,000 - 500,000
c.
100 - 500
b.
1,000 - 5,000
d.
1,000,000 - 5,000,000
ANS: A
Feedback
A
There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.
B
There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.
C
There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.
D
There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Immune Response
OBJ: 22
60. When degranulation of mast cells occurs and chemical mediators are released, which of the following would occur in the lungs?
I. Increased vascular permeability
II. Increased mucus production
III. Smooth muscle relaxation
IV. Vasodilation with edema
a.
I, II, and IV only
c.
I, II, and III only
b.
I, II, III and IV
d.
I and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.
B
Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.
C
Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.
D
Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Immune Response
OBJ: 22
61. What is the term for the cartilaginous airways?
a.
conducting zone
c.
acinus
b.
respiratory unit
d.
tracheobronchial tree
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.
B
The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.
C
The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.
D
The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
62. In cm, what is the average diameter of the adult trachea?
a.
1.5 - 2.5 cm
c.
0.75 - 1.0 cm
b.
2.0-3.5 cm
d.
0.5 - 1.5 cm
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.
B
The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.
C
The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.
D
The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
63. What is the term for the bifurcation of the trachea?
a.
carina
c.
choana
b.
hilum
d.
concha
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.
B
The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.
C
The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.
D
The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
64. In an adult, at what angle does the left mainstem bronchus branch from the trachea?
a.
40-60 degrees
c.
25-40 degrees
b.
60-75 degrees
d.
10-15 degrees
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.
B
In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.
C
In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.
D
In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
65. What is the recommended “safe range” for endotracheal tube cuff pressures?
a.
20-25 mm Hg
c.
35-40 mm Hg
b.
30-35 mm Hg
d.
45-50 mm Hg
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.
B
The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.
C
The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.
D
The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-14: Hazards Associated with Endotracheal Tubes and Tracheostomies OBJ: 26
66. Which vessel is the most commonly associated with massive hemorrhage following a tracheostomy?
a.
innominate artery
c.
pulmonary artery
b.
carotid artery
d.
subclavian artery
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.
B
The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.
C
The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.
D
The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-14: Hazards Associated with Endotracheal Tubes and Tracheostomies OBJ: 26
67. In the newborn, at what angles do the right and left mainstem bronchi form with the trachea?
a.
both form a 55 degree angle
b.
both form a 40 degree angle
c.
right forms a 25 degree angle, left forms a 60 degree angle
d.
right forms a 60 degree angle, left forms a 25 degree angle
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.
B
In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.
C
In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.
D
In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
68. In an adult, into which structure would an endotracheal tube likely enter if the tube is inadvertently advanced too far?
a.
right mainstem bronchus
c.
right middle lobar bronchus
b.
left mainstem bronchus
d.
left lower lobar bronchus
ANS: A
Feedback
A
An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.
B
An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.
C
An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.
D
An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application
REF: The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-15: Inadvertent Intubation of Right Mainstem Bronchus OBJ: 27
69. How many second generation bronchi would you find in a healthy adult tracheobronchial tree?
a.
5
c.
6
b.
3
d.
2
ANS: A
Feedback
A
There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.
B
There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.
C
There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.
D
There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
70. How many segmental bronchi are found in each of the lungs?
a.
10 in right lung, 8 in left lung
c.
each lung has 8
b.
8 in right lung, 10 in left lung
d.
each lung has 10
ANS: A
Feedback
A
There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.
B
There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.
C
There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.
D
There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Cartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 25
71. Which airways compose the noncartilaginous airways?
I. Subsegmental bronchi
II. Bronchioles
III. Terminal bronchioles
IV. Respiratory bronchioles
a.
II and III only
c.
II only
b.
I, II, and III only
d.
I, II, III, and IV
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.
B
The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.
C
The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.
D
The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Noncartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 28
72. At which airway generation do Canals of Lambert appear?
a.
16 - 19
c.
6-9
b.
12-15
d.
20-26
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.
B
The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.
C
The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.
D
The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Noncartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 28
73. At what point in the tracheobronchial tree are Clara cells present?
a.
terminal bronchioles
c.
subsegmental bronchi
b.
respiratory bronchioles
d.
bronchioles
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.
B
Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.
C
Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.
D
Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Noncartilaginous Airways
OBJ: 28
74. How does the total cross-sectional area of the tracheobrochial tree change from the trachea to the respiratory zone?
a.
It increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone
b.
It decreases slightly to the terminal bronchioles then decreases significantly
c.
It remains steady throughout the tracheobronchial tree
d.
It increases steadily through the lobar bronchi then increases significantly through the remaining airway generations
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.
B
The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.
C
The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.
D
The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Bronchial Cross Sectional Area
OBJ: 29
75. Which structures are nourished by the bronchial arteries?
a.
trachea through the terminal bronchioles
b.
respiratory zone
c.
trachea and mainstem bronchi only
d.
noncartilaginous airways only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.
B
The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.
C
The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.
D
The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Bronchial Blood Supply
OBJ: 30
76. In the adult male, approximately how many alveoli are present in the lungs?
a.
300 million
c.
180 million
b.
600 million
d.
130 million
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.
B
In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.
C
In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.
D
In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Sites of Gas Exchange
OBJ: 31
77. What type of epithelium composes 95% of the alveolar surface?
a.
Type I (squamous pneumocyte)
b.
Type II (cuboidal)
c.
Type III (macrophages)
d.
Type IV (pseudostratified squamous)
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.
B
Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.
C
Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.
D
Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Sites of Gas Exchange
OBJ: 31
78. In the lungs of a healthy young adult male, what is the average surface area available for gas exchange?
a.
70 square meters
c.
300 square meters
b.
100 square meters
d.
50 square meters
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.
B
In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.
C
In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.
D
In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Sites of Gas Exchange
OBJ: 31
79. Which alveolar cells are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant?
a.
Type II
c.
Type IV
b.
Type III
d.
Type I
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.
B
Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.
C
Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.
D
Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Sites of Gas Exchange
OBJ: 32
80. What is the term for the openings in the walls of interalveolar septa?
a.
Pores of Kohn
c.
Clara cells
b.
Canals of Lambert
d.
Loose space
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.
B
Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.
C
Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.
D
Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Pores of Kohn
OBJ: 32
81. What is the average thickness of the Type I alveolar cell?
a.
0.1-0.5 microns
c.
1-5 microns
b.
0.1-0.5 mm
d.
1-5 mm
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.
B
The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.
C
The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.
D
The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Alveolar Epithelium
OBJ: 32
82. Which alveolar cells are macrophages?
a.
Type III
c.
Type I
b.
Type II
d.
Type IV
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.
B
Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.
C
Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.
D
Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Alveolar Macrophages
OBJ: 32
83. In which portion of the primary lobule does the majority of gas exchange occur?
a.
tight space of interstitium
c.
Pores of Kohn
b.
loose space of intestitium
d.
Type II pneumocyte
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.
B
The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.
C
The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.
D
The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Intersitium OBJ: 33
84. What is the inner layer of the wall of the pulmonary artery called?
a.
tunica intima
c.
tunica adventitia
b.
tunica media
d.
tunica externicus
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.
B
The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.
C
The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.
D
The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Arteries OBJ: 34
85. What type of epithelium is present in the pulmonary capillaries?
a.
squamous
c.
cuboidal
b.
pseudostratified squamous
d.
pseudostratified columnar
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.
B
The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.
C
The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.
D
The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Capillaries OBJ: 34
86. How many pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium?
a.
4
c.
8
b.
2
d.
0
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.
B
Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.
C
Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.
D
Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Venules and Veins
OBJ: 34
87. From what area deep in the lungs do lymphatic vessels arise?
a.
loose space of interstitium
c.
Type II alveolar cells
b.
tight space of interstitium
d.
Type III alveolar cells
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.
B
Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.
C
Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.
D
Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lymphatic System
OBJ: 35
88. On which portion(s) of the right lung surfaces would the majority of lymphatic vessels be located?
a.
lower lobes
b.
upper lobes
c.
middle lobe
d.
Lymphatic vessels are distributed equally on all lobes
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.
B
The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.
C
The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.
D
The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lymphatic System
OBJ: 35
89. What is the term for the vessels adjacent to peribronchovascular lymphatic vessels?
a.
juxta-alveolar lymphatics
c.
tertiary lymphatics
b.
Type IV lymphatics
d.
cardinal lymphatics
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.
B
The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.
C
The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.
D
The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lymphatic System
OBJ: 35
90. What effect does stimulation of the beta 2 receptors have on the pulmonary system?
a.
bronchdilation
c.
vasoconstriction
b.
bronchoconstriction
d.
vasodilation
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).
B
Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).
C
Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).
D
Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Neural Control of the Lungs
OBJ: 36
91. Which neurotransmitter is released when the parasympathetic system is activated?
a.
acetylcholine
c.
norepinephrine
b.
epinephrine
d.
prostaglandin
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.
B
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.
C
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.
D
Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Neural Control of the Lungs
OBJ: 36
92. What is the general term for drugs that block the effects of the parasymphathetic nervous system on the bronchial smooth muscle?
a.
anticholinergic
c.
parasympathomimetic
b.
beta adrenergic
d.
sympathomimetic
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.
B
Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.
C
Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.
D
Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Neural Control of the Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-16: The Role of Neural Control Agents in Respiratory Care OBJ: 38
93. What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the body?
I. Dilates the pupils
II. Causes bronchodilation
III. Increases rate and force of cardiac contractions
a.
I, II, and III
c.
I and III only
b.
II and III only
d.
II and III only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.
B
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.
C
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.
D
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Neural Control of the Lungs
OBJ: 37
94. When an acute asthma episode occurs, which quick relief agent is most commonly administered?
a.
albuterol
c.
salmeterol
b.
formoterol
d.
arformoterol
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.
B
Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.
C
Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.
D
Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Neural Control of the Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-17: An Asthmatic Episode and the Role of Bronchodilator and Anti-Inflammatory Drugs OBJ: 39
95. In the healthy adult, what are the normal anterior boundaries of the lungs?
a.
Between first and sixth ribs
b.
Between first and eigth ribs
c.
Between the second and ninth ribs
d.
Between the second and eleventh ribs
ANS: A
Feedback
A
In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.
B
In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.
C
In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.
D
In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lungs OBJ: 40
96. What is the term for the uppermost portion of the upright lung?
a.
apex
c.
lingula
b.
base
d.
hilum
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.
B
The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.
C
The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.
D
The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lungs OBJ: 40
97. How many bronchopulmonary segments are located in the lower lobe of the right lung?
a.
5
c.
3
b.
4
d.
2
ANS: D
Feedback
A
There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.
B
There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.
C
There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.
D
There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Lungs (Figure 1-41)
OBJ: 41
98. What is the term for the therapeutic positional measures which utilize gravity to assist in secretion removal from the lungs?
a.
postural drainage
c.
percussion
b.
vibration
d.
chest wall oscillation
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs
B
Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs
C
Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs
D
Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-18: Postural Drainage Therapy
OBJ: 42
99. Which structures are contained in the mediastinum?
I. Trachea
II. Great vessels
III. Portions of the esophagus
IV. Pituitary gland
a.
I, II, and III only
c.
I and II only
b.
I, II, III, and IV
d.
I, II, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.
B
The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.
C
The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.
D
The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Mediatinum
OBJ: 43
100. What is the term for the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura?
a.
pleural cavity
c.
pericardial cavity
b.
mediatinum
d.
thoracic cavity
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.
B
The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.
C
The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.
D
The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Pleural Membranes
OBJ: 44
101. What is the superior portion of the sternum called?
a.
manubrium sterni
c.
xiphoid process
b.
body
d.
maxilla sterni
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.
B
The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.
C
The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.
D
The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Thorax OBJ: 47
102. What is the term for inflammation of the pleural membranes?
a.
pleurisy
c.
empyema
b.
pleural effusion
d.
pneumothorax
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.
B
Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.
C
Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.
D
Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-19: Abnormal Conditions of the Pleural membranes OBJ: 45
103. What is the term for the abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural cavity?
a.
pleural effusion
c.
pneumothorax
b.
empyema
d.
hemothorax
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.
B
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.
C
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.
D
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-19: Abnormal Conditions of the Pleural membranes OBJ: 45
104. In a pneumothorax, where does the abnormal collection of air accumulate?
a.
pleural cavity
c.
mediastinum
b.
thoracic cavity
d.
pericardium
ANS: A
Feedback
A
A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
B
A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
C
A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
D
A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-20: Pneumothorax
OBJ: 46
105. What is one of the most common iatrogenic complications from a thoracentesis?
a.
pneumothorax
c.
empyema
b.
hemorrhage
d.
pleural effusion
ANS: A
Feedback
A
An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.
B
An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.
C
An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.
D
An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: The Thorax|Clinical Connection 1-21: Puncture Site for a Thoracentesis
OBJ: 48
106. Which ribs are identified as floating ribs?
a.
11 and 12
c.
7-10
b.
7-12
d.
9-12
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.
B
Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.
C
Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.
D
Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Thorax OBJ: 47
107. Which nerves supply the primary motor innervation to the right and left hemidiaphragms?
a.
phrenic
c.
IX cranial
b.
vagus
d.
Thoracic nerves 1-3
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.
B
The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.
C
The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.
D
The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall
REF: Muscles of Ventilation|Clinical Connection 1-22: Spinal Cord Trauma and Diaphragmatic Paralysis OBJ: 50
108. Which structure moves in a “pump handle-like motion” during inspiration?
a.
sternum
c.
diaphragm
b.
external intercostals
d.
internal intercostals
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.
B
The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.
C
The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.
D
The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Muscles of Ventilation
OBJ: 47
109. Which of the following are accessory muscles of inspiration?
I. External intercostals
II. Scalenus muscles
III. Transverse abdominus
IV. Trapezius muscles
a.
I, II, and IV only
c.
I and II only
b.
I, III, and IV only
d.
I, II, III, and IV
ANS: A
Feedback
A
The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
B
The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
C
The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
D
The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: The Accessory Muscles of Inspiration
OBJ: 51
110. Which of the following are accessory muscles of expiration?
I. Rectus abdominis
II. Transverse abdominis
III. Internal intercostals
IV. Pectoralis major
a.
I. II, and III only
c.
II, III, and IV only
b.
I and II only
d.
I, II, III, and IV only
ANS: A
Feedback
A
Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.
B
Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.
C
Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.
D
Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Accessory Muscles of Expiration
OBJ: 52
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Test Bank Canadian Politics Critical Approaches 7th Edition
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CHAPTER 1: THE STUDY OF POLITICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following form the four branches of government?
a. the executive, the bureaucracy, the legislature, and the judiciary
b. the authorities, the legislature, the executive, and the administration
c. the executive, the courts, the management, and Parliament
d. the Parliament, the Senate, the courts, and the executive
ANS: A
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 5
2. According to political science, what are the three different types of power?
a. coercion, authority, legitimacy
b. authority, influence, coercion
c. influence, legitimacy, respect
d. authority, coercion, influence
ANS: D
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 4
3. Which of the following is NOT an example of a pressure group?
a. National Citizen’s Coalition
b. The Federal Conservative Party of Canada
c. Women’s Legal Education and Action Fund (LEAF)
d. Mother’s Against Drunk Drivers (MADD)
ANS: B
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 7
4. Why is the pluralist approach appropriate for the study of Canadian politics?
a. Most interests in Canada are equally represented by at least one pressure group.
b. The original framework of the Canadian political system allowed for the consideration of a diversity of interests.
c. Canada has always been a diversified society, especially in terms of ethnic and religious diversity.
d. Rigid party discipline allows for interest groups to align themselves with particular political parties.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
OBJ: Higher Order
REF: 13
5. What analytical approach is closest to the “democratic ideal”?
a. pluralist approach
b. Marxist approach
c. class approach
d. social cleavages approach
ANS: A
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 13
6. According to the institutional approach, what are the two main elements of politics and government that are considered to be the main essence of political analysis?
a. institutions and the constitution
b. bureaucracy and law
c. constitution and law
d. bureaucracy and courts
ANS: C
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 10
7. What political decision is best described by the class analysis approach?
a. increasing airport and border security
b. adopting the North American Free Trade Agreement
c. increasing funding to universities
d. adopting a clean-air policy
ANS: B
PTS: 1
OBJ: Higher order
REF: 13-14
8. Which statement best describes the notion of the embedded state?
a. Elites cannot operate with total autonomy because of the fusion of state and society.
b. The state wields an enormous amount of power, unchecked by societal norms.
c. Individuals view the powers of the state to be entrenched within all aspects of society.
d. Politicians are unable to operate without the bureaucratic functions of the state.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 12
9. What is an example of elite accommodation?
a. the Harper government’s decision to remove the tax advantages of corporate income trusts
b. the $1 billion fine levied against tobacco companies for smuggling cigarettes
c. the reality that corporate executives and politicians often come from the same ranks
d. the anti-Kyoto stance taken by several Western politicians
ANS: C
PTS: 1
OBJ: Higher order
REF: 12
10. Which statement best describes the rational choice approach in politics?
a. People get involved in politics because they want to get something out of it for themselves or others.
b. Its primary focus is the source of human motivation.
c. Its theory stipulates that individuals will deductively reduce their logic in order to achieve their goals.
d. What is good for the individual is the same as what is good for the group.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
OBJ: Remember
REF: 15
TRUE/FALSE
1. Issues include only those demands that the authorities have taken under serious consideration.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 6
2. Feedback is a communication of outputs back into the system, in response to which the pattern of demands and support is altered.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 6
3. Government authority is based on accountability.
ANS: F
It is based on legitimacy.
PTS: 1
REF: p. 4
4. The notion that the operations of the state are so extensive that they are connected to virtually every aspect of society is called the state-centred approach.
ANS: F
It is called the embedded state.
PTS: 1
REF: p. 12
5. In the class analysis approach, the political elite takes orders from the capitalist elite and the state is an instrument of bourgeois domination.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 14
6. The class approach postulates that the political system is characterized by openness and that power is widely dispersed among many interests.
ANS: F
The pluralist approach postulates that the political system is characterized by openness and that power is widely dispersed among many interests.
PTS: 1
REF: 10
7. The Marxist approach is synonymous with the class approach.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 13
8. The state-centred approach views those individuals endowed with the authority to formulate and implement public policies as basically autonomous from the rest of society.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 11
9. The behaviour of individual politicians is an example of the political psychology approach.
ANS: F
The behaviour of individual politicians is an example of the political behaviour approach.
PTS: 1
REF: p. 15
10. In the rational choice approach, “goal oriented” is synonymous with “preference-oriented”.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
REF: p. 15
ESSAY
1. Compare and contrast two of the five approaches to the study of politics (institutional, state- based, political sociology, political psychology and political behaviour approaches and rational choice approach).
ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1
REF: pp. 9–16
2. Consider the rising costs of postsecondary education. Apply each of the different approaches to the study of politics to the economic concerns of postsecondary students.
ANS:
The pluralist approach would assume that students could join together to form an interest group that would lobby for student concerns, including lower tuition rates. The pluralist argument would continue, however, that if student organizations were larger and stronger, and if student identities led them to take a more aggressive part in the political system, they might have greater success.
The public choice approach assumes that students are rational, self-interested, and well informed, that their identity as students is foremost in their minds, and that they vote for parties and politicians that will provide them with the most favourable policies. It notes that students comprise a relatively large segment of the electorate, and constitute a significant body of voters in particular constituencies where postsecondary educational institutions are located. On the other hand, politicians are likely to make promises to this cohort and others in election campaigns that they might not keep afterward.
The class analysis approach would first examine the class composition of the postsecondary educational cohort—in particular, what proportion of such students come from the less affluent levels of society? Do high tuition fees and inadequate financial assistance programs keep lower-income students out? Second, much depends on whether the bourgeoisie believe that the state should pursue student-friendly policies. Well-educated students are an asset to the corporate elite, and if they can be hired fully trained, it will save corporations money. Since corporations provide much employment for this group as well as others, grateful politicians will be responsive to their concerns on these as well as other issues. Third, attitudes toward student concerns on the part of the population as a whole, as well as of many students themselves, will have been influenced by the way such issues are portrayed in the corporate-owned media. Fourth, student protestors, especially on wider issues such as globalization or poverty, may well be victims of coercive actions on the part of the police, but, on the other hand, students can influence the system if they function as a class.
Applying the state-centred approach to postsecondary student concerns, such demands would have little effect on the authorities unless the latter were themselves concerned. Student-friendly public policies would depend on the extent to which bureaucrats and/or politicians saw the value in postsecondary education to society as a whole.
The globalization approach would suggest that student organizations are increasingly in contact with each other across state borders. One respect in which this is true is in discussions about protesting against globalization, but they may also be in touch in the hope of strengthening their position as students, per se. Globalization would also suggest that ideas and ideologies relevant to postsecondary education flow readily across state borders. This is also true, such as in the case of Canadian students’ awareness of European countries where postsecondary tuition is free!
PTS: 1
3. Describe how power resolves political issues.
ANS: Answers will vary.
PTS: 1
4. Explain the relationship between authorities, input, output, and feedback and how these relate to the Canadian political system.
ANS:
(Refer to Figure 1.1)
The authorities describe the four branches of government involved in the decision-making process for a society. These include the legislature, the executive, the bureaucracy, and the judiciary. The authorities receive input from society in the form of demands and support. Individuals, groups, political parties, and the media can raise demands. Support is less concrete and can take the form of support for the government of the day, support for the decision-making structures within the political system, or support for the political community known as Canada.
One or more branches of government receive these forms of input and make decisions regarding some of the demands that come to their attention. These decisions are referred to as output. Whatever the type of output, it usually sparks a reaction in the rest of the system. This leads us to the concept of feedback—that is, a communication of the outputs back into the system, in response to which the pattern of demands and support is altered. If an output satisfies a particular demand, then that demand will no longer have to be articulated. On the other hand, a backlash may result. The authorities will then respond in one way or another to this new pattern of demands and support.
Thus, the political system is a dynamic, circular, never-ending process in which the authorities react to demands and support (known as input), seek out public sentiment, convert some of the demands into outputs, and then respond in turn to whatever changes in the pattern of inputs have resulted from the feedback from such outputs. Individuals and groups raise conflicting demands, but because there is a consensus on the legitimacy of the government, people generally abide by its authoritative decisions, even when they disagree with them.
PTS: 1
5. How are demands transmitted to the authorities? Which method do you think is most effective, and why?
ANS:
Demands can be transmitted to the authorities in several different manners. First, demands can be transmitted on a personal basis, by means of a letter, fax, telephone call, e-mail, or face-to-face encounter. Second, demands can be transmitted via group action, from interest groups, pressure groups or advocacy groups. Groups may also come in the form of corporations or institutions. By joining a political party, people can attempt to get it to recognize their concerns in its platform or policies. If the party forms a government, it can incorporate the demand into its decisions and government policy; in opposition, the party can bring the problem to national attention. Another means of transmitting demands to the authorities is through mass media. Media can have enormous political influence, as they provide the electorate with most of its information about politics and government.
PTS: 1
0 notes
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Test Bank Canadian Organizational Behaviour 9th Edition
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c1
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1.
In order for something to be called an organization it must have buildings and equipment. True False
2.
More than 1,000 years ago, Chinese factories were producing 125,000 tons of iron each year. True False
3.
All organizations have a collective sense of purpose. True False
4.
Social entities are called organizations only when their members work interdependently toward some purpose. True False
5.
Scholars have been studying organizational behaviour since the days of Greek philosophers. True False
6.
The study of OB wasn't formally organized until the 1970s. True False
7.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s. True False
8.
An important principle in organizational behaviour is that OB theories should never be used to question or rebuild one's mental models. True False
9.
Organizational behaviour knowledge helps us influence people and organizational events. True False
10.
Evidence indicates that applying organizational behaviour knowledge tends to improve the organization's financial performance. True False
11.
Organizational effectiveness, and not profitability, is considered the "ultimate dependent variable" in organizational behaviour. True False
12.
One problem with the term "organizational effectiveness'' is that it has too many substitute labels, and almost as many definitions. True False
13.
Almost all organizational behaviour theories share an implicit or explicit objective of making organizations more effective. True False
14.
The goal attainment definition of effectiveness focuses on whether the organization achieves its stated goals. True False
15.
At present there is only one organizational behaviour perspective which adequately defines organizational effectiveness. True False
16.
The major organizational effectiveness perspectives are considered detailed extensions of the closed systems model. True False
17.
The open systems perspective emphasizes that organizations are effective when they maintain a good "fit" with their external environments. True False
18.
One problem with the open systems perspective is that it neglects to focus on how well the organization operates internally. True False
19.
The most efficient companies are not necessarily the most effective ones. True False
20.
Successful organizations need to only concentrate on achieving efficient transformation processes. True False
21.
Organizational efficiency refers to the amount of outputs relative to inputs in the transformation process. True False
22.
As organizations grow, they tend to develop more subsystems and coordination among them become more complex. True False
23.
Knowledge management develops an organization's capacity to acquire, share, use, and store valuable knowledge. True False
24.
The organizational learning perspective is also known as the knowledge management perspective. True False
25.
Intellectual capital includes, among other things, the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures. True False
26.
Experimentation is considered a valid knowledge acquisition strategy. True False
27.
Intellectual capital represents the stock of knowledge held by an organization. True False
28.
The most obvious form of intellectual capital is one's level of education. True False
29.
Human memory plays a critical role in organizational memory. True False
30.
Structural capital refers to buildings and other depreciable tangible assets. True False
31.
One of the fastest ways to acquire knowledge is to hire individuals or purchase entire companies that have valued knowledge. True False
32.
Knowledge acquisition can only be achieved through formal education. True False
33.
Organizational memory includes knowledge embedded in the organization's systems and structures. True False
34.
Successful organizations should never ''unlearn'' knowledge that they have previously gained, because all knowledge is valuable. True False
35.
Intellectual capital includes relationship capital. True False
36.
Organizational unlearning is particularly important for organizational change. True False
37.
A key variable in the high-performance work practices (HPWP) model is employee competence. True False
38.
The high-performance work practices perspective supports the idea that organizations should strive to find "one best way" to do things. True False
39.
One criticism of the high-performance work practices perspective is that it promotes shareholder and customer satisfaction at the expense of employee well-being. True False
40.
Stakeholders are individuals, organizations, or other entities that affect, or are affected by the organization. True False
41.
Stockholders are stakeholders. True False
42.
Values represent an individual's short-term beliefs about what will happen in the future. True False
43.
Values guide our preferences and motivate our actions. True False
44.
Values are relatively stable, long-lasting beliefs about what is important in a variety of situations. True False
45.
The concept of values is an important aspect of the stakeholder perspective. True False
46.
Ethics refers to the study of moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or bad. True False
47.
One reason why workplace values have become more important is that employees increasingly value command-and-control direct supervision. True False
48.
One survey reported that most Canadian would choose to leave their current job for a more environmentally friendly employer. True False
49.
The "triple-bottom-line" philosophy says that successful organizations focus on financial performance three times more often than do less successful organizations. True False
50.
According to a recent survey, 93 percent of Canadians believe that corporate social responsibility is as important to companies as profit and shareholder value. True False
51.
The integrative model of organizational behaviour ties individual and team processes, and outcomes to organizational effectiveness. True False
52.
In the integrative model of organizational behaviour, individual outcomes are referred to as the ultimate dependent variable. True False
53.
Globalization may have both positive and negative implications for people working in organizations. True False
54.
Reduced job security and increased work intensification may be partly caused by globalization. True False
55.
Three of the most prominent workforce diversity forms are: age, ethnicity, and occupation. True False
56.
Surface-level diversity refers to observable demographic and other overt differences in people. True False
57.
People born between 1946 and 1964 are referred to as Baby Boomers. True False
58.
Workforce diversity does not consider the differences in psychological characteristics of employees. True False
59.
According to your text, 47 percent of Canadians identify themselves as members of a visible minority group. True False
60.
Research indicates that baby boomers and Generation X employees bring the same values and expectations to the workplace. True False
61.
Studies suggest that deep-level diversity exists across generations. True False
62.
According to one study, Millennials and Gen-Xers value extrinsic rewards significantly more than Boomers. True False
63.
Workforce diversity potentially improves decision making and team performance on complex tasks. True False
64.
When we describe multiculturalism we are primarily referring to surface-level diversity. True False
65.
Teams with diverse members usually take longer to perform effectively. True False
66.
The emerging employment relationship in Canada is that people must give up their legal rights regarding employment discrimination in return for long-term employment. True False
67.
One employment relationship trend is the focus away from work-life balance and virtual work, because of the extra stress these place on workers. True False
68.
According to recent surveys about one-third of Canadians would take a pay cut to improve their work-life balance. True False
69.
One of the most consistent observations is that telework is ranked as one of the most popular perks. True False
70.
Work-life balance refers to the length of time one remains in the workforce during one's lifetime. True False
71.
Work-live balance refers to minimizing conflict between work and nonwork demands. True False
72.
Teleworking forces employers to evaluate employee performance based on ''face time'' rather than work output. True False
73.
Successful teleworkers tend to be self-motivated and are able to fulfill their social needs outside of the work context. True False
74.
In virtual work, employees rely on information technology to perform jobs away from the traditional workplace. True False
75.
Telecommuting is the most common form of virtual work. True False
76.
Most organizational behaviour theories have been developed by OB scholars rather than from other disciplines. True False
77.
Psychology and sociology have contributed many theories and concepts to the field of organizational behaviour. True False
78.
Communications, marketing, and information systems are three emerging fields from which organizational behaviour is now acquiring knowledge. True False
79.
Sociology is one of the few disciplines that has not made any contribution to organizational behaviour knowledge. True False
80.
The field of organizational behaviour relies on common sense to understand organizational phenomena. True False
81.
The systematic research anchor relies mainly on qualitative data and subjective procedures to test hypothesis. True False
82.
The contingency anchor in organizational behaviour suggests that a particular action may have different consequences in different situations. True False
83.
Most organizational events may be studied from all three levels of analysis: individual, team, and organization. True False
84.
The contingency anchor in organizational behaviour suggests that we need to diagnose the situation to identify the most appropriate action under those specific circumstances. True False
85.
Which of these statements about the field of organizational behaviour is FALSE?
A.
Organizational behaviour scholars study individual, team, and structural characteristics that influence behaviour within organizations.
B.
Leadership, communication, and other organizational behaviour topics were not discussed by scholars until the 1940s.
C.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s.
D.
The field of OB has adopted concepts and theories from other fields of inquiry.
E.
OB scholars study what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
86.
Which of these statements about the field of organizational behaviour is TRUE?
A.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field during the 1980s.
B.
The origins of some organizational behaviour concepts date back to Plato and other Greek philosophers.
C.
Information technology has almost no effect on organizational behaviour.
D.
The field of organizational behaviour relies exclusively on ideas generated within the field by organizational behaviour scholars.
E.
The origins of organizational behaviour are traced mainly to the field of economics.
87.
In the field of organizational behaviour, organizations are best described as:
A.
legal entities that must abide by government regulations and pay taxes.
B.
physical structures with observable capital equipment.
C.
social entities with a publicly stated set of formal goals.
D.
groups of people who work interdependently towards some purpose.
E.
any social entity with profit-centred motives and objectives.
88.
Organizational behaviour knowledge:
A.
originates mainly from models developed in chemistry and other natural sciences.
B.
accurately predicts how anyone will behave in any situation.
C.
is more appropriate for people who work in computer science than in marketing.
D.
helps us to understand and influence the behaviours of others in organizational settings.
E.
None of the answers apply.
89.
According to the author of Canadian Organizational Behaviour, organizational behaviour knowledge:
A.
should never be used to influence the behaviour of other people.
B.
should be used mostly by managers and senior executives.
C.
should never replace your common sense knowledge about how organizations work.
D.
is relevant to everyone who works in organizations.
E.
should never be used to influence the behaviour of other people and should be used mostly by managers and senior executives.
90.
Which of these statements about the field of OB is FALSE?
A.
Organizational behaviour scholars study individual, team, and structural characteristics that influence behaviour within organizations.
B.
The field of OB has adopted concepts and theories from other fields of inquiry.
C.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s.
D.
Given the specific utility of the field, OB is useful for the managers in the organizations and not the employees.
E.
OB scholars study what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
91.
Which of the following perspective is consistent with the concept of organizational effectiveness?
A.
Open systems perspective
B.
Organizational learning perspective
C.
High-performance work practices perspective
D.
Stakeholder perspective
E.
All the answers are correct.
92.
Which of the following is included in the open systems perspective of organizations?
A.
Inputs
B.
Subsystems
C.
Outputs
D.
Feedback from the environment
E.
All of the answers are correct.
93.
The open systems perspective of organizational behaviour states that:
A.
organizations take their sustenance from the environment and in turn affect that environment.
B.
organizations can operate efficiently by focussing on what they do best and ignoring changes in the external environment.
C.
people are the only important and valued organizational input.
D.
organizations should be viewed as machines with one working part.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
94.
ACME Software Ltd has developed a training program to make employees more aware of how their job performance affects customers and other employees within the organization. This training program relates most closely with which of the following concepts?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Grounded theory
C.
Open systems perspective
D.
Marketing principles
E.
Organizational efficiency
95.
Which organizational behaviour perspective discusses inputs, outputs, and feedback?
A.
Mechanistic perspective
B.
Open systems perspective
C.
Goal-attainment perspective
D.
Organizational learning perspective
E.
Stakeholder perspective
96.
Which of the following relates to the perspective that organizations are open systems?
A.
The organization adjusts its services to satisfy changing consumer demand.
B.
The organization finds a substitute resource in anticipation of a future shortage of the resource previously used to manufacture the product.
C.
Production and sales employees coordinate their work activities to provide a more efficient work process.
D.
The organization changes its products to suit customer needs.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
97.
The amount of outputs relative to inputs in the organization's transformation process is referred to as:
A.
organizational efficiency
B.
organizational effectiveness
C.
organizational deficiency
D.
transformational quotient
E.
organizational footprint
98.
Knowledge management is an extension of:
A.
traditional accounting methods of measuring corporate assets.
B.
the organizational learning perspective of organizational behaviour.
C.
microeconomic principles of supply and demand.
D.
the efficiency model of industrial engineering.
E.
None of the answers apply.
99.
Intellectual capital refers to:
A.
how much money an organization spends on training and development.
B.
the stock of knowledge that resides in an organization.
C.
the percentage of information available that is actually used productively by the organization.
D.
the total cost of computers and other ''intelligent'' machines in the organization.
E.
the cost of hiring a typical employee.
100.
Intellectual capital consists of:
A.
knowledge that employees possess and generate.
B.
the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures.
C.
the value of the organization's relationship with customers.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
knowledge that employees possess and generate and the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures.
101.
A computer maintenance company wants to ''capture'' the knowledge that employees carry around in their heads by creating a database where employees document their solutions to unusual maintenance problems. This practice tries to:
A.
transform intellectual capital into knowledge management.
B.
transfer human capital into structural capital.
C.
prevent relationship capital from interfering with human capital.
D.
reduce the amount of human capital.
E.
transfer structural capital into relationship capital.
102.
The organizational learning perspective states that an organization's effectiveness depends on:
A.
extracting information and ideas from the external environment and through experimentation.
B.
ensuring that knowledge is shared throughout the organization.
C.
ensuring that employees effectively use the knowledge available to them.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
ensuring that knowledge is shared throughout the organization and that employees effectively use the knowledge available to them.
103.
Which of the following is a form of knowledge acquisition?
A.
Hiring job applicants.
B.
Research and development.
C.
Information sessions where employees describe to colleagues unique incidents involving customers.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
Hiring job applicants and research and development.
104.
Which of the following is an example of knowledge acquisition?
A.
Surveying employees about their attitudes towards recent corporate changes.
B.
Developing a training program for employees to learn the latest software for their jobs.
C.
Encouraging employees to share their knowledge with coworkers.
D.
Hiring people who bring valuable knowledge that is not available from current employees.
E.
All of the answers are examples of knowledge acquisition.
105.
Organizational memory refers to:
A.
its ability to hire more people with good memorization skills.
B.
its level of current knowledge so it can bring in new knowledge from the environment.
C.
its storage and preservation of intellectual capital.
D.
its ability to unlearn knowledge.
E.
its ability to conduct memorable work.
106.
A technology company wants to move into the field of wireless communications. Unfortunately, few of its employees know enough about the basic technology to acquire emerging knowledge about that field or to launch a separate business unit to enter that market. With respect to learning about wireless technology knowledge, this organization has:
A.
too much structural capital.
B.
low organizational memory.
C.
high human capital but low relationship capital.
D.
too much of an open system.
E.
low human capital.
107.
As part of the knowledge management process, experimentation mainly affects:
A.
measuring intellectual capital
B.
knowledge acquisition
C.
organizational memory
D.
knowledge sharing
E.
unlearning
108.
Eastern University performs a daily computer search through newspaper articles to identify any articles about the university or its faculty members. University administrators use this information to receive feedback about how the public reacts to university activities. In knowledge management, searching for newspaper articles and other external writing about the organization is mainly a form of:
A.
knowledge acquisition
B.
communities of practice
C.
organizational unlearning
D.
knowledge sharing
E.
documentation
109.
Twice each year, a major car parts manufacturer brings together production and engineering specialists from its eight divisions to discuss ideas, solutions, and concerns. This helps to minimize the ''silos of knowledge'' problem that exists in many organizations. This practice is primarily an example of:
A.
relationship capital
B.
experimentation
C.
knowledge sharing
D.
documentation
E.
organizational unlearning
110.
Organizational memory is best described as:
A.
the total terabytes of hard disk space available on computers throughout an organization.
B.
the ability of senior executives to recall important information about the company's products, services, and employees.
C.
the storage and preservation of intellectual capital within an organization.
D.
the ability of employees throughout the organization to recall important information about the company's products and services.
E.
the extent to which potential customers are able to recall specific products and services provided by an organization.
111.
Organizations can retain intellectual capital by:
A.
transferring human capital into structural capital.
B.
encouraging employees to take early retirement.
C.
discouraging employees from communicating with each other.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
112.
Which of the following typically results in a loss of organizational memory?
A.
The processes used to make a unique product are incorrectly documented.
B.
The company lays off nearly one-quarter of its workforce.
C.
The company sells one of its divisions (including employees in that division) to another organization.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
The processes used to make a unique product are incorrectly documented and the company lays off nearly one-quarter of its workforce.
113.
Organizations should ''unlearn'':
A.
in many situations involving organizational change.
B.
whenever new knowledge is brought into the organization.
C.
whenever the organization shifts from communities of practice to experimentation in the knowledge acquisition process.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
114.
The relatively new field of research that has emerged with the objective of identifying internal systems and structures that are associated with successful companies is called:
A.
the organizational behaviour systems perspective.
B.
the comparative organizations perspective.
C.
the organizational learning perspective.
D.
the organizational effectiveness perspective.
E.
the high-performance work practices perspective.
115.
Which of the following best describes the high-performance work practices perspective?
A.
Organizations that want to be effective should strive for "one best practice" strategy.
B.
A particular action may have different consequences depending on the situation.
C.
All organizations should be viewed as being made up of many different parts which contribute to high performance.
D.
Effective organizations incorporate several workplace practices that leverage the potential of human capital.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
116.
Two of the most widely mentioned high-performance work practices in organizational behaviour are:
A.
effective recruitment and hiring practices.
B.
ethical business practices and corporate social responsibility.
C.
avoiding counterproductive work behaviours and increasing workforce diversity.
D.
minimizing political behaviours and encouraging cooperation among organizational members.
E.
increasing employee involvement and job autonomy.
117.
Which of the following is NOT a concern expressed with respect to high-performance work practices (HPWP) perspective?
A.
HPWPs increase work stress for employees.
B.
Even when HPWPs are successful, management is reluctant to share the financial benefits with workers.
C.
The HPWP perspective lacks theoretical understanding of why such practices improve performance.
D.
HPWPs satisfy shareholder and customer needs at the expense of employee well-being.
E.
The HPWP perspective fails to consider the impact of such practices on the environment and society.
118.
Stakeholders include:
A.
shareholders
B.
employees
C.
suppliers
D.
governments
E.
All of the answers are correct.
119.
Employees, suppliers, and governments:
A.
are organizational stakeholders.
B.
are rarely considered in organizational behaviour theories.
C.
represent the three levels of analysis in organizational behaviour.
D.
are excluded from the open systems anchor.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
120.
Stable, long-lasting beliefs about what is important in a variety of situations are:
A.
called intellectual capital.
B.
the foundations of the open systems anchor.
C.
the main reason why organizations fail to adapt.
D.
rarely studied in the field of organizational behaviour.
E.
called values.
121.
Values have become more important in organizational behaviour because of:
A.
increased demand for corporate social responsibility.
B.
increased pressure on organizations to engage in ethical practices.
C.
direct supervision is expensive and incompatible to today's workforce.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
122.
The topic of ethics is most closely associated with:
A.
workplace values.
B.
the scientific method.
C.
workforce diversity.
D.
the open systems anchor.
E.
the contingency approach to organizational behaviour.
123.
Corporate social responsibility is most closely related to which of these organizational behaviour trends?
A.
Workforce diversity.
B.
Employment relationships.
C.
Virtual work.
D.
Globalization.
E.
Workplace values and ethics.
124.
The triple-bottom-line philosophy says that:
A.
companies should pay three times more attention to profits than to employee wellbeing.
B.
the main goal of all companies is to satisfy the needs of three groups: employees, shareholders, and suppliers.
C.
business success increases by having three times more contingent workers than permanent employees.
D.
companies should pay attention to local, national, and global customers.
E.
companies should try to support the economic, social, and environmental spheres of sustainability.
125.
Which of the following concept is most closely associated with corporate social responsibility?
A.
knowledge management
B.
sociological theories
C.
entrepreneurship
D.
open systems perspective
E.
triple-bottom-line philosophy
126.
Which of these statements about corporate social responsibility (CSR) is FALSE?
A.
Most companies now publically report on their CSR practices.
B.
CSR emphasizes the economic, social, and environmental spheres of sustainability.
C.
Most Canadians expect companies to engage in CSR.
D.
CSR is closely related to the topics of values and ethics.
E.
An organization's perceived level of CSR influences whether people apply for work with that organization.
127.
Which of the following is NOT considered an individual outcome in the integrative model of organizational behaviour?
A.
Behaviour
B.
Decisions
C.
Social networks
D.
Well-being
E.
Organizational citizenship
128.
According to the integrative model of organizational behaviour, which of the following is classified as an organizational input?
A.
Motivation
B.
Organizational citizenship
C.
Social networks
D.
Organizational culture
E.
Communication
129.
Which of these statements about globalization and organizational behaviour is TRUE?
A.
Globalization has little or no effect on organizational behaviour.
B.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour researchers to study only large multinational businesses.
C.
Globalization emphasizes the need to recognize the contingencies of effective organizational behaviour practice in diverse cultures.
D.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour textbooks to study only companies with headquarters in North America.
E.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour researchers to study only large multinational businesses and forced organizational behaviour textbooks to study only companies with headquarters in North America.
130.
Globalization occurs when an organization:
A.
actively participates in other countries and cultures.
B.
serves diverse customers within the firm's home country.
C.
has a diverse workforce within the firm's home country.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
serves diverse customers within the firm's home country and has a diverse workforce within the firm's home country.
131.
Workforce diversity:
A.
includes the entry of younger people to the workforce.
B.
can potentially improve decision making and team performance in organizations.
C.
is increasing in Canada.
D.
includes the increasing proportion of visible minorities in the workforce.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
132.
Which of the following is considered surface-level diversity?
A.
Physical qualities.
B.
Gender.
C.
Ethnicity.
D.
Age
E.
All of the answers are correct.
133.
Personalities, beliefs, values, and attitudes are:
A.
secondary categories of workforce diversity.
B.
primary categories of workforce diversity.
C.
categories of deep-level workforce diversity.
D.
not considered categories of diversity.
E.
a result of generational psychometrics.
134.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.
Canada is becoming a more homogeneous society.
B.
Deep-level diversity includes characteristics over which we have some control.
C.
Most Canadians believe that the government should disband multiculturalism.
D.
Diversity offers tremendous advantages to organizations with almost no disadvantages.
E.
Nearly one-half of all immigrants to Canada over the past decade were born in the United States.
135.
Which of the following statements about Canada's population and workforce is FALSE?
A.
More than half of immigrants to Canada over the past decade were born in Europe.
B.
The participation of visible minorities in the workforce has increased over the past few decades.
C.
Generation X employees bring somewhat different needs and expectations to the workplace than their Baby Boomer counterparts.
D.
Canada is becoming a more multicultural society.
E.
Workforce diversity presents both opportunities and challenges to organizations.
136.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A.
Employment relationships are shifting towards the idea that companies must provide employees a high degree of job security, possibly even a job for life.
B.
Generation X employees bring somewhat different values and needs to the workplace than those of baby boomers.
C.
The workforce is becoming more diverse.
D.
Successful firms increasingly rely on values rather than direct supervision to guide employee decisions and behaviour.
E.
More work-life balance is an emerging issue in the employment relationship.
137.
Virtual work:
A.
is more common in Canada than in the United States.
B.
occurs when job applicants are asked to pretend they are performing the job in the interview setting in order to determine their ability to perform that work.
C.
tends to improve an employee's social involvement in the organization.
D.
can potentially reduce employee stress.
E.
None of the answers apply.
138.
The degree to which a person minimizes conflict between work and nonwork demands refers to:
A.
life choice balance.
B.
stress management.
C.
quality of life issues.
D.
Personal-professional actualization.
E.
None of the answers apply.
139.
According to a recent survey how many Canadians would be willing take a pay cut to improve their work-life balance?
A.
One-third would agree.
B.
Nearly half would refuse.
C.
Fewer than 10 percent would accept.
D.
Nearly no one would agree.
E.
None of the answers apply.
140.
What effect does teleworking have in the workplace?
A.
Teleworking tends to improve the teleworker's work-life balance.
B.
Teleworking forces corporate leaders to evaluate employees more from their work results rather than their ''face time''.
C.
Under some circumstances, teleworking increases the teleworker's productivity.
D.
Teleworking increases the risk that employees feel socially isolated from each other.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
141.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of telecommuting according to research?
A.
It reduces stress.
B.
It improves job satisfaction.
C.
It makes employees feel more empowered.
D.
It reduces costs for the employer.
E.
It reduces pollution.
142.
Which of the following is NOT a conceptual anchor in organizational behaviour?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Systematic research anchor
C.
Organizational effectiveness anchor
D.
Multidisciplinary anchor
E.
Multiple levels of analysis anchor
143.
Which of the following does NOT represent a belief that anchors organizational behaviour?
A.
OB should view organizations as closed systems.
B.
OB should assume that the effectiveness of an action usually depends on the situation.
C.
OB should draw on knowledge from other disciplines.
D.
OB should rely on the systematic research methods to generate knowledge.
E.
OB topics can be studied from multiple levels of analysis.
144.
Which of the following statements about the field of organizational behaviour is FALSE?
A.
OB is the study of what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
B.
OB emerged as a distinct field of inquiry in the 1940s.
C.
OB is a self-contained discipline, independent of other disciplines.
D.
OB theories are usually tested using the scientific method.
E.
Many OB theories are contingency-oriented.
145.
Which of these statements is consistent with the four anchors of organizational behaviour?
A.
Organizational behaviour theories must apply universally to every situation.
B.
Organizations are like machines that operate independently of their external environment.
C.
Each OB topic relates to only one level of analysis.
D.
The field of organizational behaviour should rely on other disciplines for some of its theory development.
E.
None of these statements is consistent with the OB anchors.
146.
Which discipline has provided organizational behaviour with much of its theoretical foundation for team dynamics, organizational power, and organizational socialization?
A.
Sociology
B.
Psychology
C.
Economics
D.
Industrial engineering
E.
Political science
147.
Which of the following is identified as an emerging field from which organizational behaviour is acquiring new knowledge?
A.
Industrial engineering
B.
Information systems
C.
Anthropology
D.
Economics
E.
Psychology
148.
To form research questions, collect data, and test hypotheses against those data organizational behaviour scholars rely on:
A.
systematic research.
B.
closed systems theory.
C.
grounded theory.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
contingency theory.
149.
Which of the following is NOT an anchor of organizational behaviour?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Open systems anchor
C.
Multidisciplinary anchor
D.
Systematic research anchor
E.
Multiple levels of analysis anchor
150.
The contingency anchor of organizational behaviour states that:
A.
we should have a second OB theory to explain the situation in case our first choice doesn't work.
B.
OB theories must view organizations as systems that need to adapt to their environments.
C.
there is usually one best way to resolve organizational problems.
D.
a particular action may have different consequences in different situations.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
151.
According to the multiple levels of analysis anchor:
A.
organizational behaviour is mainly the study of how all levels of the organizational hierarchy interact with the external environment.
B.
OB topics typically relate to the individual, team, and organizational levels of analysis.
C.
there are eight levels of analysis that scholars should recognize when conducting OB research.
D.
organizational events can be studied from only one level of analysis.
E.
our understanding of organizational behaviour increases with the level of mathematical analysis applied to create the models.
152.
Which of the following is an anchor of organizational behaviour knowledge?
A.
diversity anchor.
B.
stakeholder anchor.
C.
open systems anchor.
D.
socioeconomic anchor.
E.
multiple levels of analysis anchor.
153.
Marketing specialists at Napanee Beer Co. developed a new advertising campaign for summer sales. The ads were particularly aimed at sports events where Napanee Beer sold kegs of beer on tap. The marketing group worked for months with a top advertising firm on the campaign. Their effort was successful in terms of significantly higher demand for Napanee Beer's keg beer at sports stadiums. However, the production department had not been notified of the marketing campaign and was not prepared for the increased demand. The company was forced to buy empty kegs at a premium price. It also had to brew some of the lower-priced keg beer in vats that would have been used for higher-priced specialty beer. The result was that Napanee Beer sold more of the lower-priced keg beer and less of the higher-priced products that summer. Moreover, the company could not initially fill consumer demand for the keg beer, resulting in customer dissatisfaction. Use open system perspective to explain what has occurred at Napanee Beer Co.
154.
Senior officers in a national military organization decided that operations in supplies requisition were inefficient and costly. They brought in consultants who recommended that the entire requisition process be ''reengineered''. This involved throwing out the old practices and developing an entirely new set of work activities around workflow. However, contrary to expectations, this intervention resulted in lower productivity, higher employee turnover and other adverse outcomes. Discuss likely problems with the intervention in terms of open systems perspective.
155.
An aircraft manufacturing company developed a computer simulation representing the very complex processes and subgroups that create an airplane. Teams of production employees would participate in a game where trainers gave them the challenge of reducing costs or minimizing space using the simulation. As the trainers predicted, the team's actions would almost always result in unexpected consequences. Explain how this simulation relates to the open systems perspective of organizational behaviour.
156.
WindTunnel Ltd, a manufacturer of commercial vacuum cleaner systems, has heard about new computer-based technologies that help vacuum cleaner systems to work more efficiently and provide additional features to users. So far, only one British vacuum cleaner company has apparently moved to integrate this technology into its products, but more firms will soon follow. Senior executives at WindTunnel are also aware of a small engineering firm that has applied similar computer technology to military suction-like products. No one at WindTunnel has much experience or knowledge with this computer technology, yet the company needs such expertise quickly. Explain which knowledge acquisition strategy would best help WindTunnel to gain the necessary intellectual capital.
157.
Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: ''Without employees, an organization has no organizational memory.''
158.
A courier service laid off a large percentage of its production staff during last year's recession. These low-skilled employees performed routine tasks filling orders. The company now wants to rehire them. However, most of the unskilled employees have since found employment in other companies and industries. Do you think the courier company lost much organizational memory in this situation? Explain your answer.
159.
Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: ''An important objective in knowledge management is to ensure that intellectual capital is stored and preserved.''
160.
The high-performance work practices (HPWP) perspective holds that effective organizations incorporate several workplace practices to harness the potential of human capital. What common activities do high performance organizations practice?
161.
There is an increased interest by organizations about the importance of values in the workplace. Explain the difference between values, ethics and corporate social responsibilities.
162.
Many organizations are placing increasing importance on values and ethics in the workplace. Discuss two reasons why workplace values have become more important in recent years. Your answer should briefly define values and ethics.
163.
The changing workforce is one of the emerging trends in organizational behaviour. Describe how the workforce is changing and briefly identify two consequences of these changes for organizations.
164.
Virtual work has been identified as an important trend in organizational behaviour. Discuss three organizational behaviour topics that are influenced by virtual work.
165.
Discuss the four anchors of organizational behaviour.
166.
Two organizational behaviour students are debating the idea that many OB theories are contingency-oriented. One student believes that every OB theory should be contingency-oriented. The other student disagrees, saying that most theories should try to be universal. Evaluate both positions and provide your opinion on this issue.
c1Key
1.
In order for something to be called an organization it must have buildings and equipment. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #1 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
2.
More than 1,000 years ago, Chinese factories were producing 125,000 tons of iron each year. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #2 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
3.
All organizations have a collective sense of purpose. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #3 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
4.
Social entities are called organizations only when their members work interdependently toward some purpose. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #4 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
5.
Scholars have been studying organizational behaviour since the days of Greek philosophers. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #5 Topic: 01-03 Historical Foundations of Organizational Behaviour
6.
The study of OB wasn't formally organized until the 1970s. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #6 Topic: 01-03 Historical Foundations of Organizational Behaviour
7.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #7 Topic: 01-03 Historical Foundations of Organizational Behaviour
8.
An important principle in organizational behaviour is that OB theories should never be used to question or rebuild one's mental models. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #8 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
9.
Organizational behaviour knowledge helps us influence people and organizational events. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #9 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
10.
Evidence indicates that applying organizational behaviour knowledge tends to improve the organization's financial performance. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #10 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
11.
Organizational effectiveness, and not profitability, is considered the "ultimate dependent variable" in organizational behaviour. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #11 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
12.
One problem with the term "organizational effectiveness'' is that it has too many substitute labels, and almost as many definitions. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #12 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
13.
Almost all organizational behaviour theories share an implicit or explicit objective of making organizations more effective. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #13 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
14.
The goal attainment definition of effectiveness focuses on whether the organization achieves its stated goals. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #14 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
15.
At present there is only one organizational behaviour perspective which adequately defines organizational effectiveness. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #15 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
16.
The major organizational effectiveness perspectives are considered detailed extensions of the closed systems model. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #16 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
17.
The open systems perspective emphasizes that organizations are effective when they maintain a good "fit" with their external environments. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #17 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
18.
One problem with the open systems perspective is that it neglects to focus on how well the organization operates internally. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #18 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
19.
The most efficient companies are not necessarily the most effective ones. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #19 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
20.
Successful organizations need to only concentrate on achieving efficient transformation processes. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #20 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
21.
Organizational efficiency refers to the amount of outputs relative to inputs in the transformation process. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #21 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
22.
As organizations grow, they tend to develop more subsystems and coordination among them become more complex. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #22 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
23.
Knowledge management develops an organization's capacity to acquire, share, use, and store valuable knowledge. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #23 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
24.
The organizational learning perspective is also known as the knowledge management perspective. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #24 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
25.
Intellectual capital includes, among other things, the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #25 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
26.
Experimentation is considered a valid knowledge acquisition strategy. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #26 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
27.
Intellectual capital represents the stock of knowledge held by an organization. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #27 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
28.
The most obvious form of intellectual capital is one's level of education. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #28 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
29.
Human memory plays a critical role in organizational memory. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #29 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
30.
Structural capital refers to buildings and other depreciable tangible assets. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #30 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
31.
One of the fastest ways to acquire knowledge is to hire individuals or purchase entire companies that have valued knowledge. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #31 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
32.
Knowledge acquisition can only be achieved through formal education. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #32 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
33.
Organizational memory includes knowledge embedded in the organization's systems and structures. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #33 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
34.
Successful organizations should never ''unlearn'' knowledge that they have previously gained, because all knowledge is valuable. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #34 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
35.
Intellectual capital includes relationship capital. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #35 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
36.
Organizational unlearning is particularly important for organizational change. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #36 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
37.
A key variable in the high-performance work practices (HPWP) model is employee competence. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #37 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
38.
The high-performance work practices perspective supports the idea that organizations should strive to find "one best way" to do things. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #38 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
39.
One criticism of the high-performance work practices perspective is that it promotes shareholder and customer satisfaction at the expense of employee well-being. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #39 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
40.
Stakeholders are individuals, organizations, or other entities that affect, or are affected by the organization. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #40 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
41.
Stockholders are stakeholders. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #41 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
42.
Values represent an individual's short-term beliefs about what will happen in the future. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #42 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
43.
Values guide our preferences and motivate our actions. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #43 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
44.
Values are relatively stable, long-lasting beliefs about what is important in a variety of situations. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #44 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
45.
The concept of values is an important aspect of the stakeholder perspective. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #45 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
46.
Ethics refers to the study of moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or bad. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #46 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
47.
One reason why workplace values have become more important is that employees increasingly value command-and-control direct supervision. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #47 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
48.
One survey reported that most Canadian would choose to leave their current job for a more environmentally friendly employer. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #48 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
49.
The "triple-bottom-line" philosophy says that successful organizations focus on financial performance three times more often than do less successful organizations. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #49 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
50.
According to a recent survey, 93 percent of Canadians believe that corporate social responsibility is as important to companies as profit and shareholder value. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #50 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
51.
The integrative model of organizational behaviour ties individual and team processes, and outcomes to organizational effectiveness. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #51 Topic: 01-10 Connecting the Dots: An Integrative Model of Organizational Behaviour
52.
In the integrative model of organizational behaviour, individual outcomes are referred to as the ultimate dependent variable. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #52 Topic: 01-10 Connecting the Dots: An Integrative Model of Organizational Behaviour
53.
Globalization may have both positive and negative implications for people working in organizations. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #53 Topic: 01-12 Globalization
54.
Reduced job security and increased work intensification may be partly caused by globalization. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #54 Topic: 01-12 Globalization
55.
Three of the most prominent workforce diversity forms are: age, ethnicity, and occupation. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #55 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
56.
Surface-level diversity refers to observable demographic and other overt differences in people. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #56 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
57.
People born between 1946 and 1964 are referred to as Baby Boomers. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #57 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
58.
Workforce diversity does not consider the differences in psychological characteristics of employees. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #58 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
59.
According to your text, 47 percent of Canadians identify themselves as members of a visible minority group. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #59 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
60.
Research indicates that baby boomers and Generation X employees bring the same values and expectations to the workplace. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #60 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
61.
Studies suggest that deep-level diversity exists across generations. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #61 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
62.
According to one study, Millennials and Gen-Xers value extrinsic rewards significantly more than Boomers. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #62 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
63.
Workforce diversity potentially improves decision making and team performance on complex tasks. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #63 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
64.
When we describe multiculturalism we are primarily referring to surface-level diversity. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #64 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
65.
Teams with diverse members usually take longer to perform effectively. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #65 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
66.
The emerging employment relationship in Canada is that people must give up their legal rights regarding employment discrimination in return for long-term employment. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #66 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
67.
One employment relationship trend is the focus away from work-life balance and virtual work, because of the extra stress these place on workers. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #67 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
68.
According to recent surveys about one-third of Canadians would take a pay cut to improve their work-life balance. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #68 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
69.
One of the most consistent observations is that telework is ranked as one of the most popular perks. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #69 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
70.
Work-life balance refers to the length of time one remains in the workforce during one's lifetime. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #70 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
71.
Work-live balance refers to minimizing conflict between work and nonwork demands. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #71 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
72.
Teleworking forces employers to evaluate employee performance based on ''face time'' rather than work output. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #72 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
73.
Successful teleworkers tend to be self-motivated and are able to fulfill their social needs outside of the work context. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #73 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
74.
In virtual work, employees rely on information technology to perform jobs away from the traditional workplace. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #74 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
75.
Telecommuting is the most common form of virtual work. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #75 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
76.
Most organizational behaviour theories have been developed by OB scholars rather than from other disciplines. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #76 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
77.
Psychology and sociology have contributed many theories and concepts to the field of organizational behaviour. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #77 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
78.
Communications, marketing, and information systems are three emerging fields from which organizational behaviour is now acquiring knowledge. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #78 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
79.
Sociology is one of the few disciplines that has not made any contribution to organizational behaviour knowledge. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #79 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
80.
The field of organizational behaviour relies on common sense to understand organizational phenomena. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #80 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
81.
The systematic research anchor relies mainly on qualitative data and subjective procedures to test hypothesis. FALSE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #81 Topic: 01-16 The Systematic Research Anchor
82.
The contingency anchor in organizational behaviour suggests that a particular action may have different consequences in different situations. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #82 Topic: 01-18 The Contingency Anchor
83.
Most organizational events may be studied from all three levels of analysis: individual, team, and organization. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #83 Topic: 01-19 The Multiple Levels of Analysis Anchor
84.
The contingency anchor in organizational behaviour suggests that we need to diagnose the situation to identify the most appropriate action under those specific circumstances. TRUE
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #84 Topic: 01-18 The Contingency Anchor
85.
Which of these statements about the field of organizational behaviour is FALSE?
A.
Organizational behaviour scholars study individual, team, and structural characteristics that influence behaviour within organizations.
B.
Leadership, communication, and other organizational behaviour topics were not discussed by scholars until the 1940s.
C.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s.
D.
The field of OB has adopted concepts and theories from other fields of inquiry.
E.
OB scholars study what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #85 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
86.
Which of these statements about the field of organizational behaviour is TRUE?
A.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field during the 1980s.
B.
The origins of some organizational behaviour concepts date back to Plato and other Greek philosophers.
C.
Information technology has almost no effect on organizational behaviour.
D.
The field of organizational behaviour relies exclusively on ideas generated within the field by organizational behaviour scholars.
E.
The origins of organizational behaviour are traced mainly to the field of economics.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #86 Topic: 01-03 Historical Foundations of Organizational Behaviour
87.
In the field of organizational behaviour, organizations are best described as:
A.
legal entities that must abide by government regulations and pay taxes.
B.
physical structures with observable capital equipment.
C.
social entities with a publicly stated set of formal goals.
D.
groups of people who work interdependently towards some purpose.
E.
any social entity with profit-centred motives and objectives.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #87 Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
88.
Organizational behaviour knowledge:
A.
originates mainly from models developed in chemistry and other natural sciences.
B.
accurately predicts how anyone will behave in any situation.
C.
is more appropriate for people who work in computer science than in marketing.
D.
helps us to understand and influence the behaviours of others in organizational settings.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #88 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
89.
According to the author of Canadian Organizational Behaviour, organizational behaviour knowledge:
A.
should never be used to influence the behaviour of other people.
B.
should be used mostly by managers and senior executives.
C.
should never replace your common sense knowledge about how organizations work.
D.
is relevant to everyone who works in organizations.
E.
should never be used to influence the behaviour of other people and should be used mostly by managers and senior executives.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #89 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
90.
Which of these statements about the field of OB is FALSE?
A.
Organizational behaviour scholars study individual, team, and structural characteristics that influence behaviour within organizations.
B.
The field of OB has adopted concepts and theories from other fields of inquiry.
C.
Organizational behaviour emerged as a distinct field around the 1940s.
D.
Given the specific utility of the field, OB is useful for the managers in the organizations and not the employees.
E.
OB scholars study what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry. McShane - Chapter 01 #90 Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
91.
Which of the following perspective is consistent with the concept of organizational effectiveness?
A.
Open systems perspective
B.
Organizational learning perspective
C.
High-performance work practices perspective
D.
Stakeholder perspective
E.
All the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #91 Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
92.
Which of the following is included in the open systems perspective of organizations?
A.
Inputs
B.
Subsystems
C.
Outputs
D.
Feedback from the environment
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #92 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
93.
The open systems perspective of organizational behaviour states that:
A.
organizations take their sustenance from the environment and in turn affect that environment.
B.
organizations can operate efficiently by focussing on what they do best and ignoring changes in the external environment.
C.
people are the only important and valued organizational input.
D.
organizations should be viewed as machines with one working part.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #93 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
94.
ACME Software Ltd has developed a training program to make employees more aware of how their job performance affects customers and other employees within the organization. This training program relates most closely with which of the following concepts?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Grounded theory
C.
Open systems perspective
D.
Marketing principles
E.
Organizational efficiency
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #94 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
95.
Which organizational behaviour perspective discusses inputs, outputs, and feedback?
A.
Mechanistic perspective
B.
Open systems perspective
C.
Goal-attainment perspective
D.
Organizational learning perspective
E.
Stakeholder perspective
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #95 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
96.
Which of the following relates to the perspective that organizations are open systems?
A.
The organization adjusts its services to satisfy changing consumer demand.
B.
The organization finds a substitute resource in anticipation of a future shortage of the resource previously used to manufacture the product.
C.
Production and sales employees coordinate their work activities to provide a more efficient work process.
D.
The organization changes its products to suit customer needs.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #96 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
97.
The amount of outputs relative to inputs in the organization's transformation process is referred to as:
A.
organizational efficiency
B.
organizational effectiveness
C.
organizational deficiency
D.
transformational quotient
E.
organizational footprint
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #97 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
98.
Knowledge management is an extension of:
A.
traditional accounting methods of measuring corporate assets.
B.
the organizational learning perspective of organizational behaviour.
C.
microeconomic principles of supply and demand.
D.
the efficiency model of industrial engineering.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #98 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
99.
Intellectual capital refers to:
A.
how much money an organization spends on training and development.
B.
the stock of knowledge that resides in an organization.
C.
the percentage of information available that is actually used productively by the organization.
D.
the total cost of computers and other ''intelligent'' machines in the organization.
E.
the cost of hiring a typical employee.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #99 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
100.
Intellectual capital consists of:
A.
knowledge that employees possess and generate.
B.
the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures.
C.
the value of the organization's relationship with customers.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
knowledge that employees possess and generate and the knowledge captured in an organization's systems and structures.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #100 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
101.
A computer maintenance company wants to ''capture'' the knowledge that employees carry around in their heads by creating a database where employees document their solutions to unusual maintenance problems. This practice tries to:
A.
transform intellectual capital into knowledge management.
B.
transfer human capital into structural capital.
C.
prevent relationship capital from interfering with human capital.
D.
reduce the amount of human capital.
E.
transfer structural capital into relationship capital.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #101 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
102.
The organizational learning perspective states that an organization's effectiveness depends on:
A.
extracting information and ideas from the external environment and through experimentation.
B.
ensuring that knowledge is shared throughout the organization.
C.
ensuring that employees effectively use the knowledge available to them.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
ensuring that knowledge is shared throughout the organization and that employees effectively use the knowledge available to them.
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103.
Which of the following is a form of knowledge acquisition?
A.
Hiring job applicants.
B.
Research and development.
C.
Information sessions where employees describe to colleagues unique incidents involving customers.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
Hiring job applicants and research and development.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #103 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
104.
Which of the following is an example of knowledge acquisition?
A.
Surveying employees about their attitudes towards recent corporate changes.
B.
Developing a training program for employees to learn the latest software for their jobs.
C.
Encouraging employees to share their knowledge with coworkers.
D.
Hiring people who bring valuable knowledge that is not available from current employees.
E.
All of the answers are examples of knowledge acquisition.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #104 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
105.
Organizational memory refers to:
A.
its ability to hire more people with good memorization skills.
B.
its level of current knowledge so it can bring in new knowledge from the environment.
C.
its storage and preservation of intellectual capital.
D.
its ability to unlearn knowledge.
E.
its ability to conduct memorable work.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #105 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
106.
A technology company wants to move into the field of wireless communications. Unfortunately, few of its employees know enough about the basic technology to acquire emerging knowledge about that field or to launch a separate business unit to enter that market. With respect to learning about wireless technology knowledge, this organization has:
A.
too much structural capital.
B.
low organizational memory.
C.
high human capital but low relationship capital.
D.
too much of an open system.
E.
low human capital.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #106 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
107.
As part of the knowledge management process, experimentation mainly affects:
A.
measuring intellectual capital
B.
knowledge acquisition
C.
organizational memory
D.
knowledge sharing
E.
unlearning
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #107 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
108.
Eastern University performs a daily computer search through newspaper articles to identify any articles about the university or its faculty members. University administrators use this information to receive feedback about how the public reacts to university activities. In knowledge management, searching for newspaper articles and other external writing about the organization is mainly a form of:
A.
knowledge acquisition
B.
communities of practice
C.
organizational unlearning
D.
knowledge sharing
E.
documentation
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #108 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
109.
Twice each year, a major car parts manufacturer brings together production and engineering specialists from its eight divisions to discuss ideas, solutions, and concerns. This helps to minimize the ''silos of knowledge'' problem that exists in many organizations. This practice is primarily an example of:
A.
relationship capital
B.
experimentation
C.
knowledge sharing
D.
documentation
E.
organizational unlearning
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #109 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
110.
Organizational memory is best described as:
A.
the total terabytes of hard disk space available on computers throughout an organization.
B.
the ability of senior executives to recall important information about the company's products, services, and employees.
C.
the storage and preservation of intellectual capital within an organization.
D.
the ability of employees throughout the organization to recall important information about the company's products and services.
E.
the extent to which potential customers are able to recall specific products and services provided by an organization.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #110 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
111.
Organizations can retain intellectual capital by:
A.
transferring human capital into structural capital.
B.
encouraging employees to take early retirement.
C.
discouraging employees from communicating with each other.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #111 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
112.
Which of the following typically results in a loss of organizational memory?
A.
The processes used to make a unique product are incorrectly documented.
B.
The company lays off nearly one-quarter of its workforce.
C.
The company sells one of its divisions (including employees in that division) to another organization.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
The processes used to make a unique product are incorrectly documented and the company lays off nearly one-quarter of its workforce.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #112 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
113.
Organizations should ''unlearn'':
A.
in many situations involving organizational change.
B.
whenever new knowledge is brought into the organization.
C.
whenever the organization shifts from communities of practice to experimentation in the knowledge acquisition process.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #113 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
114.
The relatively new field of research that has emerged with the objective of identifying internal systems and structures that are associated with successful companies is called:
A.
the organizational behaviour systems perspective.
B.
the comparative organizations perspective.
C.
the organizational learning perspective.
D.
the organizational effectiveness perspective.
E.
the high-performance work practices perspective.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #114 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
115.
Which of the following best describes the high-performance work practices perspective?
A.
Organizations that want to be effective should strive for "one best practice" strategy.
B.
A particular action may have different consequences depending on the situation.
C.
All organizations should be viewed as being made up of many different parts which contribute to high performance.
D.
Effective organizations incorporate several workplace practices that leverage the potential of human capital.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #115 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
116.
Two of the most widely mentioned high-performance work practices in organizational behaviour are:
A.
effective recruitment and hiring practices.
B.
ethical business practices and corporate social responsibility.
C.
avoiding counterproductive work behaviours and increasing workforce diversity.
D.
minimizing political behaviours and encouraging cooperation among organizational members.
E.
increasing employee involvement and job autonomy.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #116 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
117.
Which of the following is NOT a concern expressed with respect to high-performance work practices (HPWP) perspective?
A.
HPWPs increase work stress for employees.
B.
Even when HPWPs are successful, management is reluctant to share the financial benefits with workers.
C.
The HPWP perspective lacks theoretical understanding of why such practices improve performance.
D.
HPWPs satisfy shareholder and customer needs at the expense of employee well-being.
E.
The HPWP perspective fails to consider the impact of such practices on the environment and society.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #117 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
118.
Stakeholders include:
A.
shareholders
B.
employees
C.
suppliers
D.
governments
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #118 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
119.
Employees, suppliers, and governments:
A.
are organizational stakeholders.
B.
are rarely considered in organizational behaviour theories.
C.
represent the three levels of analysis in organizational behaviour.
D.
are excluded from the open systems anchor.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #119 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
120.
Stable, long-lasting beliefs about what is important in a variety of situations are:
A.
called intellectual capital.
B.
the foundations of the open systems anchor.
C.
the main reason why organizations fail to adapt.
D.
rarely studied in the field of organizational behaviour.
E.
called values.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #120 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
121.
Values have become more important in organizational behaviour because of:
A.
increased demand for corporate social responsibility.
B.
increased pressure on organizations to engage in ethical practices.
C.
direct supervision is expensive and incompatible to today's workforce.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #121 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
122.
The topic of ethics is most closely associated with:
A.
workplace values.
B.
the scientific method.
C.
workforce diversity.
D.
the open systems anchor.
E.
the contingency approach to organizational behaviour.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #122 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
123.
Corporate social responsibility is most closely related to which of these organizational behaviour trends?
A.
Workforce diversity.
B.
Employment relationships.
C.
Virtual work.
D.
Globalization.
E.
Workplace values and ethics.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #123 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
124.
The triple-bottom-line philosophy says that:
A.
companies should pay three times more attention to profits than to employee wellbeing.
B.
the main goal of all companies is to satisfy the needs of three groups: employees, shareholders, and suppliers.
C.
business success increases by having three times more contingent workers than permanent employees.
D.
companies should pay attention to local, national, and global customers.
E.
companies should try to support the economic, social, and environmental spheres of sustainability.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #124 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
125.
Which of the following concept is most closely associated with corporate social responsibility?
A.
knowledge management
B.
sociological theories
C.
entrepreneurship
D.
open systems perspective
E.
triple-bottom-line philosophy
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #125 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
126.
Which of these statements about corporate social responsibility (CSR) is FALSE?
A.
Most companies now publically report on their CSR practices.
B.
CSR emphasizes the economic, social, and environmental spheres of sustainability.
C.
Most Canadians expect companies to engage in CSR.
D.
CSR is closely related to the topics of values and ethics.
E.
An organization's perceived level of CSR influences whether people apply for work with that organization.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #126 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
127.
Which of the following is NOT considered an individual outcome in the integrative model of organizational behaviour?
A.
Behaviour
B.
Decisions
C.
Social networks
D.
Well-being
E.
Organizational citizenship
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #127 Topic: 01-10 Connecting the Dots: An Integrative Model of Organizational Behaviour
128.
According to the integrative model of organizational behaviour, which of the following is classified as an organizational input?
A.
Motivation
B.
Organizational citizenship
C.
Social networks
D.
Organizational culture
E.
Communication
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #128 Topic: 01-10 Connecting the Dots: An Integrative Model of Organizational Behaviour
129.
Which of these statements about globalization and organizational behaviour is TRUE?
A.
Globalization has little or no effect on organizational behaviour.
B.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour researchers to study only large multinational businesses.
C.
Globalization emphasizes the need to recognize the contingencies of effective organizational behaviour practice in diverse cultures.
D.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour textbooks to study only companies with headquarters in North America.
E.
Globalization has forced organizational behaviour researchers to study only large multinational businesses and forced organizational behaviour textbooks to study only companies with headquarters in North America.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #129 Topic: 01-12 Globalization
130.
Globalization occurs when an organization:
A.
actively participates in other countries and cultures.
B.
serves diverse customers within the firm's home country.
C.
has a diverse workforce within the firm's home country.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
serves diverse customers within the firm's home country and has a diverse workforce within the firm's home country.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #130 Topic: 01-12 Globalization
131.
Workforce diversity:
A.
includes the entry of younger people to the workforce.
B.
can potentially improve decision making and team performance in organizations.
C.
is increasing in Canada.
D.
includes the increasing proportion of visible minorities in the workforce.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #131 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
132.
Which of the following is considered surface-level diversity?
A.
Physical qualities.
B.
Gender.
C.
Ethnicity.
D.
Age
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #132 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
133.
Personalities, beliefs, values, and attitudes are:
A.
secondary categories of workforce diversity.
B.
primary categories of workforce diversity.
C.
categories of deep-level workforce diversity.
D.
not considered categories of diversity.
E.
a result of generational psychometrics.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #133 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
134.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.
Canada is becoming a more homogeneous society.
B.
Deep-level diversity includes characteristics over which we have some control.
C.
Most Canadians believe that the government should disband multiculturalism.
D.
Diversity offers tremendous advantages to organizations with almost no disadvantages.
E.
Nearly one-half of all immigrants to Canada over the past decade were born in the United States.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #134 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
135.
Which of the following statements about Canada's population and workforce is FALSE?
A.
More than half of immigrants to Canada over the past decade were born in Europe.
B.
The participation of visible minorities in the workforce has increased over the past few decades.
C.
Generation X employees bring somewhat different needs and expectations to the workplace than their Baby Boomer counterparts.
D.
Canada is becoming a more multicultural society.
E.
Workforce diversity presents both opportunities and challenges to organizations.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #135 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
136.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A.
Employment relationships are shifting towards the idea that companies must provide employees a high degree of job security, possibly even a job for life.
B.
Generation X employees bring somewhat different values and needs to the workplace than those of baby boomers.
C.
The workforce is becoming more diverse.
D.
Successful firms increasingly rely on values rather than direct supervision to guide employee decisions and behaviour.
E.
More work-life balance is an emerging issue in the employment relationship.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #136 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
137.
Virtual work:
A.
is more common in Canada than in the United States.
B.
occurs when job applicants are asked to pretend they are performing the job in the interview setting in order to determine their ability to perform that work.
C.
tends to improve an employee's social involvement in the organization.
D.
can potentially reduce employee stress.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #137 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
138.
The degree to which a person minimizes conflict between work and nonwork demands refers to:
A.
life choice balance.
B.
stress management.
C.
quality of life issues.
D.
Personal-professional actualization.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #138 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
139.
According to a recent survey how many Canadians would be willing take a pay cut to improve their work-life balance?
A.
One-third would agree.
B.
Nearly half would refuse.
C.
Fewer than 10 percent would accept.
D.
Nearly no one would agree.
E.
None of the answers apply.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #139 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
140.
What effect does teleworking have in the workplace?
A.
Teleworking tends to improve the teleworker's work-life balance.
B.
Teleworking forces corporate leaders to evaluate employees more from their work results rather than their ''face time''.
C.
Under some circumstances, teleworking increases the teleworker's productivity.
D.
Teleworking increases the risk that employees feel socially isolated from each other.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #140 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
141.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of telecommuting according to research?
A.
It reduces stress.
B.
It improves job satisfaction.
C.
It makes employees feel more empowered.
D.
It reduces costs for the employer.
E.
It reduces pollution.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #141 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
142.
Which of the following is NOT a conceptual anchor in organizational behaviour?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Systematic research anchor
C.
Organizational effectiveness anchor
D.
Multidisciplinary anchor
E.
Multiple levels of analysis anchor
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Difficult Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #142 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
143.
Which of the following does NOT represent a belief that anchors organizational behaviour?
A.
OB should view organizations as closed systems.
B.
OB should assume that the effectiveness of an action usually depends on the situation.
C.
OB should draw on knowledge from other disciplines.
D.
OB should rely on the systematic research methods to generate knowledge.
E.
OB topics can be studied from multiple levels of analysis.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #143 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
144.
Which of the following statements about the field of organizational behaviour is FALSE?
A.
OB is the study of what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.
B.
OB emerged as a distinct field of inquiry in the 1940s.
C.
OB is a self-contained discipline, independent of other disciplines.
D.
OB theories are usually tested using the scientific method.
E.
Many OB theories are contingency-oriented.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #144 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
145.
Which of these statements is consistent with the four anchors of organizational behaviour?
A.
Organizational behaviour theories must apply universally to every situation.
B.
Organizations are like machines that operate independently of their external environment.
C.
Each OB topic relates to only one level of analysis.
D.
The field of organizational behaviour should rely on other disciplines for some of its theory development.
E.
None of these statements is consistent with the OB anchors.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #145 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
146.
Which discipline has provided organizational behaviour with much of its theoretical foundation for team dynamics, organizational power, and organizational socialization?
A.
Sociology
B.
Psychology
C.
Economics
D.
Industrial engineering
E.
Political science
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #146 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
147.
Which of the following is identified as an emerging field from which organizational behaviour is acquiring new knowledge?
A.
Industrial engineering
B.
Information systems
C.
Anthropology
D.
Economics
E.
Psychology
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #147 Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
148.
To form research questions, collect data, and test hypotheses against those data organizational behaviour scholars rely on:
A.
systematic research.
B.
closed systems theory.
C.
grounded theory.
D.
All of the answers are correct.
E.
contingency theory.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #148 Topic: 01-16 The Systematic Research Anchor
149.
Which of the following is NOT an anchor of organizational behaviour?
A.
Contingency anchor
B.
Open systems anchor
C.
Multidisciplinary anchor
D.
Systematic research anchor
E.
Multiple levels of analysis anchor
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #149 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
150.
The contingency anchor of organizational behaviour states that:
A.
we should have a second OB theory to explain the situation in case our first choice doesn't work.
B.
OB theories must view organizations as systems that need to adapt to their environments.
C.
there is usually one best way to resolve organizational problems.
D.
a particular action may have different consequences in different situations.
E.
All of the answers are correct.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #150 Topic: 01-18 The Contingency Anchor
151.
According to the multiple levels of analysis anchor:
A.
organizational behaviour is mainly the study of how all levels of the organizational hierarchy interact with the external environment.
B.
OB topics typically relate to the individual, team, and organizational levels of analysis.
C.
there are eight levels of analysis that scholars should recognize when conducting OB research.
D.
organizational events can be studied from only one level of analysis.
E.
our understanding of organizational behaviour increases with the level of mathematical analysis applied to create the models.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #151 Topic: 01-19 The Multiple Levels of Analysis Anchor
152.
Which of the following is an anchor of organizational behaviour knowledge?
A.
diversity anchor.
B.
stakeholder anchor.
C.
open systems anchor.
D.
socioeconomic anchor.
E.
multiple levels of analysis anchor.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #152 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
153.
Marketing specialists at Napanee Beer Co. developed a new advertising campaign for summer sales. The ads were particularly aimed at sports events where Napanee Beer sold kegs of beer on tap. The marketing group worked for months with a top advertising firm on the campaign. Their effort was successful in terms of significantly higher demand for Napanee Beer's keg beer at sports stadiums. However, the production department had not been notified of the marketing campaign and was not prepared for the increased demand. The company was forced to buy empty kegs at a premium price. It also had to brew some of the lower-priced keg beer in vats that would have been used for higher-priced specialty beer. The result was that Napanee Beer sold more of the lower-priced keg beer and less of the higher-priced products that summer. Moreover, the company could not initially fill consumer demand for the keg beer, resulting in customer dissatisfaction. Use open system perspective to explain what has occurred at Napanee Beer Co.
This incident mainly relates to the open systems perspective that organizations consist of many interdependent parts. In larger organizations, subsystem interdependence is so complex that an event in one department may ripple through the organization and affect other subsystems In this case, the marketing group's advertising campaign had unintended implications for the production group. Marketing's campaign increased demand for keg beer, which forced production to brew more of the lower-priced product rather than the higher-priced specialty beer. It was also necessary to keep up with demand by paying premium prices for empty kegs. Students may argue that marketing employees did not notify the production group about its plans. This may be a valid argument in this incident. However, we must keep in mind that employees engage in many activities that have repercussions for others that we would never expect. Moreover, it is possible that production employees could not predict all of the implications of marketing's campaign even if the production group was notified in advance.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #153 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
154.
Senior officers in a national military organization decided that operations in supplies requisition were inefficient and costly. They brought in consultants who recommended that the entire requisition process be ''reengineered''. This involved throwing out the old practices and developing an entirely new set of work activities around workflow. However, contrary to expectations, this intervention resulted in lower productivity, higher employee turnover and other adverse outcomes. Discuss likely problems with the intervention in terms of open systems perspective.
There are two possible ways that open systems perspective explains these problems. The first and more likely of these is the fact that open systems have interdependent parts. In this situation, reengineering the supplies requisition process may have disrupted other parts of the organization, which, in turn, undermined the supplies' group's ability to complete their work. The point here is that open systems consist of interdependent parts and that it is always useful to ensure that changes in one part of the organization have minimal adverse effects on other parts of the organization. The second possible (but less likely) problem is in terms of inputs, transformation, outputs and feedback. The reengineering process may have thrown out a functioning transformation process. Possibly the change resulted in less feedback from the environment regarding how well the organization is interacting with the environment. Perhaps the change resulted in a disruption of inputs or side effects in the outputs.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #154 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
155.
An aircraft manufacturing company developed a computer simulation representing the very complex processes and subgroups that create an airplane. Teams of production employees would participate in a game where trainers gave them the challenge of reducing costs or minimizing space using the simulation. As the trainers predicted, the team's actions would almost always result in unexpected consequences. Explain how this simulation relates to the open systems perspective of organizational behaviour.
The production simulation teaches teams that organizations are complex systems with many interdependent parts. As such, complex systems tend to produce unintended consequences when one part of the system is altered. The lesson here is to recognize the repercussions of subsystem actions on other parts of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #155 Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
156.
WindTunnel Ltd, a manufacturer of commercial vacuum cleaner systems, has heard about new computer-based technologies that help vacuum cleaner systems to work more efficiently and provide additional features to users. So far, only one British vacuum cleaner company has apparently moved to integrate this technology into its products, but more firms will soon follow. Senior executives at WindTunnel are also aware of a small engineering firm that has applied similar computer technology to military suction-like products. No one at WindTunnel has much experience or knowledge with this computer technology, yet the company needs such expertise quickly. Explain which knowledge acquisition strategy would best help WindTunnel to gain the necessary intellectual capital.
Students should begin by defining knowledge acquisition as the organization's ability to extract information and ideas from its environment as well as through insight. The scenario described in this question strongly suggests that WindTunnel needs to apply the knowledge acquisition practice of hiring individuals or acquiring companies. In this situation, WindTunnel should consider either merging with the small engineering firm, creating a joint venture with it or luring some of its engineers to work at WindTunnel. Hiring individuals or acquiring companies is most appropriate in this case for a few reasons. First, no one at WindTunnel has the required knowledge and the knowledge does not seem to be something that can be acquired quickly through individual learning or experimentation. Moreover, WindTunnel needs the knowledge quickly to remain competitive, because one competitor has already begun to integrate the new technology. These activities provide quick knowledge acquisition compared to the other strategies.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #156 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
157.
Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: ''Without employees, an organization has no organizational memory.''
This statement is generally FALSE: An organization's memory may be embedded in systems and structures, not just the brain cells of employees. Certainly, a considerable amount of memory would be lost if employees suddenly disappeared, but some knowledge remains through structural capital. For example, knowledge is embedded in the company's physical layout, its documentation, the design of its products and so forth. Of course, it is necessary to have employees transform their human capital into structural capital. But once it is embedded in structural capital, some knowledge exists without employees.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #157 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
158.
A courier service laid off a large percentage of its production staff during last year's recession. These low-skilled employees performed routine tasks filling orders. The company now wants to rehire them. However, most of the unskilled employees have since found employment in other companies and industries. Do you think the courier company lost much organizational memory in this situation? Explain your answer.
Organizational memory refers to the storage and preservation of intellectual capital—in other words, the knowledge that the organization possesses. The courier company has lost some organizational memory, but probably not a great deal. The amount of organizational memory lost may be fairly small in this situation. These are unskilled employees, some of whom have moved to other industries. This suggests that they might have been fairly replaceable and do not have much unique knowledge for the organization. Similarly, the tasks are fairly routine, suggesting that most knowledge is established within the task routines and thereby documented in procedures manuals. However, some organizational memory loss has occurred because every employee possesses some unique knowledge that is of value to the organization. For instance, the laid off employees may have had undocumented knowledge about the preferences of certain customers or the operation of certain equipment. When employees leave the firm, they take this knowledge with them unless it is clearly documented or retained in other ways within the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #158 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
159.
Comment on the accuracy of the following statement: ''An important objective in knowledge management is to ensure that intellectual capital is stored and preserved.''
This statement is mostly, but not completely, TRUE: In support of this statement, students should indicate that an organization's knowledge—its intellectual capital—is the main source of competitive advantage for most companies. One part of this process is knowledge management (acquiring, sharing, and using knowledge); the other is maintaining an organizational memory. Organizational memory involves storing and preserving knowledge. For example, effective organizations ensure that knowledgeable employees do not leave. They also document knowledge for future use. Without organizational memory organizations could not compete in the external environment. Students should also indicate the circumstances where this statement is false. Specifically, students should state that successful companies also unlearn knowledge that is no longer useful or appropriate. In fact, organizational unlearning—expelling some intellectual capital—is necessary so that organizational change may occur more effectively. This means that companies should cast off the routines and patterns of behaviour that are no longer appropriate.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #159 Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
160.
The high-performance work practices (HPWP) perspective holds that effective organizations incorporate several workplace practices to harness the potential of human capital. What common activities do high performance organizations practice?
Employee involvement and job autonomy. Typically such organizations put a lot of thought into providing more employee involvement and job autonomy. Both of these seem to improve employee motivation to perform, and improve decision-making, organizational responsiveness, and commitment to change. Employee competence. This is an important variable affecting the organization's effectiveness. High performance organizations devote resources (invest) in employee skill and knowledge development. The strong skills and performance potential of job applicants are weighed carefully during the selection process. Link performance and development to rewards. The performance and skill development of employees is linked to various financial and nonfinancial rewards that are actually valued by the employees. This has the effect of encouraging desired behaviour.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #160 Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
161.
There is an increased interest by organizations about the importance of values in the workplace. Explain the difference between values, ethics and corporate social responsibilities.
Values are relatively stable, evaluative beliefs that guide our preferences for outcomes or courses of action in a variety of situations. Values help us to know what is right or wrong, or good or bad, in the world. Values are an important part of our self-concept and, as such, motivate our actions. Ethics refers to the study of moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or bad. We rely on our ethical values to determine "the right thing to do." Ethical behaviour is driven by the moral principles we use to make decisions. These moral principles represent fundamental values. Corporate social responsibility consists of organizational activities intended to benefit society and the environment beyond the firm's immediate financial interests or legal obligations.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness. McShane - Chapter 01 #161 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
162.
Many organizations are placing increasing importance on values and ethics in the workplace. Discuss two reasons why workplace values have become more important in recent years. Your answer should briefly define values and ethics.
Values are defined as relatively stable, evaluative beliefs that guide our preferences for outcomes or courses of action in a variety of situations. Ethics refer to moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or bad. The textbook offers reasons for the increased interest in workplace values and ethics. Students need to describe any two of these. Some students might also identify other reasons through logical argument. These logical arguments should receive consideration when grading this answer. Increasing globalization. As organizations expand across cultures, differences in values become more pronounced. This leads to both personal and organizational challenges. At the individual level, employees may find that their personal values conflict with organizational and cross-cultural values. At the organizational level, leaders are looking for ways to integrate (or, at least, coordinate) people with diverse personal and cultural value systems. Replacing direct supervision. The old ''command-and-control'' system of direct supervision is expensive and incompatible with today's more independently minded workforce. Organizational values represent a subtle, yet potentially effective, alternative. Increasing pressure for ethical organizations and corporate social responsibility. Many societies are putting more pressure on organizations to engage in ethical practices. Ethics refers to the study of moral principles or values that determine whether actions are right or wrong and outcomes are good or bad. We rely on our ethical values to determine ''the right thing to do.''
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #162 Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
163.
The changing workforce is one of the emerging trends in organizational behaviour. Describe how the workforce is changing and briefly identify two consequences of these changes for organizations.
There are numerous workforce changes that students might correctly identify. However, the textbook specifically refers to the following: (a) more ethnic diversity; (b) visible minorities represent a large percentage of the workforce and are entering occupations previously held mostly by men; and (c) younger people (Generation X and Generation Y) are bringing somewhat different values and needs to the workforce. There are several consequences of these workforce changes. Chapter 1 of the textbook briefly identifies the following: (a) potentially better decision making, (b) potentially better customer service, and (c) underrepresentation of women and ethnic minorities in senior positions (i.e. discrimination).
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #163 Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
164.
Virtual work has been identified as an important trend in organizational behaviour. Discuss three organizational behaviour topics that are influenced by virtual work.
(Note: Students may identify the relevance of various OB topics through creative and logical thinking.) Chapter 1 briefly identifies the following topics: Stress management—Virtual work (particularly telework) tends to offer better work-life balance. Performance—Virtual work seems to improve job performance stress in many situations. Self-leadership—Virtual workers need to manage themselves rather than rely on supervisors for continuous guidance. Organizational influence and politics—Virtual workers have to adjust to the lack of networking, and learn to overcome the limitations of limited face time in demonstrating their value.
Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships. McShane - Chapter 01 #164 Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
165.
Discuss the four anchors of organizational behaviour.
1) The systematic research anchor states that OB knowledge should be based on systematic research, which typically involves forming research questions, systematically collecting data, and testing hypotheses against those data. 2) The multidisciplinary anchor states that organizational behaviour should welcome theories and knowledge in other disciplines, not just from its own isolated research base. 3) The contingency anchor states that a particular action may have different consequences in different situations. 4) The multiple levels of analysis anchor states that OB events should be understood from three levels of analysis: individual, team, and organization.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #165 Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
166.
Two organizational behaviour students are debating the idea that many OB theories are contingency-oriented. One student believes that every OB theory should be contingency-oriented. The other student disagrees, saying that most theories should try to be universal. Evaluate both positions and provide your opinion on this issue.
Both students have taken extreme views of the contingency anchor. Both are partly correct and partly incorrect. The first student is saying that every OB theory should abide by the contingency anchor. This means that the theory should incorporate factors that help us to determine the best action in a particular situation. The benefit of the contingency anchor is that it provides a more accurate understanding of organizational events and allows us to influence those events more precisely. The problem, however, is that the contingency anchor can make some theories very complex with relatively little advantage over universal theories. In this respect, the second student is partly correct. We should try to see whether OB theories can be universal rather than contingency-oriented. This is consistent with the view that all theories should be parsimonious. If the theory can explain well without contingency factors, then it is best left as a universal theory. The difficulty is that most OB events are sufficiently complex that contingencies are required for the theories to effectively explain those events. When answering this question, students should state their preference in terms of the degree of universality or contingency orientation. Some might argue that theories are already too complex for practical use, whereas others might say that we need more contingencies to gain more precision in understanding organizational behaviour.
Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based. McShane - Chapter 01 #166 Topic: 01-18 The Contingency Anchor
c1Summary
Category
# of Questions
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
152
Difficulty: Difficult
20
Difficulty: Easy
48
Difficulty: Medium
98
Learning Objective: 01-01 Define organizational behaviour and organizations; and discuss the importance of this field of inquiry.
16
Learning Objective: 01-02 Compare and contrast the four current perspectives of organizational effectiveness.
89
Learning Objective: 01-03 Debate the organizational opportunities and challenges of globalization; workforce diversity; and emerging employment relationships.
39
Learning Objective: 01-04 Discuss the anchors on which organizational behaviour knowledge is based.
22
McShane - Chapter 01
166
Topic: 01-02 The Field of Organizational Behaviour
6
Topic: 01-03 Historical Foundations of Organizational Behaviour
4
Topic: 01-04 Why Study Organizational Behaviour?
6
Topic: 01-05 Perspectives of Organizational Effectiveness
7
Topic: 01-06 Open Systems Perspective
15
Topic: 01-07 Organizational Learning Perspective
34
Topic: 01-08 High-Performance Work Practices (HPWP) Perspective
8
Topic: 01-09 Stakeholder Perspective
22
Topic: 01-10 Connecting the Dots: An Integrative Model of Organizational Behaviour
4
Topic: 01-12 Globalization
4
Topic: 01-13 Increasing Workforce Diversity
24
Topic: 01-14 Emerging Employment Relationships
10
Topic: 01-15 Anchors of Organizational Behaviour Knowledge
6
Topic: 01-16 The Systematic Research Anchor
2
Topic: 01-17 The Multidisciplinary Anchor
8
Topic: 01-18 The Contingency Anchor
4
Topic: 01-19 The Multiple Levels of Analysis Anchor
2
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