#non-sequential chapter 25
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why he tell her???!! bucky is gonna be mad about that. I for sure would be! this time jump! it throws my whole plan off! how is she gonna dip her toe in both ponds if her and steve are so happy!!
Non-Sequential [Ch. 25]
Pairing: Pre-Serum Steve Rogers/Steve Rogers x Reader
One night, Steve Rogers met a beautiful dame named Y/N. He hadn’t intended on letting her get away. But fate had other ideas. Y/N appeared and disappeared in his life so hauntingly that Steve started to wonder if she was an angel meant to watch over him.
Word Count: 2,100
Chapter 24
2 YEARS LATER - Wakanda
“Y/N, if you don’t stop fidgeting, we’re going to have to do another session.” Even though it was a warning, there was playfulness evident in his voice.
“Sorry…I–I’m just nervous,” Y/N admitted.
To prove the point even further, her chest was rising higher than usual, giving away her heavier and erratic breathing.
Steve did a double take and quickly put down his pencil.
He promptly walked over to the bed.
The bed where Y/N was completely naked and trying to hold the relaxed pose Steve had requested from her just 20 minutes ago.
Steve leaned over her, only looking into her eyes. “You know, you really don’t have to do this.”
Keep reading
#nonsequential#non-sequential#non-sequential series#non-sequential chapter 25#pre-serum steve rogers x reader#steve rogers x reader#steve rogers x reader x bucky barnes#pre serum!steve rogers x reader#captain america x reader#steve rogers series#steve rogers reader insert#pre serum steve rogers#pre-serum!steve rogers#bucky barnes x reader x steve rogers#pre serum steve
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In the bustling world of self-improvement and personal development literature, "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" emerges as a beacon of clarity and practical wisdom, charting a course for anyone seeking to navigate the chop uphill towards personal and professional excellence. Authored by the renowned leadership authority Stephen R. Covey, this seminal work has sold over 25 million copies since its first publication in 1989, transcending cultural and generational divides to establish itself as a must-read in the lexicon of success literature. Covey’s book delves into the foundational principles that govern the behavior of successful individuals, offering a roadmap that promises not only enhanced productivity but also a deeper sense of fulfillment and balance. Proffering a principle-centered approach, "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" doesn’t just offer quick fixes or superficial checklists for success; instead, it tackles the core paradigms that underpin our everyday actions and decisions. This transformative guide addresses the problems of personal efficacy and interpersonal dynamics, confronting the inert patterns of thinking that stymie potential and growth. Covey’s prescriptions for effectiveness resonate with compelling urgency, laying out a step-by-step pathway for readers to transition from dependency to independence and, ultimately, to interdependence—the symbiotic pinnacle of human interaction and achievement. Its continued relevance in an ever-changing world is a testament to its profound insights into the human condition and the timeless nature of its seven habits. Plot The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People is not a conventional narrative with a plot but a non-fiction self-help book that focuses on personal development and leadership. The content is structured around seven key principles that Stephen R. Covey argues are fundamental to achieving personal and professional effectiveness. Covey presents these habits sequentially, suggesting that they build upon each other and form a holistic framework for success. The “plot” of the book, if one can call it that, follows a progression from inward self-mastery (Habits 1-3) to outward success in working with others (Habits 4-6), and then continual improvement and renewal (Habit 7). Each chapter dedicated to a habit serves as a mini-plot, explaining the concept, its application, and providing anecdotes and case studies that demonstrate the habit in action. Characters As a self-help book, The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People does not include characters in the traditional literary sense. However, Covey introduces a cast of individuals through anecdotes and real-life examples who exemplify the habits he outlines. These characters range from corporate leaders and historical figures to members of Covey's own family. Through these stories, readers learn about the principles in action. For instance, Covey shares stories about his daughter’s struggles with her self-concept and how Habit 5 (“Seek First to Understand, Then to Be Understood”) helped them to communicate more effectively. Each character in these narratives serves as an illustrative example, teaching readers about the potential impact of adopting the seven habits in one’s own life. Writing Style The writing style of The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People is didactic, accessible, and inspirational. Covey employs a mix of expository and narrative techniques to explain concepts and engage the reader. His explanations are clear and often accompanied by diagrams or models, such as the Time Management Matrix or the Maturity Continuum, which help clarify and reinforce the material. Covey’s use of storytelling as a pedagogical tool is evident throughout the book; he incorporates a plethora of personal stories and case studies that are relatable and serve to humanize the principles he is teaching. The tone is motivational, designed not only to educate but also to encourage the reader to take action and apply what they have learned in their everyday life.
Setting The setting in The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People is more conceptual than physical, as it deals with the landscapes of personal and professional environments where effectiveness and leadership play significant roles. Covey's anecdotes and case studies take readers to a variety of settings, from boardrooms and offices to family homes, each illustrating the universal applicability of the seven habits. Covey emphasizes that the principles are relevant across cultural and contextual boundaries, whether one is navigating interpersonal relationships at home or leadership challenges in global organizations. The setting, therefore transcends specific locations, and instead encompasses the broader context within which individuals strive to be effective and achieve goals. Unique Aspects One of the unique aspects of The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People is its emphasis on character ethic as opposed to personality ethic. Covey argues that sustainable success comes from internal principles and values, rather than from external techniques and tactics. This philosophical approach sets it apart from many other self-help books that focus on quick fixes. Another distinctive element is the maturity continuum, which maps out the progression from dependence to independence to interdependence, highlighting a path of personal development that readers can aspire to. Covey’s concept of the "P/PC Balance" – the balance between production (P) and production capability (PC) – is especially compelling, reinforcing the idea that long-term success hinges on maintaining the health and integrity of one's resources, whether they be physical, financial, human, or social. Similar to The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People Below is a basic example of two HTML tables, one showcasing the potential pros and the other the cons of "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People." Each table has a solid 1px black border as requested. ```html The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People Analysis table width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; th, td border: 1px solid black; padding: 10px; text-align: left; th background-color: #f8f8f8; .pros-table margin-bottom: 20px; Pros of The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People Pro Explanation User Experience Impact Comprehensive Framework Provides a well-structured framework for personal and professional development. Users have a clear path to follow, increasing ease of adoption and implementation. Universal Principles The habits are based on timeless principles that are universally applicable. The wide applicability across cultures enhances user experience by providing relevance to a broad audience. Improves Personal and Interpersonal Skills Focuses on both personal independence and social interdependence, enhancing users' overall social skills. Users can experience growth in both their personal lives and their relationships, making the content widely beneficial. Cons of The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People Con Explanation User Experience Impact Can Be Overwhelming The amount of information and required changes to one's lifestyle can be daunting for some. New users may feel overwhelmed, which could lead to disengagement with the material. Requires Deep Commitment The effectiveness of the habits necessitates a significant commitment to change and consistency. Users looking for quick fixes may be dissuaded by the time and effort required for true transformation. May Seem Idealistic Some habits require an optimistic worldview, which may seem too idealistic for those with a more cynical outlook. Users who are skeptical or resistant to positive thinking paradigms may not fully engage with all the habits. ``` These tables layout the pros and cons of "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People," focusing strictly on the specific points without any additional fluff. The user experience impacts are directly linked to the feature being discussed, providing a more in-depth look at how each aspect of the book might affect users.
Evaluating Content Authenticity When looking to buy 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' or similar motivational literature, it's crucial to assess the authenticity of the content. Verify the credibility of the author, Stephen R. Covey, by conducting a quick background check on his professional history. Be alert for counterfeit editions or unauthorized print runs which may not accurately reflect the original insights. Ensure that you are purchasing an edition published by a reputable publishing house like Simon & Schuster, Covey's original publisher. Understanding Different Editions Over time, several editions of 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' have been released, including updated versions, workbooks, personal journals, and companion books. Consider which edition suits your needs; for instance, if you are looking for interactive learning, the workbook might be beneficial. Pay attention also to whether you are purchasing a hardcover, paperback, or electronic version. The format you choose should align with your reading preferences and whether you want a collectible or a practical, portable edition. Comparing Prices and Retailers Price comparison is an essential step in the purchasing process. 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' is sold by many retailers, both online and offline. Check various platforms like Amazon, Barnes & Noble, or local bookstores to ensure you get a competitive price. Be wary of prices that seem too good to be true, as they may be indicative of pirated copies. Remember to account for shipping costs if you're purchasing from an online retailer. Considering Bundles and Deals Keep an eye out for special offers such as bundles that include 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' with other Covey books or related self-help guides. Some retailers may offer discounts on the purchase of multiple books, or provide a boxed set that can be more economical. Additionally, promotional deals around holidays or special events like Black Friday can significantly lower the cost of the book. Reflecting on Personal Development Goals Your own self-improvement goals should play a pivotal role in your purchasing decision. 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' is known for its comprehensive approach to personal and professional development. If your objective is to gain leadership skills or improve time management, ensure that the book caters to those specific areas. Considering the content in light of what you aim to achieve will allow you to determine if it aligns with your aspirations. Reading Reviews and Testimonials Before making a purchase, take the time to read reviews and testimonials from other readers. Paying attention to their experiences with the book can provide valuable insight into its impact and usability. Look for comments about how the book has been applied in real-life situations and whether it has led to tangible improvements. However, be judicious and look for genuine, verified reviews rather than promotional or sponsored content. Checking Ancillary Learning Resources Some editions of 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People' offer ancillary learning resources such as online tools, apps, or access to exclusive content. Determine whether these additional resources are included in the initial cost or require a separate subscription. The inclusion of supplementary materials can enhance the learning experience and may justify a higher price point for the book. Assessing the Book's Condition If you're purchasing a used copy of 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People,' assess the condition of the book. Examine the book for any damage, such as bent pages, markings, or a broken spine. Verify that all pages are intact, especially if you're buying an annotated or workbook edition which requires all exercises to be untouched for personal use. Buying a well-maintained used book can be a cost-effective option while still ensuring a satisfactory reading experience. In conclusion, by focusing on
content authenticity, edition types, price points, special deals, personal goals, peer reviews, ancillary resources, and book condition, you can make an informed decision when purchasing 'The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People.' This guide aims to provide clarity in your selection process, leading to an enriched reading and learning experience. FAQ - The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People Who is the author of "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People"? The author of "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" is Stephen R. Covey. What are the seven habits discussed in the book? The seven habits discussed in the book are: 1) Be Proactive, 2) Begin with the End in Mind, 3) Put First Things First, 4) Think Win-Win, 5) Seek First to Understand, Then to Be Understood, 6) Synergize, and 7) Sharpen the Saw. Is this book suitable for both personal and professional development? Yes, "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" is designed to be applicable in both personal and professional contexts and aims to improve overall effectiveness in various aspects of life. How long will it take to implement these habits? Implementing the seven habits is a continuous process that can take different amounts of time for each individual. It is about making a lifelong commitment to personal growth and effectiveness, not a quick fix. Can these habits help me manage my time better? Definitely. Particularly, the third habit, "Put First Things First," directly addresses time management by helping you prioritize and focus on what is most important. Is "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" relevant for today's fast-paced lifestyle? Absolutely. The principles outlined in the book are timeless and can be applied to the challenges of modern life, helping individuals navigate their personal and professional lives more effectively. Can this book help me with my relationships? Yes, habits such as "Think Win-Win" and "Seek First to Understand, Then to Be Understood" provide valuable insights into building and maintaining healthy relationships. Do I need to read the habits in order? It is recommended to read the habits in order as they build upon each other, progressing from self-mastery to interpersonal effectiveness, but readers may still find value in examining the habits individually. Where can I buy "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People"? The book is widely available in bookstores, online retailers, and in various formats, including e-books and audiobooks. Are there any resources available to help me implement the 7 habits? There are many resources available, including planners, workbooks, seminars, and online communities, designed to help individuals implement the 7 habits into their daily lives. Has "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" been updated since its original publication? The original principles remain intact, but there have been editions released that may include additional insights and applications for the contemporary reader. In conclusion, "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" by Stephen R. Covey stands as a timeless treasury of wisdom for anyone looking to improve their personal and professional life. Covey’s book is not just a mere read; it's an essential guide that transforms its readers, serving as a catalyst for lasting change and growth. By reiterating the seven habits — from being proactive to sharpening the saw — Covey provides a framework that encourages self-mastery, effective collaboration, and continuous improvement. The insights and benefits garnered from this book have withstood the test of time, proving valuable to countless people across various industries and cultures. The core principles of habit formation it teaches are universally applicable, making it a book of profound utility. Emphasizing character ethics and intrinsic values, Covey encourages readers to align their actions with their highest principles, leading to more meaningful and impactful living. The 7 Habits
of Highly Effective People offers more than just strategies; it inspires an integrative approach to success that blends the personal with the professional. By implementating these habits, readers are equipped to handle life's challenges with resilience and to create opportunities for success and fulfillment in every endeavor. For anyone seeking to elevate their effectiveness and productivity while nurturing a balanced, principle-centered lifestyle, Stephen R. Covey’s book is undeniably a valuable choice. It is not just a book to read—it’s an experience to live by. The habits outlined are not quick fixes but are disciplines that, when integrated into daily life, can lead to profound and lasting personal transformation. Therefore, to embark on a journey towards achieving excellence in all areas of life, "The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People" is an indispensable resource to turn to again and again. Other The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People buying options
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WIP Wednesday - April 2021
It’s the morning of the third Wednesday of the month and you know what that means -
Work in Progress Wednesday!
Two series have been completed between last month and this month - Saints and Sinners finished posting and Crimson & Clover started and finished as part of my twin’s challenge.
Three new series have started posting: Love at First Break, Sounds of Someday, and Pick Your Punishment.
Eyes of Grace has been put on hiatus for the time being. I apologize to my male readers but there will be some gender neutral and mlm chapters in PYP.
Now for the fun part - new works in progress!
Let me just pull up my spreadsheet here. Alright, here goes. Please bear with me if these are repeats from the last month as they haven’t progressed any further for most of them.
One More Drinking Song - This is a 25 part angst series based on different country songs that make me need to drink. It’s a Dean x Reader, on again - off again, heartbreaking af series that I know several people are excited about. I’m nearly halfway through the first chapter at this time. No estimated posting date yet.
Frat AU - This is a Dean x Male!Reader story that was inspired by something @superfanficnatural said. Undecided if it will be a one-shot or a series but tags will go out. It’s been bumped up my list significantly and will hopefully be out by June 1.
Single Dad!Cas HS AU - Cas is Jack’s guardian/dad. Reader is Jack’s HS English teacher. Jack gets caught smoking and Cas is called in. Aiming for a fall release here.
Beard Porn/Soulmate AU - This came to me last night and details have been hashed out with @padalelli and @that-one-gay-girl who are THRILLED with the entire premise of this. Aiming for this to be out by the end of the month!
Max Banes x Sam Winchester - Looking at a release in mid May for this futuristic space AU one-shot.
Seven Sins - This will be a Sam Winchester x Reader non-sequential series based off of the Seven Deadly Sins for samcreationsbingo. That’ll be a Summer release but each sin is planned out.
Next To You - Alex Calvert x short haired!Reader RPF fluff/smut series. The first bit is written and ready but I want to get some more work done before I post!
Works I definitely have mentioned but haven’t finished yet:
Super SamCro Natural - I have made some headway and am almost done with the first chapter of this biker AU. I’m hoping to have a fall/winter ‘21 release on it.
Couch Confessions, Red Herring, Take Me or Leave Me - No progress
Vampire Jensen - this is getting to the good part and the reveal. It’s a slow process but I’m getting there.
Chibs x Reader - I have two Chibs pieces in the works at the moment but neither are close to ready to post yet.
Bucky Barnes Bingo - I have a couple of squares planned out but no progress on these yet but I do hope to start posting some in late May/Early June
Timestamps - I posted one for Crimson & Clover already and have another planned; timestamp ideas for New Boundaries and Saints and Sinners are bouncing around in my head and will hopefully come to fruition during the summer.
Request status: requests through this blog are currently closed to the public. I have a few requests from some very close friends that are in the works but am not accepting more right now.
Other things I have going on:
- @that-one-gay-girl is coming to visit this weekend for the FOURTH time!
- All of my bingo masterlists have been drafted and posted.
- I’m 4 classes from finishing my BS Accounting degree.
- I’ve officially started transferring my two in-progress original novels to google docks. Thanks to NaNoWriMo for spurring me forward with it.
- I’m closing in on 400 followers pretty quickly and will be doing some kind of appreciation event for it.
- I’m running 6 different bingos with @queen-of-deans-booty, @zombitch-cas, @padalelli, and @danneelsmain. All of them are any fandom, have no due dates, and are open for sign ups. @anyfandomkinksbingo, @anyfandomgoesbingo, @anyfandomfluffbingo, @anyfandomangstbingo, @spnvillainsbingo, and @badbitchesbingo.
- I’ve taken up betaing for several different works.
- Don’t forget to follow my reading blog @colereads to see what I’m reading.
Thanks to @ao3commentoftheday for the header and @firefly-graphics for the divider.
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What criteria are y'all using for what fics *don't* get posted here? Because judging by your FAQ, what y'all *do* post is "all fics tagged Adrien Agreste | Chat Noir/Marinette Dupain-Cheng | Ladybug whose creators haven't opted out", but none of the chapters of my novel-length *where the firelight fades* have shown up. Which is distressing me because that's the one I *most* want people paying attention to, since I worked hardest on it!
The filters only remove NSFW stories that are rated Explicit (which are Wordpress Only), stories with a Rape/Non-Con warning, stories with side pairings and an Underage warning, and stories with the Adult/Child ships that I accounted for.
I don’t see any reason your story shouldn’t have posted, so I’m going to guess IFTTT’s request to AO3′s RSS feed timed out due to traffic, your story was knocked off the RSS feed before IFTTT had a chance to nab it, or your story was grabbed at night and tumblr is having queue deletion issues again.
Details:
A) The auto posting program we use is If This Than That (IFTTT). When connected to an RSS feed, it only checks the feed for updates approximately every two hours. AO3′s RSS feeds only show the 25 latest entries, so if more then 25 stories are posted in a tag in those two hours, some stories can drop off the feed before IFTTT checks it again.
B) Sometimes when traffic is high, AO3′s RSS feeds take an unusually long time to load. It’s gotten a million times better then last year when sequential timeouts kept happening (I assume due to server upgrades), but it still happens on occasion. Sadly, IFTTT doesn’t wait long before saying the feed timed out, so when that happens it means your story that previously only had to stay among the newest 25 stories for two hours, needs to stick around for four (or possibly even six or eight if the issue persists) meaning it’s all the more likely it will be cycled off the list before IFTTT gets to it.
C) At night, rather then posting immediately, stories are placed onto the queue so that they will be posted during the day when there is more traffic. Every great once in a while, tumblr has an error where queued posts straight up do not post. (Their queued time comes, but instead of being posted... they just vanish.) I’ve talked to tumblr staff about this in the past, they said they were investigating and the problem seemed to stop, but considering they’ve had to fix this feed suddenly not showing up on tumblr wide tag searches five times now, it’s possible that whole thing has started up again as well.
The best advice I can offer is submit a link to your story on AO3 when you notice it’s still missing after 24 hours, and I’ll queue it up manually next time I sign on!
Speaking of which, I’ve queue up “where the firelight fades” for you.
~LadySunami
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[Event & Scenario] “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” START
Chapter 2 of Season 1.5! Fairy April is focusing on producing new songs after joining Avalon. Suddenly, there's some news about Crystal Cross and Judas Kiss...? Join Fairy April and save Crystal Cross from this crisis!
Details
▼ Release Date: 2018/01/15 (Mon) 17:00JST ~ onwards
Part 1.5 of the “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” will start! Chapter 2 will focus on Fairy April.
▼ Access Condition
Must clear the final chapter in “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World.”
How To Participate
You can access Part 1.5 from the banner on the home screen as long as the condition of clearing the final chapter in “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World” has been satisfied.
※ Although there is no deadline, you may only receive the Clear Reward once.
How To Play
Get “Crystals” by playing songs from different Areas listed in the Event Page. Choose the Area you want to play in and either clear the story and/or win the Duel Gig of each stage to proceed to the next stage.
You can exchange the “Crystals” for the limited edition reward card via the Shop’s “Item Exchange” section. [more info.]
You can access the event scenarios via the new section, “Episode Of Avalon” from the Stories Tab.
Event Stage Schedule
The Area Stages for “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals” will be released sequentially from 2017/12/30(Sat) 00:00 JST. The new stages will be released at a schedule:
01/15(Mon) 17:00~・Shattered Crystal 01/17(Wed) 00:00~・Reason 01/19(Fri) 00:00~・Brothers 01/21(Sun) 00:00~・Regret 01/23(Tue) 00:00~・Lost Dream 01/25(Thu) 00:00~・Before the Storm 01/27(Sat) 00:00~・Truth 01/29(Mon) 00:00~・Epilogue
Past Event Scenario Limited Time Rerun
Scenarios of the events leading up to the scenario for Part 1.5 will have a re-run for a limited time only. Unopened scenarios will be available for reading during the following period:
▼ Duration: 2018/01/15 (Mon) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/30 (Mon) 12:59 JST
※ You can access the event scenarios from the “Story” tab → “Event Scenario” but will not be able to receive any reward upon clearing.
The target Event Scenario are as follows:
Advent of the Quattro Virtuoso GIGS ー Dante of the Purgatory
Anniversary GIGS ー Dreamin’ (untranslated)
On Board The Merry Christmas GIGS ー Dante is Coming To Town!
Event Reward Card
SR: Misato Toudou [The State of Loneliness]
Event Strategy
Using Fairy April members’ cards in Bands to use for LIVEs will improve overall performance.
“Shattered Twin Crystals” Limited Rare Gacha (Daily Rotation)
Duration: 2018/01/15(Mon) 17:00JST ~ 2018/01/31(Wed) 12:59JST
Line-up: EXR Yuu, EXR Show, SR Makoto Kurusu, SR Yukiho
※ SR Kurusu Makoto and SR Yukiho will be available throughout the duration of the gacha.
→ See here to read more on EXR Rarity
The gacha can use both Free and Paid Medals
It is possible to pull regular cards other than the Event limited gacha cards.
At least 1 SR or above card is guaranteed for every 10-pull
Signed cards will be discharged at a certain probability. Signs will only appear for SR cards and above and will be treated the same as non-signed, having the same stat and effects. You can admire the sign in various places.
Event limited cards might reappear during future events/campaigns.
“Shattered Twin Crystals”Rare Gacha Schedule
YUU ・1/15, 1/17, 1/19, 1/21, 1/23, 1/25, 1/27, 1/29, 1/31 SHOW ・1/16, 1/18, 1/20, 1/22, 1/24, 1/26, 1/28, 1/30
※ Please take note that the pick-up date will change at a daily basis
Featured New Cards
SSR Yuu [Create A World] Leader Skill: [Cross Drive α] Boosting all Member’s BEAT by 45% and LIFE by 15%. Additional 10% COMBO BONUS if a Show card is in the band. Main Skill: [A Ship About To Set Sail] 50% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, increasing score by 5% for each BEAT card included in the band for 6 seconds.
“Forever You” Vocals: Tsubasa Yonaga (Yuu) Lyrics, Composition, Arrangement: Eiji Kawai
SSR Show [One Step Forward] Leader Skill: [Cross Drive Ω] Boosting COMBO BONUS by 45% and All member’s LIFE by 15%. Boosting all member’s BEAT by 20% if a Yuu card is in the band. Main Skill: [Wavering Heart] 50% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, increasing score by 5% for each BEAT card included in the band for 6 seconds.
“Forever You” Vocals: Ayumu Murase (Show) Lyrics: Masamichi Nagai Composition, Arrangement: Kazuya Nishioka
SR Makoto Kurusu [Winter Gust] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP] All Member’s BEAT boosted by 30% Main Skill: [A Certain Winter’s Incident] 20% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting combo bonus by 16% for 4 seconds.
SR Yukiho [Snowflakes] Leader Skill: [ALL UP] All Member’s GROOVE/BEAT/MELODY boosted by 25% Main Skill: [救愛救愛Classics*] 20% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting combo bonus by 16% for 4 seconds.
※ Cards from this gacha are will have a max level of 90 for SSR and 75 for SR once Break.
You can check the in-game gacha/event page for more info.
*Yukiho’s card skill shall be amended as soon as I figure out what it means (rofl) If you have ideas, throw them at me.
#event : news#event : guide#band yarouze#band yarouze!#banyaro#Episode of Avalon 1.5 Shattered Twin Crystals#admin : pk5u
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Get to know the author: 6, 19, 24 & 25.
In non-sequential order because I’m contrary like that *g*....and because they were a great selection of questions.... so not only is there a ‘keep reading’ line but some of the answers have footnotes.....
Thank you for the great questions - I’ve had an agonising interesting evening trying to come up with the answers!
19: When it comes to more complicated narratives, how do you keep track of outlines, characters, development, timeline etc.?
Honestly? I don’t… I just think and write. And think some more. I know I probably should have lists and outlines and the like. I’ve tried few apps and programmes but never manage to actually get going with one.
I’m not very good at writing stuff down generally - by the time I got to university I couldn’t really write for very long, so my notes during lectures were virtually non-existent compared to my fellow students (back in the days of longhand note-taking in lectures). Two sides of A4 (UK speak for a decent sized piece of notepaper) was about my limit for a 1 hour lecture when others would be 4+ sides. I ended up dictating all my exam scripts*. Suffice to say, I hadn’t exactly written out many revision notes or mock essay answers either…
I am fascinated by people who do plan/outline/draft things, fascinated in the same way I am by people who can produce fabulous craft projects or complex cooking concoctions or dance etc. To me, it’s a completely separate and distinct activity to story telling and writing….and one for which I have the writing equivalent of two left feet!
*You think turning over the exam paper, reading questions and thinking I have no idea what to put on this blank piece of paper is bad, try sitting in a little room on your own with your exam paper, your amanuensis (willing volunteer to write to your dictation) and an invigilator...in silence because you have no idea what to answer with, the amanuensis sitting there pen poised, waiting for you to speak…
24: Have you ever become an expert on something you previously knew nothing about, in order to better a scene or a story?
I’m not sure I’d call myself an ‘expert’ on anything, including all the topics I’ve supposedly studied academically or use on a day to day basis professionally…. But I certainly would never have done any of the following in the last couple of years had I not been writing in my current two fandoms of choice (Dr Who (for the Kate/Osgood) and Holby City (for the Bernie/Alex) - I’ll let you play guess the story that required each area of reading *g*:
Studied the Queen’s Regulations (the UK Military equivalent of the US Uniform Code of Military Justice and so forth)
Read about the protocols for traumatic limb amputation by first responders outside the hospital ED environment
Studied Swiss Railway timetables and customs regulations for the importation of dairy products
Read up on the step-by-step approach needed to extubate a patient, including the UK/US differences in preferred angle to have the patient at for the procedure
Read about the Curiosity Rover SAM and how/why it ‘sings’
Got to grips with what the VLT is, what the GMT will be, why the E-ELT is going to be cool but not as cool as the OWL would have been had it been affordable enough to construct…
Various bits of quantum and particle physics, inorganic and organic chemistry, what exobiology is (vs what I thought it should be given how cool it sounds…)
25: copy/paste a few sentences or a short paragraph that you’re particularly proud of
Captain Janet Fraiser was a medical doctor and commissioned Air Force Officer. An exceptional student, both of medicine and the military, she had advanced far up the ranks of both bodies quickly, achieving far more than her career lengths would at first suggest. Her current posting, to the Centre for Disease Control in New York, was testament to her expertise in this area. Highly infectious, often unknown diseases were this lady's speciality, making her a highly valued physician, not only to her fellow medical staff, but also to the military. In short, the perfectly formed, diminutive frame that housed the vibrant personality and phenomenal intellect that was a world class doctor and scientist, as well as being a model officer, was an academic and military force to be reckoned with.
Is it my ‘best’ writing? No.
Is it my most ‘popular’ writing? Not by a long shot - in fact, I’m probably the only person who remembered it exists, and even then I couldn’t remember it word for word. It’s not even finished, I can’t really remember where the story was supposed to go, nor can I read much of what comes after that first paragraph without cringing at some point. And I certainly can’t remember the specific moment that I posted it, although the Yahoo Group I posted it in tells me it was almost 14 years ago.
It is, however, the bravest I have ever been in the context of fanfiction writing, and therefore the paragraph I’m particularly proud of.
That ordinary introductory paragraph to a long forgotten SG1 WIP is, after a quick bit of (rather terrifying) arithmetic, words 3-130 of what is now about 1,150,000 ish words** of posted (so I can’t fiddle with it any more) fanfiction.
Had it not been for that paragraph (and the ones that followed it) and the kindness of the writers and readers in that Yahoo Group who didn’t laugh or flame but quietly encouraged, I wouldn’t have believed I could write something worth reading, wouldn’t have carried on writing, discovering a multitude of characters over the intervening years who had stories I wanted to read if only I’d just write them down first.
** Seriously, and I scared myself. Thanks to AO3 I think I can roughly pinpoint my 1,000,000th word as being somewhere in the first few chapters of ‘Boiler or Helicopter? It’s a Matter of Perspective’. In the process, I’ve also realised I’ve still got some of my ‘favourite’ fics to round up from their various scattered homes across the internet and dump into AO3 so they’re easier to find and reread. Ho hum.
6: Something you would go back and change in your writing that it’s too late/complicated to change now?
Early 1995.
They’re the first 2 words of the fic that is my answer to the previous question. Because right from the beginning of my fic writing, I’ve latched onto the big idea with the long establishing backstory that I have to write in order to give my characters a proper foundation to stand on for the actual story. It’s far too late (see previous answer re words written) to correct this habit, but boy is it making life complicated… I can’t begin to imagine all the different ideas and half thoughts I could have had room for in my ‘fic plotting brain’ if I’d not lumbered myself with writing epics…...
[For context, the wonderful website ‘Passion and Perfection’ which was my first femslash website haven as both a reader and a writer used to run a writing challenge called ‘Epic Proportions’ for stories >20,000. ⅓ of the stories I’ve written since rediscovering my writing for the most recent time two years ago would have qualified for that challenge. Who knows what stories I might have discovered if I’d been a drabble expert....]
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Square Enix considering Last Fantasy VII spin-off compilation Tetsuya Nomura says
Just recently Final Fantasy fans got teased with the possibility of a Last Fantasy VII compilation consisting of every relative title ever made. The idea was proposed by interviewers in Japan after a motivation from the statement of Kingdom Hearts: The Story Up Until Now solely launched on PlayStation 4 last week. Amongst the names consist of rarities that even the most die-hard FFVII fans might have never become aware of. Have a look at the list of potentials on your own.
For those who don't understand, Prior to Crisis: Last Dream VII is a Japan-exclusive mobile video game which was released in 2004 for the NTT DoCoMo FOMA 900i cell phone through a monthly membership service although the game is a single player Action RPG. This was necessary due to the fact that of the video game's episode system which saw 25 different installations functioning as sequential chapters telling the story of the Turks-- a special agent team working for Shinra.
In addition to Episode Mode, Free Mode supplies extra experience points and special item accumulation for side objectives in addition to Rescue Mode which contains a jail for players to be broken out of by other online gamers when it comes to defeat. There's likewise a Weapon Mode which sees gamers up versus Weapon. The video game's episode changing service was taken offline in March 2018 marking completion of an incredible 14 year journey.
It was considered for a 3DS remake in 2010 by Hajime Tabata however such a project has yet to come to light. In the meantime, Prior to Crisis is 'the one that escaped' for full brochure fans of the series.
Last Fantasy VII: Introduction Kid, the Last Fantasy VII CG animated movie could likewise be consisted of. Popular title, there's also space for Square Enix to bring Last Order -Final Fantasy VII- (a 25 minute Original Video Animation which was folded into the Collector's Edition of Introduction Children), On the Way to a Smile (novella collection), On the Way to a Smile: Episode Denzel (Original Video Animation), Hoshi wo Meguru Otome (novella), and the novel Last Dream VII Lateral Bio Turks -The Children Are Alright-.
A few of the most fascinating video games are FFVII spin-offs:
It stays unknown which video games, motion pictures, or literature would be included in such a collection. Maybe, if such a release occurs, it might even come bundled with Last Dream VII itself and supply some of the non-playable material like novellas, principle art, and CG/ OVA animated content as unlockable benefits for playing FFVII and its spin-offs. The concept behind this is to produce a way for gamers to get the lore and full experience of what FFVII is prior to its Remake's eventual arrival. Tetsuya Nomura was also clear on specifying that Kingdom Hearts III is presently his # 1 top priority as its January 2019 release approaches.
[Some Info Sourced: FFWiki, Famitsu by means of Siliconera & Game's Talk] Spread the & word:
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“Super Mario: How Nintendo Conquered America” by Jeff Ryan
Synopsis: In 1981, Nintendo of America was a one-year-old business already on the brink of failure. Its president, Mino Arakawa, was stuck with two thousand unsold arcade cabinets for a dud of a game (Radar Scope). So he hatched a plan. Back in Japan, a boyish, shaggy-haired staff artist named Shigeru Miyamoto designed a new game for the unsold cabinets featuring an angry gorilla and a small jumping man. Donkey Kong brought in $180 million in its first year alone and launched the career of a short, chubby plumber named Mario. Super Mario tells the story behind the Nintendo games millions of us grew up with, explaining how a Japanese trading card company rose to dominate the fiercely competitive video-game industry.
Published: 2011; republished in 2012 (Penguin Group) Genre: Non-fiction, biographical, pop-culture Rating: 4 out of 5 Reader Review: The day has finally come. I’m finally doing a review for this book. I have to write this to believe it for myself because this book took me about two years to finish. Yes, two years for a book less than 300 pages. As with many books nowadays, I found this one at the library, my place of work. I skimmed through the book and took a vested interest in it. But rather than check the book out, I asked for it for Christmas and received it in December 2015. So yes, just about two YEARS. The reason for the length in time? I usually don’t do non-fiction. It’s not for lack of trying, and I do have non-fiction books in my possession, but I’ve always loved fiction for its ability to go all-out, create worlds and characters and situations beyond our wildest dreams because it’s not real; anything is possible. With non-fiction, it’s all facts and automatically trapped within the confines of reality. There isn’t much mind-wandering to be done with that. None of this is to bash non-fiction or those who admire it just as much as I do fiction. And despite my views on non-fiction as a genre, I persevered and stuck with this book until its end because of its subject matter and main character: Mario.
Video game history in itself is unlike anything else because, compared to other types of entertainment such as TV, movies or sports, video games are the newest form with the exception of the internet. Not even half a century old, many people who were around to play the “first” video game (Pong and the first surge of arcade cabinet games) are still alive today. It’s a young market, and its growth has been, as a whole, exponential and hard to ignore. It’s to the point where all forms of entertainment mentioned above have included video games at some point; there are cartoons and movies based on video games, there are TV shows dedicated to TALKING about video games, websites like Youtube are catering more to the gaming community, and just recently a marching band performed the Legend of Zelda theme song at a grand football game. So to read about how this all essentially started was fascinating. Now, I’ll try to stay unbiased as always, but I must say that as the great 21st century console wars go on, I’m Team Nintendo. I’m not exclusively Nintendo, but I’ve always been drawn to their bold, colorful and positively fun games rather than Playstation and X-Box’s direction of gritty “adult” action titles. There’s pros and cons with all three consoles, and I know Playstation and X-Box have done some things better than Nintendo. Like my preference with fiction and non-fiction books, that’s all I mean to express here: a preference. And I’m sure there’s books like “Super Mario” that go as in-depth with Playstation and X-Box’s histories (in fact, Playstation’s history started thanks to Nintendo, as they backed out of a deal with Sony in an admittedly scummy manner, prompting Sony to drop the idea of collaborating with Nintendo in favor of making their own console: the Playstation). But Nintendo is a unique specimen because this book doesn’t just talk about Nintendo’s history, but makes it quite clear that Nintendo IS video game history. They are the grandfathers of video gaming as we know it today. Nintendo has 10+ years on Playstation and X-Box, and it’s all thanks to Mario, their mascot still as synonymous with gaming as Mickey Mouse is to Disney nearly 40 years later. And that is the hefty goal of this book- to showcase Nintendo from its humble beginnings to their growth to now (well, to 2012, when the book was last updated).
“Super Mario” starts not just with the release of the NES/Famicom or the hiring of Shigeru Miyamoto, the father of Mario, but with the formation of Nintendo itself, when it was a trading card company... in 1889. So, how did it go from cards to electronics almost a century later? That’s what author Jeff Ryan breaks down for the reader. The book is separated by five parts with five chapters per segment. As this is a book depicting Nintendo’s development over the years, its parts are sequential and correlate to (almost) each new game console Nintendo has created and Mario has taken part in: The Donkey Kong arcade cabinets, the NES/Famicom, the SNES/Super Famicom, the Nintendo64, and the Wii. Each chapter, Ryan states, is named after a Mario game (’Mario’s Party’, ‘Mario’s Brawl’, ‘Mario’s World’) and just the fact that there are enough Mario games out there that Ryan could use 25 of them without repeating is pretty telling of Mario’s success. At times I felt the names were distracting or too much of an attempt to be ‘punny’, simply because some names had nothing to do with the subject matter. ‘Mario’s World’ is about the N64, and ‘Mario’s Kart(ridge)’ is about the Virtual Boy. It might just be because I’m doing a review, but finding events in a book to go back to is not easy when the chapter name and subject don’t correspond to one another.
Throughout the book, there are certainly parts that come off more as talking about Nintendo’s history rather than Mario’s but Mario is ingrained in Nintendo electronics; there really is no separating the two, nor a way to talk about one without the other. And in the world of video games in the 1980s, where the rules were not yet made and the potential limitless, reading about seemingly small and minute decisions Nintendo made with Mario with nothing to go off of but instinct was amazing, especially when you read about the subsequent payoff of those decisions a few paragraphs later. There was a reason for Mario’s name, there was an idea that they wanted him to be not just a mascot but a character that wasn’t defined by one game/genre of game but could easily adapt to any situation (similar to Bugs Bunny), and there was even a reason to Mario’s design, stemming from both graphical limitations of the arcade cabinet and simply from laziness. Because no one was challenging them in the beginning, the risks were both high and low. Some choices Nintendo/Miyamoto made for the world of Mario stemmed from real life (such as the idea of the Chain Chomp enemies, created from a dog on a chain that would attempt to chase Miyamoto as a child). If they didn’t come from real life events, they came from a blend of business (Kirby, the pink ball-like creature in the Kirby franchise, was named after the last name of the lawyer who helped Nintendo during a lawsuit over Donkey Kong’s name) and culture (with Wario being named for the Japanese word “Warui”, meaning “bad”). I found all of these little factoids interspersed through the chapters, between talks of schematics for games and the reception of said games, really cool simply because I’m a lover of the useless fact. It got to a point when even stuff I didn’t think was done for a reason was, indeed, done for a reason (”Color theory links purple [Nintendo Gamecube] to feelings of royalty... Dreamcast had chosen white with neon orange highlights: orange was the color of happiness. Sony’s... Playstation 2 was black with distinctive blue piping: blue is the color of intelligence... [The XBox’s] black came with hints of green. Green is the color of renewal... These weren’t accidental choices.”).
As you can probably tell, reviewing non-fiction isn’t exactly my forte. Giving my opinions on facts is a little strange. So let me get to a part I can always critique: the structure. Obviously it has to go in chronological order, so on that it does an A+ job. But in the beginning of a majority of the chapters, before picking up where the last left off, Ryan does this really weird intro where he talks about pop culture and Mario’s presence in it. Sometimes it correlates with the timeline of the chapter (he talks about the Super Mario Bros. Super Show in a chapter also taking place in the early 90s, for instance), but sometimes it doesn’t. It’s detached from the timeline and just serves to talk about how impactful Mario is: “Mario garners 1,500,000 search results when you type in ‘Mario Cake’ on Google! Mario is on hundreds of T-shirts! Mario was painted onto a sponsored Nascar racecar and won its first race!” Those are all great achievements and serve the purpose of showing how big Mario is even today, but they’re just dropped in the beginning, Ryan brags about Mario for about 3 pages, and then the first line of a separate paragraph will be in bold, indicating that the singing of the praises is over and we’re back to the timeline again. It’s distracting to the point of being annoying sometimes. Why did all of these accolades have to be spread out through openings of various chapters? Why not just have a chapter dedicated to his pop culture impact? It just makes no sense when, for some of these intros, all Ryan is doing is literally listing things Mario has been in or on.
And I feel the need to point this out, because despite the cover pictured above looking how it does, my copy has the words “with a new chapter” written in the top pixelated cloud. Ryan originally published this in 2011 (hence why it stops at talking about the Wii), but added this new chapter at the beginning of 2012. And what is this new chapter about? Well, to start, it’s titled “Mario’s Misfortunes”. And it’s about just that: it goes in month by month talking about the missteps and stock hits Mario and Nintendo took in 2011. We go from singing high praises to shooting him off his pedestal with a Nintendo Zapper. I feel similarly to this chapter’s inclusion as I did with the “bonus chapter” included in “The Bane Chronicles”: I hate it. Hate it hate it hate it. Yes, it’s factual, and yes, it was a pretty dismal year for Nintendo, but to end the book made to present Mario and Nintendo’s rise from underdog to top dog on that? On THAT? It’s so utterly depressing. And suddenly Ryan inserts himself in the book, in this additional chapter, addressing the audience directly and giving a solution to this “crisis” that no one asked for: “It’s time for a Mario theme park,” he declares. I’m still so baffled by this whole last part. He details it to even the specific location of this imaginary theme park and why it makes sense to put it there. I can’t honestly figure out why this exists other than to serve as a pitch, but we, the ones reading it, are not the people he should be pitching this to. It honestly made me irritated when I first read it. This is a book that, up until now, has been written in grounded facts (although, if you look on websites like Amazon where this book is sold, many Nintendo connoisseurs have been quick to point out some inaccuracies in the book as far as release dates and timeline happenings). Why, now, do we need it to veer from fact to opinion? “Because it’s an updated chapter” is not an excuse. I found something so smug about it, as if Ryan was saying “Well, if I was running the company, I’d do this. Dummies.” It was a chapter that really didn’t need to be. Nintendo is still up and running in 2017, and doing pretty spectacular in comparison (without a theme park, too, however I hear that one is actually in the works), and at this rate they’ll continue to exist. It’s pointless to add commentary for one year and then stop. If you commentate on 2011/2012, why not 2013, 2014, and so on? You set yourself up for failure by adding on to an already-complete book. If you really want to say more, just make another book ten years from now. Dummy.
Admittedly, I found the first half of the book more interesting than the second; that may be why my bookmark was lodged in page 116 for months and months. What I found so enjoyable about it was simply the history. The first half of the book is the start-up, how things came to be, how the public first reacted to the concept of “home gaming consoles”. Hands down my favorite story in the book was about Nintendo fighting a lawsuit from Universal who owned the rights to King Kong and argued copyright infringement against Nintendo for their similarly-named ape. That alone is a wonderful standalone story about Nintendo and just a good lesson for big companies trying to claim people “stole” something when it’s all within fair use. But then the second half starts to become more familiar territory. The N64, the Gamecube, the Wii... us millennials were around for all of that. Maybe not as game reviewers or commentators, but we saw the progression happen right before our eyes as players. It’s nostalgia-inducing, sure, and there are neat behind-the-scenes pieces about how Super Mario 64 was made as the first successful mainstream attempt at 3D graphics and why they made the Gamecube purple (really, I think I’m the only one that found that so totally enthralling), but it felt more like a recap at times than anything new and interesting (I know that’s not necessarily the point of a book chronicling Nintendo and Mario). I will say this, though- The second half, especially five years after this was written, makes for good comparison between then and now. Ryan points out that Nintendo like to keep to themselves and are weary about releasing things like mobile games; he even quotes the late great Satoru Iwata in talking about how Nintendo isn’t doing enough to meet the demands of the huge online demographic “nowadays” (2010). Fast-forward to now, and the WiiU and Switch both heavily encourage online play, and Mario exists in a mobile phone game. It’s like opening a time capsule and seeing what’s changed now to what it was back then. It’s an unexpected enjoyable treat at the end (thanks, last 40 pages of the book!)
"Super Mario” is an easy, interesting read showcasing a history that is still so young, one has to wonder if you can really call it a “history”. I can guarantee that there are things you didn’t know about Nintendo or Mario in this book, and whether you’re just a casual gamer or a Nintendo fanboy/girl, you’ll find a reason to like this book and keep reading, as I did. While I had to force myself to read the book sometimes and was kind of critical of it in here, I enjoyed it. I learned a lot, looked at some game and consoles in my home in a different light, and I gained a lot of respect for Nintendo, for Ryan who took (I’m assuming) months to research all of this, and for the everlasting Renaissance man, Mario himself.
#book reviews#books#tory reads#super mario#how nintendo conquered america#jeff ryan#mario#mario bros#video games#nintendo#non-fiction#pop culture#biography#you guys should see my copy of the book#it's yellowed and the cover is so frayed#it looks like i had it for 2 decades rather than 2 years#oh and i need to point this out because it actually really bummed me out#there's a spelling error on page 260#nintendo for its part lost millions later THAN year#i guess it was supposed to be that#so yeah bummer from the plummer#but great book all around#also i don't read non-fiction which i think i mention ten times in the review#thanks for putting up with my shenanigans guys#judging a book by its cover#ttfn ta ta for now
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NCERT Class 12 Computer Science Chapter 3 Lists Manipulation and Implementation
NCERT Class 12 Computer Science Python Solutions for Chapter 3 :: Lists Manipulation and Implementation
TOPIC-1
Data StructuresShort Answer Type Questions (2 marks)
Question 1:Define a data structure.Answer:A data structure is a group of data which can be processed as a single unit. This group of data may be of similar or dissimilar data types. Data Structures are very useful while programming because they allow processing of the entire group of data as a single unit.
Question 2:Name the two types of data structures and give difference between them.Answer:Data structures are of two types: Linear and Non – Linear.
In a linear data structure, the elements are stored in a sequential order.
In a non linear data structure, no sequential order is followed.
Linear Data Structure Examples: Arrays: Non-Linear Data Structure Examples: Tree, graph lists, stacks, queues, linked lists.
Question 3:Give difference between an array and a list in Python.Answer:An array is defined as a set of contiguous data of similar data type. Python lists are actually arrays of variable length. The elements of a list are of eterogeneous types which means they are of different data types.
Question 4:How are lists implemented in memory?(or)How is memory allocated to a list in Python?Answer:A list in Python is an array that contains elements (pointers to objects) of a specific size only and this is a common feature of all dynamically typed languages. For implementation of a list, a contiguous array of references to other objects is used. Python keeps a pointer to this array and the array’s length is stored in a list head structure. This makes indexing of a list independent of the size of the list or the value of the index. When items are appended or inserted, the array of references is resized.
Question 5:What is sequential allocation of memory? Why do we say that lists are stored sequentially?Answer:A list is a allocated memory in sequential manner. This means that the elements of the list are stored in memory in sequence of their declaration. So, if you want to view the fifth element of the list, you have to first traverse through first four elements of the list. This is called sequential allocation of memory.
TOPIC-2Searching ListsShort Answer Type Questions-I (2 marks)
Question 1:How is linear search different from binary search?Answer:
Binary search requires the input data to be sorted near search doesn’t.
Binary search requires an ordering comparison; linear search only requires equality comparisons
Binary search has complexity 0(log n); linear search has complexity O(n) as discussed earlier.
Binary search requires random access to the data; linear search only requires sequential access (this can be very important – it means a linear search can stream data of arbitrary size).
Short Answer Type Questions-II (2 marks)
Question 1:Accept a list containing integers randomly. Accept any number and display the position at which the number is found in the list.Answer:maxrange = input(“Enter Count of numbers: ’’)marks=[]flag=Falsefor i in range(0, maxrange):marks. append(input(“ ?”))number = inputfEnter number to be searched”)for i in range(0, maxrange):if marks [i]==number:print number,“found at position”,iflag=Trueif flag==False:print number, “not found in list”
Question 2:What will be the status of the following list after the First, Second and Third pass of the slection sort method used for arranging the following elements in descending order?Note : Show the status of all the elements after each pass very clearly underlining the changes.12,14, -54,64,90,24Answer:
Question 3:For a given list of values in descending order, write a method in Python to search for a value with the help of Binary search method. The method should return position of the value and should return -1 if the value not present in the list.Answer:def binarysrch (nums, x):high=len (nums)low=0while low < high:mid=(low+high)/2midval=nums [mid]if midval > x:low = mid + 1elif midval < x:high = midelse:return midreturn -1
TOPIC-3List SortingShort Answer Type Questions-I (2 marks)
Question 1:What is bubble sort?Answer:Bubble sort is a simple sorting algorithm that works by repeatedly stepping through the list to be sorted, comparing each pair of adjacent items and swapping them if they are in the wrong order. The pass through the list is repeated until no swaps are needed, which indicates that the list is sorted. The algorithm gets its name from the way smaller elements “bubble” to the top of the list. Because it only uses comparisons to operate on elements, it is also Called a comparison sort.
Question 2:Write an algorithm for selection sort.Answer:Selection sort performs the following steps:
Starting at index 0, search the entire array to find the next smallest or largest value.
Swap the smallest or largest value found with the value at index 0.
Repeat steps 1 & 2 starting from the next index.
Question 3:Explain insertion sort.Answer:Every repetition of insertion sort removes an element from the input data, inserting it into the correct position in the already-sorted list, until no input elements remain. The choice of which element to remove from the input is arbitrary and can be made using almost any choice algorithm.
Short Answer Type Questions-II (2 marks)
Question 1:Write a function that takes a list that is sorted in ascending order and a number as argument. The function should do the following:
Insert the number passed as argument in a sorted list.
Delete the number from the list.
Answer:from bisect import bisectdef listfunc(sortedlist,number) :insert_point = bisect (sortedlist, number)sortedlist.insert(insert_point,number)print “List after Insertion”print sortedlistsortedlist.remove(number)print “List after Deletion”print sortedlistmaxrange = inputfEnter Count of numbers: ”)numlist=[]flag=Falsefor i in range(0, maxrange):numlist.append(input(“ ?”))numlist.sort()number = inputfEnter the number”)listfunc(numlist,number)
Question 2:Consider the following list 95 79 19 43 52 3Write the passes of bubble sort sorting the list in ascending order till the 3rd iteration.Answer:[79,19, 43, 52, 3, 95]-Pass 1[19, 43,52,3,79, 95]-Pass 2[19,43,3, 52, 79, 95]-Pass 3
Question 3:Write a function that takes a sorted list and a number as an argument. Search for the number in the sorted list using binary search.Answer:def binary_search(SORTEDLIST, number):low=0high=len(SORTEDLIST)found=Falsewhile(low<high) and found==False:mid=(int) (low+high/2)if SORTEDLIST[mid]==number:print “Number found at”,midfound=Truebreakelif SORTEDLIST[mid]<number:low=mid+1else:high=mid-1if low >= high:print “Number not found”maxrange = inputfEnter Count of numbers: ”)numlist = []for i in range(0, maxrange):numlist.append(input(“?”))numlist.sort()print “Sorted list”,numlistnumber = inputfEnter the number”)binary_search(numlist,number)
Question 4:In the following list containing integers, sort the list using Insertion sort algorithm. Also show the status of the list after each iteration.15 -5 20 -10 10Answer:def insertion_sort(DATA_LIST):for K in range (1, len(DATA_LIST)):temp=DATA_LIST[K] # ptr=K-1,while(ptr>=0) and DATA_LIST[ptr]>temp:DATA_LIST[ptr+l]=DATA_LIST[ptr]ptr=ptr-1DATA_LIST [ptr+1] =tempprint DATA_LISTDATA_LIST = [15,-5,20,-10,10]print “LIST BEFOR SORTING”,DATAJ.ISTinsertion_sort(DATA_LIST)[-5,15, 20, -10,10][-5,15,20,-10,10]-Pass 1[-10,-5,15,20,10]-Pass 2[-10,-5,10,15, 20]-Pass 3
Question 5:What will be the status of the following after the First, Second and Third pass of the insertion sort method used for arranging the following elements in descending order ?Note: Show the status of all the elements after each pass very clearly underlining the changes.Answer:
Question 6:Consider the following unsorted list:99 78 25 48 51 11Sort the list using selection sort algorithm. Show the status of the list after every iteration.Answer:def selection_sort(DATA_LIST):for i in range(0, len (DATA_LIST)):min = ifor j in range(i + 1, len(DATA_LIST)):if DATA_LIST[j] < DATA_LIST[min]:min = j# swappingtemp= DATA_LIST[min]DATA_LIST[min] = DATA_LIST[i]DATA_LIST [i]=tempprint DATA_LISTDATA_LIST = [99 78 25 48 51 11]print “LIST BEFOR SORTING”,DATA_LISTselection_sort(DATA_LIST)
Question 7:Consider the following unsorted list Neena Meeta Geeta Reeta Seeta Sort the list using selection sort algorithm. Show the status of the list after every iteration.(or)Sort a list containing names of students in ascending order using selection sort.Answer:def selection_sort(DATA_LIST):for i in range(0, len (DATA_LIST)):min = ifor j in range(i + 1, len(DATA_LIST)):if DATA_LIST[j] < DATA_LIST[min]:min = j# swappingtemp= DATA_LIST[min]DATA_LIST[min] = DATA_LIST[i]DATA_LIST[i]=tempprint DATA_LISTNAME_LIST = [‘Neena���,’Beeta’,’Reeta’,’Geeta’,’Seeta’]print “LIST BEFORE SORTING”,NAME_LISTselection_sort(NAME_LIST)LIST BEFORE SORTING [‘Neena’,‘Beeta’,‘Reeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Seeta’][‘Beeta’, ‘Neena’, ‘Reeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Seeta’]-Pass 1[‘Beeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Reeta’, ‘Neena’, ‘Seeta’]-Pass 2[‘Beeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Neena’, ‘Reeta’, ‘Seeta’]-Pass 3[‘Beeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Neena’, ‘Reeta’, ‘Seeta’]-Pass 4[‘Beeta’, ‘Geeta’, ‘Neena’, ‘Reeta’, ‘Seeta’]-Pass 5
Question 8:A list contains rollno, name and marks of the student. Sort the list in descending order of marks using selection sort algorithm. [CBSE Text Book]Answer:def selection_sort(DATA_LIST):for i in range(0, len (DATA_LIST)):min = ifor j in range(i + 1, len(DATA_LIST)):if DATA_LIST[j][2] > DATA_LIST[min][2]:min = j# swappingDATA_LIST[min] [0] ,DATA_LIST[i] [0] = DATA_LIST[i] [0] ,DATA_LIST[mm] [0] DATA_LIST[min][l],DATA_LIST[i][l] = DATA_LI ST [i] [ 1 ],DATA_LI ST [min] [ 1 ] DATA_LIST[min] [2] ,DATA_LIST[i] [2] = DATA_LIST[i] [2],DATA_LIST[min] [2]print DATA_LISTmaxrange=input(“Enter Number of Students: ”)Students=[]for i in range(maxrange):Details=[]Details. append(input(“Enter roll_no”))Details.append(raw_input(“Enter name”))Details. append(inprft(“Enter marks”))Students.append(Details)print Studentsselection_sort(Students)
Question 9:What will be the status of the following list after the First. Second and Third pass of the insertion sort method used for arranging the following elements in descending order ?12,34,46, -34,90,23Note : Show the status of all the elements after each pass very clearly underlining the changes.Answer:output of diferent passes Pass One[12,34,46,-34,90,23], {}Pass Two[34, 46, -34, 90, 23} , {12}Pass ThreeLISTS MANIPULATION AND IMPLEMENTATION[46, -34, 90, 23} , {12, 34} Pass SixPass Four {23}, {-34,12, 34, 46, 90}[-34, 90, 23} , { 12, 34, 46} Pass SevenPass Five {} , {-34,12, 23, 34, 46, 90}{90,23} , {-34,12,34,46} It is the sorted list.
Long Answer Type Questions (4 marks)
Question 1:Consider the following unsorted list: 90 78 20 46 54 1 Write the list after:
3rd iteration of selection sort
4th iteration of bubble sort
5th iteration of insertion sort Ans. Working :
Answer:Working :
3rd iteration of selection sort: [1,20,46,78,54,90]
4th iteration of bubble sort: [1, 20, 46, 54, 90, 78]
5th iteration of insertion sort: [1, 20, 46, 54, 78, 90
Question 2:Consider the following unsorted list:10 5 55 13 3 49 36Write the position of elements in the list after:(i) 5th iteration of bubble sort(ü) 7th iteration of insertion sort(iii) 4th iteration of selection sortAnswer:Working :
5th iteration of bubble sort: [3, 5,10,13, 36, 55, 49]
Insertion sort doesn’t have the 7th iteration
4th iteration of selection sort: [3, 5,10,13, 55, 49, 36]
Question 3:Write a class CITY in Python with following– CName # String Value specifications :– Pop # Numeric value for Population instance attributes-KM # Numeric value– Ccode # Numeric value– Density #Numeric value for Population DensityMethods:– Dencal() #Method to calculate Density as Pop/KM– Record() #Method to allow user to enter values Ccode, CName, Pop, KM and call DenCal ( ) method– View() #Method to display all the members also display a message “Highly Populated City” if the Density is more than 10000.Answer:class CITY:def_init_(self): self.Ccode = 0self.CName = self. Pop = 0self.KM = 0 self.Density = 0def DenCal (self) :self.Density = self.Pop/self. KMdef Record (self)self Ccode=input (“Enter Ccode”)self.CName=raw_input (“Enter CName”)self.Pop=input (“Enter population”)self.KM=input (“Enter KM”)DenCal(self) //or self.DenCal()def View (self):print Ccode, CName, Pop, KM, Densityif self.Density > 10000:print (“Highly populated city”)# OR print (“Highly populated city”)
Question 4:A list contains Item_code, Item_name, qty and price. Sort the list :
In ascending order of qty using Bubble sort.
In descending order of price using Insertion sort.
Answer:def bubble_sort(DATA_LIST) :i = 0j = 0l = len(DATA_LIST)for i in range(l):print “Bubble Sort Iterations – Asc order of Quantity”for j in range(i+l,l):if DATA_LlST[i][3] > DATA_LIST[j][3]:# swappingDATA_LIST[i][0], DATA_LIST[j] [0]=DATA LIST[j] [0],DATA_LIST[i] [0]DATA_LIST[i][1], DATA_LIST[j][1]=DATA_ LIST[j][l],DATA_LIST[i][l]DATA_LIST[i] [2], DATA_LIST[j] [2]=DATA_ LIST[j][2],DATA_LIST[i][2]DATA_LIST[i][3], DATA_LIST[j][3]=DATA_ LIST[j][3] ,DATA_LIST[i] [3]print DATA_LISTdef insertion_sort(DATA_LIST):for K in range (1, len(DATA_LIST)):temp=DATA_LIST[K][2]ptr=K-1print “Insertion Sort Iterations – Desc order of price”while(ptr>=0) and DATA_LIST[ptr][2] < temp:DATA_LIST[ptr+1] [0]=DATA_LIST[ptr] [0]DATAJHST [ptr+1] [1]=DATA_LIST[ptr] [1]DATA_LIST[ptr+1][2]=DATA_LIST[ptr][2]DATA_LIST[ptr+1] [3]=DATA_LIST[ptr] [3]ptr=ptr-1DATA_LIST[ptr+1][2]=tempprint DATA_LISTmaxrange = input(“Enter Number of Items: “)Items=[]for i in range (maxrange):Details=[]Details. append(input(“Enter Item Code”))Details.append(raw_input(“Enter Item name”))Details.append(float(raw_input(“Enter price”)))Details.append(input(“Enter Quantity”)) Items. append(Details)print “BEFORE SORTING”,Items bubble_sort(Items)insertion_sort(Items)
TOPIC-4Stacks And Queues With ListsVery Short Answer Type Questions (1 mark)
Question 1:Expand the following:
LIFO
FIFO
Answer:
LIFO: Last-In First-Out
FIFO: First-In First-Out
Question 2:Define stack.Answer:A stack is a data structure that allows adding and removing elements in a particular order. Every time an element is added, it goes on the top of the stack; the only element that can be removed is the element that was at the top of the stack.
Question 3:Define Queue.Answer:Queue is a first-in, first-out (FIFO) data structure, i.e. the element added first to the queue will be the one to be removed first. Elements are always added to the rear of the queue and removed from the front of the queue.
Question 4:Write all the operations possible in data structure.Answer:The major operations are:
Traversal
Insertion
Deletion
Searching
Question 5:What are the two major queue operations?Answer:Addition of element is known as INSERT operation, also known as enqueuing. It is done using rear terminal position, i.e. tail end. Removal of element is known as DELETE operation, also known as dequeueing.
Short Answer Type Questions-I (2 marks)
Question 1:Write an algorithm to implement push operation.Answer:
Start
Initialize top with -1.
Input the new element.
Increment top by one.
stack[top]=new element
Print “Item Inserted”
Stop
Question 2:Write an algorithm to implement pop operation.Answer:
Start
If the value of top is -1 go to step 3 else go to step 4
Print “Stack Empty” and go to step 7
Deleted item = Stack[top]
Decrement top by 1
print “Item Deleted”
Stop
Question 3:Write an algorithm to implement insertion opera¬tion of queue.Answer:
Start
Check FRONT and REAR value,
if both the values are -1, then FRONT and REAR are incremented by 1
other wise Rear is incremented by one.
queue [Rear]=new element.
Stop
Question 4:Write an algorithm to implement deletion operation of queue.Answer:
Start
Check for underflow situation by checking value of Front=-1
If it is display appropriate message and stop
Otherwise Deleted item=queue [Front]
If Front=Rear then Front=Rear=-1 Otherwise Front is incremented by one
Print “Item Deleted”
Stop
Question 5:For a given list of values in ascending order, write a method in Python to search for a value with the help of Binary Search method. The method should return position of the value and should return -1 if the value not present in the list.Answer:def Binary Search (list, search):lower_bound=0upper_bond=len(list) -1found=falsepos=’x’while lower_bound< =upper_bond:middle_pos=(lower_bound + upper_bond)/2if list [middle_pos] = = search:pos=middlepos found=True breakelif search < list [middle_pos]:upper_bound=middle_pos-l else:lower_bound=middle_pos + 1 if found:print(“The item found”, pos) else:print (“The item not available”)return (-1)
Long Answer Type Questions (4 marks)
Question 1:Write Insert (city) and Delete (City) methods in Python to add City and Romave City considering them to act as Insert and Delete operations of the data structure Queue.Answer:class queue:city=[ ]def Insert (self):a = raw_input(“Enter city”)queue.city append (a)def Delete (self):if (queue, city = = []):print “Queue empty”else:print “Deleted element is”,queue.city[0]queue.city.delete ()ORclass queue:city=[ ]def Insert(self):a=raw_input(“Enter city”)queue.a.append(a)def Delete(self):if (queue.city==[ ]):print (“Queue emtpy”)elseprint (“Deleted element is”,queue, city [0])
Question 2:Define stack class in Python to operate on stack of numbers.Answer: class Stack:def_init_(self):self.s = [ ]def push(self):a = input(“Enter number”)self.s. append(a)def pop(self):self.s.pop()def display (self):l = len(self.s)for I in range(l-1,1,-1):print self.s[i]
Question 3:Write a function to push any student’s information to stack.Answer:def push(stack):s=[]print “STACK BEFORE PUSH” display(stack)s.append(input(“Enter student rollno?”))s.append(raw_input(“Enter student name”))s.append(raw_input(“Enter student grade”))stack, append(s)def display (stack):l=len(stack)print “STACK CONTENTS”for i in range(l-1,-1,-1):print stack[i]stack=[]print “Creating Stack”n = input(“Enter the number of students”)for i in range(n): student = []student.append(input(“Enter student rollno?”))student.append(raw_input(“Enter student name”))student.append(raw_input(“Enter student grade”))stack, append(student) push(stack)display(stack)
Question 4:Write the push operation of stack containing names using class.Answer:class stack:s=[]def push(self):a=r’aw_input(“Enter any name :”)stack.s.append(a)def display(self):l=len(stack.s) for i in range(l-1,-1,-1):print stack.s[i]a=stackOn= input(“Enter no. of names”)for i in range (n):a.push()a.display()
Question 5:Write Insert (Place) and Delete (Place) methods in Python to be add Place and Remove Place considering them to act as Insert and Delete operations of the data structure Queue.Answer:Class queue: place=[]def Insert (self):a=raw_input (“Enter city”)queue.place. append (a)def delete (self):if (queue.place = = []):print “Queue empty”else:print “Deleted element is”, queue, place [0]class queue :place = [ ]def Insert (self) 1a = rawjnput (“Enter place”) queue, a.append (a)def delete (self):if (queue.place==[ ] ):print (“Queue empty”)else:print (“Deleted element is” queue, place [0])queue.place.delete ( )
Question 6:Write the pop operation of stack containing names using class.Answer:class stack:s=[]def push (self):a=raw_input(“Enter any name :”)stack.s.append(a)def pop(self):if (a.s==D):print “Stack Empty”else:print “Deleted element is : ”,a.s.pop()def display (self):l=len(stack.s)print “STACK CONTENTS”for i in range(l-1,-1,-1):print stack.s[i]a=stack()n= input(“Enter no. of names”)for i in range(n):a.push()a.pop()a.display()
Question 7:Write the pop operation of stack containing num-bers using class.Answer:class stack:s=[]def push(self):a=input(“Enter number :”)stack.s.append(a)def pop(self):if (a.s==[]):print “Stack Empty”else:print “Deleted element is : ”,a.s.pop()def display(self):l=len(stack.s) print “STACK CONTENTS”for i in range(l-1,-1,-1):print stack.s[i]a=stack()n= input(“Enter count of numbers”)for i in range (n):a.push()a.pop()a. display ()
Question 8:Write a function to add any customer’s information to queue.Answer:def insert(queue): customer=[]print “QUEUE BEFORE INSERT” display(queue)customer.append(input(“Enter customer number?’’))customer.append(raw_input(“Enter customer name”))customer.append(input(“Enter customer phone number”))queue. append(customer)def display (queue):l=len(queue)fori in range(O.l): print queue[i]queue=[]print “Creating Queue”n=input(“Enter the number of customers”)for i in range(n):customer=[]customer. append(input(“Enter customer number?”))customer.append(rawjnput(“Enter customer name”))customer.append(input(“Enter customer phone number”))queue.append(customer)insert(queue)display(queue)
Question 9:Write the insertion operation of queue containing character using class.Answer:class queue:s=0def insert(self):a=raw_input(“Enter any letter:”)queue.s.append(a)def display (self):l=len(queue.s)print “QUEUE CONTENTS”for i in range(o,l):print queue. s[i]a=queue()n= input(“Enter no. of letters”)for i in range(n): a.insert()ch = raw_input(“Do you want to insert more letters”)if ch==‘y’:a.insert()a.display()
Question 10:Write Add(Fruit) and Remove (Fruit) methods in Python to insert name of a Fruit and to delete name of a Fruit considering them to act as Insert and Delete operations of the data structure Queue.Answer:def que insert (fruit, Rear) :ch=‘y’while ch==‘y’ or ch==‘yes’Frt=input(“Enter a fruit”)Rear=Rear + 1Fruit, append (Frt)print(“Do you wand to Add more”)ch=input ().upper ( )if ch==’N’ or ch==‘No’ :breakreturn reardef quedelete (Fruit, Rear):if not len (fruist):print f(“Fruit + list is empty”)else :Rear = Rear – 1Frt = Fruit.pop( )print(“Fruit is delete from list”)return Rear
Question 11:Write the deletion operation of queue containing characters using class.Answer:class queue:s=0def insert(self):a=raw_input(“Enter any letter:”)queue.s.append(a)def delete(self):if (a.s==[]):print “Queue Empty”else:print “Deleted element is: ”,queue.s[0]del queue.s[0]def display(self): l=len(queue.s)print “QUEUE CONTENTS”for i in range(0,l):print queue.s[i]a=queue()n= input(“Enter no. of letters”)for i in range (n):a.insert()a. delete()a. display ()
Question 12:Write the deletion operation of queue containing numbers using class.Answer:class queue:s=[]def insert(self):a=input(“Enter the number:”)queue.s.append(a)def delete(self):if (a.s==Q):print “Queue Empty”else:print “Deleted element is: ”,queue.s[0]del queue.s[0]def display(self):l=len(queue.s)print “QUEUE CONTENTS”for i in range(0,l):print queue.s[i]a=queue()n= input(“Enter no. of numbers”)for i in range(n):a.insert()a.delete()a.display()
TOPIC-5Applications of StacksVery Short Answer Type Questions (1 mark)
Question 1:Give one example of infix expression.Answer:A + B *C / D
Question 2:Give one example of postfix expression.Answer:ABC*D/+
Question 3:Give one example of prefix expression.Answer:+/*BCDA
Question 4:Convert (A+B)*C in to postfix form.Answer:AB+C*
Short Answer Type Questions-I (2 marks)
Question 1:Evaluate the following postfix notation of expressio,Show status of stack after every operation.12,2,7,34,20,-, +,5, +Answer:
Question 2:Evaluate the following postfix expression. Show the status of stack after execution of each operation separately: 2,13, + , 5, -,6,3,/,5,*,<Answer:Stack contentsResult: 0
Question 3:Evaluate using stack 10, 3,*, 30, 2,*,-Answer:
Question 4:Evaluate the following Postfix expression :20,10,-15,3,/, +, 5, *Answer:
Question 5:Convert A+ (B*C – (D / E A F) * G) * H into postfix form showing stack status after every step.Answer:
Question 6:Convert (True And False) OR (False And True) into postfix form using stack.Answer:
Question 7:What are the applications of queue in computer?Answer:In a single processor multitasking computer, job(s) wait to be processed form a queue. Same happens when we share a printer with many computers.
Compiling a HLL code.
Using download manager, for multiple files also uses queue for ordering the files.
In multiuser OS – job scheduling is done through queue.
Question 8:Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression. Show status of stack after every operation.Answer:Final Result = 1
Question 9:Evaluatethefollowingpostixnotationofexpression. Show status of stack after every operation.12,2, *, 24,20, -, +, 8, –Answer:
Question 10:Give few applications of stack.Answer:
Expression evaluation
Backtracking (game playing, finding paths, exhaustive searching).
Memory management, run-time environment for nested language features.
Short Answer Type Questions-II (2 marks)
Question 1:Write an algorithm to evaluate postfix expression.Answer:Step 1: StartStep 2: Check all symbols from left to right and repeat steps 3 & 4 for each symbol of expression ‘E’ until all symbols are over.
If the symbol is an operand, push it onto stack.
If the symbol is an operator then:
Pop the top two operands from stack and apply an operator in between them.
Evaluate the expression and place the result back on the stack.
Step 3: Set result equal to top element on the stack.Step 4: Stop
Question 2:Write an algorithm to convert infix to postfix.Answer:
Create an empty stack and an empty postfix output string/stream.
Scan the infix input string/stream left to right.
If the current input token is an operand, simply append it to the output string (note the examples above that the operands remain in the same order).
If the current input token is an operator, pop off all operators that have equal or higher precedence and append them to the output string; push the operator onto the stack. The order of popping is the order in the output.
If the current input token is push it onto the stack.
If the current input token is ‘)’, pop off all operators and append them to the output string until a ‘(‘ is popped; discard the ‘(‘.
If the end of the input string is found, pop all operators and append them to the output string.
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chapter 25 is rly sweet at the beginning and then sad at the end (poor buck). saw ur a/n at the end, why are u over the series :((( its so good and i hope ur okay i just wanted to drop in an say i thought the chapter was fantastic
Oh I’m fine. I’m just trying to trek through the series and finally finish it. There’s only going to be like 2 more chapters. I CAN SEE THE FINISH LINE.
Non-Sequential — Chapter 25
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Test Bank Database Processing 11th Edition
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Database Processing, 11e (Kroenke)
Chapter 1: Introduction
1) The purpose of a database is to help people keep track of things.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3
2) In a database, each table stores data about a different type of thing.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3
3) In a database, each row in a spreadsheet has data about a particular instance.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
4) In every database, not just the databases discussed in this book, table names are capitalized.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
5) A database shows data in tables and the relationships among the rows in those tables.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
6) Data is recorded facts and figures; information is knowledge derived from data.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5
7) Databases record data in such a way that they can produce information.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6
8) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is an example of a data mining application.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6-7
9) Small databases typically have simple structures.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8
10) Microsoft Access is a low-end product intended for individuals and small workgroups.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14
11) Applications are computer programs used directly by users.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
12) Sequenced Query Language (SQL) is an internationally recognized standard language that is understood by all commercial database management system products.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8
13) A database management system (DBMS) creates, processes and administers databases.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11
14) Microsoft Access is just a DBMS.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13
15) The DBMS engine in Microsoft Access is called Jet.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14
16) In Microsoft Access, you can use the Oracle DBMS in place of the Jet DBMS.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14
17) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application interacts with the DBMS.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
18) In an Enterprise-class database system, a database application accesses the database data.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
19) In an Enterprise-class database system, business users interact directly with the DBMS, which directly accesses the database data.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
20) All database applications get and put database data by sending SQL statements to the DBMS.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9
21) The DBMS ranked as having the "most power and features" in the text is IBM's DB2.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17
22) The DBMS ranked as being the "most difficult to use" in the text is Oracle Corporation's Oracle Database.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17
23) The DBMS ranked as being the "easiest to use" in the text is Microsoft's SQL Server.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17
24) The DBMS ranked as having the "least power and features" in the text is Microsoft Access.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-17
25) A database is called "self-describing" because it reduces data duplication.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12
26) The description of a database's structure that is stored within the database itself is called the "metadata."
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12 Fig 1-14
27) In a database processing system, indexes are held by the database management system (DBMS).
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 Fig 1-12
28) Database design is important, but fortunately it is simple to do.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16
29) A database design may be a new systems development project.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
30) A database design is rarely a redesign of an existing database.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
31) Information systems that stored groups of records in separate files were called file processing systems.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19-20 Fig 1-25
32) Data Language/I (DL/I) structured data relationships as a tree structure.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 21 Fig 1-25
33) The CODASYL DBTG mode structured data relationships as a tree structure.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 22 Fig 1-25
34) The relational model was first proposed in 1970 by E. F. Codd at IBM.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22
35) The 1977 edition of this text contained a chapter on the relational model, and that chapter was reviewed by E. F. Codd.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 22
36) dBase was the first PC-based DBMS to implement true relational algebra on a PC.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 23
37) Paradox is the only major survivor of the "bloodbath of PC DBMS products."
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23
38) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database systems because the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high.
Answer: FALSE
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 23
39) Bill Gates has said that "XML is the lingua-franca of the Internet Age."
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24
40) XML Web services allow database processing to be shared across the Internet.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24
41) The purpose of a database is to:
A) help people keep track of things.
B) store data in tables.
C) create tables of rows and columns.
D) maintain data on different things in different tables.
E) All of the above.
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
42) A database stores:
A) data.
B) relationships.
C) metadata.
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3-4 and 12
43) A database records:
A) facts.
B) figures.
C) information.
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
44) A sales contact manager used by a salesperson is an example of a(n) ________.
A) single-user database application
B) multiuser database application
C) e-commerce database application
D) A or B
E) Any of A, B or C
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 and Fig 1-5
45) A Customer Resource Management (CRM) system is an example of a(n) ________.
A) single-user database application
B) multiuser database application
C) e-commerce database application
D) A or B
E) Any of A, B or C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 and Fig 1-5
46) An online drugstore such as Drugstore.com is an example of a(n) ________.
A) single-user database application
B) multiuser database application
C) e-commerce database application
D) A or B
E) Any of A, B or C
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Fig 1-5
47) The industry standard supported by all major DBMSs that allows tables to be joined together is called ________.
A) Sequential Query Language (SQL)
B) Structured Question Language (SQL)
C) Structured Query Language (SQL)
D) Relational Question Language (RQL)
E) Relational Query Language (RQL)
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
48) A program whose job is to create, process and administer databases is called the ________.
A) Database Modeling System
B) Database Management System
C) Data Business Model System
D) Relational Model Manager
E) Data Business Management Service
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8
49) Microsoft Access includes:
A) a DBMS.
B) an application generator.
C) a Web server.
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13 Fig 1-15
50) Microsoft Access may use which of the following DBMS engines?
A) Jet
B) SQL Server
C) Oracle
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 14
51) Which of the following are basic components of an enterprise-class database system?
A) The user
B) The database application
C) The database management system (DBMS)
D) The database
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
52) In an enterprise-class database system ________.
A) the database application(s) interact(s) with the DBMS
B) the database application(s) access(es) the database data
C) the DBMS accesses the database data
D) A and B
E) A and C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
53) In an enterprise-class database system, the database application ________.
A) creates queries
B) creates forms
C) creates reports
D) A and B
E) B and C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
54) In an enterprise-class database system, reports are created by ________.
A) the user
B) the database application
C) the database management system (DBMS)
D) the database
E) All of the above
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
55) A database is considered "self-describing" because ________.
A) all the users' data is in one place
B) it reduces data duplication
C) it contains a description of its own structure
D) it contains a listing of all the programs that use it
E) All of the above
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12
56) In an enterprise-class database system, the database ________.
A) holds user data
B) holds metadata
C) holds indexes
D) holds stored procedures
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14
57) A database may contain ________.
A) tables
B) metadata
C) triggers
D) stored procedures
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14
58) A database may be designed ________.
A) from existing data
B) as a new systems development project
C) as a redesign of an existing database
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16 Fig 1-18
59) A database designed using spreadsheets from the Sales department is a database being designed ________.
A) from existing data
B) as a new systems development project
C) as a redesign of an existing database
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
60) A database designed to implement requirements for a reporting application needed by the Sales department is a database being designed ________.
A) from existing non-database data
B) as a new systems development project
C) as a redesign of an existing database
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
61) A database designed to combine two databases used by the Sales department is a database being designed ________.
A) from existing data
B) as a new systems development project
C) as a redesign of an existing database
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Answer: C
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
62) Database professionals use ________ as specific data sources for studies and analyses.
A) data marts
B) normalization
C) data models
D) entity-relationship data modeling
E) data migration
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19-20
63) Database professionals use a set of principles called ________ to guide and assess database design.
A) data marts
B) normalization
C) data models
D) entity-relationship data modeling
E) data migration
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17
64) A very popular development technique used by database professionals for database design is known as ________.
A) data marts
B) normalization
C) data models
D) entity-relationship data modeling
E) data migration
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17-18
65) A very popular development technique used by database professionals to adopt a database design to a new or changing requirement is known as ________.
A) data marts
B) normalization
C) data models
D) entity-relationship data modeling
E) data migration
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18-19
66) The predecessor(s) of database processing was (were) ________.
A) file managers
B) hierarchical models
C) network models
D) relational data model
E) All of the above were predecessors of database processing.
Answer: A
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20-23
67) The relational model ________.
A) was first proposed in 1970
B) was developed by E. F. Codd
C) was developed at IBM
D) resulted in the DBMS product DB2
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22-23
68) Modern microcomputer personal DBMS products ________.
A) are supplied by several well-established manufacturers
B) were essentially killed off by MS Access
C) have poor response time
D) are not true DBMS products
E) are really just programming languages with generalized file-processing capabilities
Answer: B
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22-23
69) Business organizations have resisted adopting object-oriented database management systems because ________.
A) object-oriented programming uses simplified data structures that fit easily into relational databases
B) the cost of purchasing OODBMS packages is prohibitively high
C) the cost of converting data from relational databases to OODBMSs is too high
D) most large organizations have older applications that are not based on object oriented programming
E) C and D
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23
70) For database development, the most important Web-related technology to emerge in recent years is:
A) FTP.
B) HTTP.
C) XML.
D) OODBMS.
E) All of the above.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23-24
71) The purpose of a database is to ________.
Answer: help people keep track of things
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3
72) In a database, each ________ stores data about a different type of thing.
Answer: table
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3
73) In a database, each ________ in a database has data about a particular instance.
Answer: table
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
74) In the databases discussed in this book, table names are ________.
Answer: capitalized
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3
75) A database shows data in tables and ________ among the rows of those tables.
Answer: the relationships
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4
76) ________ is recorded facts and figures; ________ is knowledge derived from data.
Answer: Data; information
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 and 5-6
77) Databases record ________ in such a way that they can produce ________.
Answer: data; information
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6
78) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is an example of a ________.
Answer: multiuser database
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6-7 Fig 1-5
79) ________ do not necessarily have simple structures.
Answer: Small databases
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8
80) Computer programs used directly by users are called ________.
Answer: applications
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
81) ________ is an internationally recognized standard language that is understood by all commercial database management system products.
Answer: Structured Query Language (SQL)
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8
82) A ________ is used to create, process and administer databases.
Answer: database management system (DBMS)
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8
83) ________ is a DBMS combined with an application generator.
Answer: Microsoft Access
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-14
84) In an enterprise-class database system, a ________ interacts with the DBMS.
Answer: database application
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
85) All database applications get and put database data by sending ________ to the DBMS.
Answer: SQL statements
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 Fig 1-16
86) The DBMS ranked as having the "most power and features" in the text is ________.
Answer: Oracle database
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11
87) The DBMS ranked as being the "easiest to use" in the text is ________.
Answer: Microsoft Access
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16
88) A database is called ________ because it contains a description of itself.
Answer: "self-describing"
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12
89) ________ is the description of a database's structure that is stored within the database itself.
Answer: Metadata
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-13
90) In an enterprise-class database system, indexes are held by the ________.
Answer: database
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12-13 Fig 1-14
91) Business information systems that stored groups of records in separate files were called ________.
Answer: file processing systems
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20-21 Fig 1-25
92) Data Language/I (DL/I) structured data relationships in a data structure known as a ________.
Answer: tree structure
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 21-22 Fig 1-25
93) The CODSYL DBTG mode structured data relationships in a data structure known as a ________.
Answer: network
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 22 Fig 1-25
94) The relational model was first proposed in 1970 by ________ at IBM.
Answer: E. F. Codd
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22
95) The 1977 edition of this text was the first edition of this book that contained a description of the ________.
Answer: relational model
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20
96) ________ was the first PC based DBMS to implement true relational algebra on a PC.
Answer: R:base
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 23
97) ________ is the only major survivor of the "bloodbath of PC DBMS products."
Answer: Microsoft Access
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23
98) Business organizations have resisted adopting ________ because of the difficulty of converting existing databases.
Answer: object-oriented database management systems (OODBMSs)
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 23
99) ________ has said that "XML is the lingua-franca of the Internet Age."
Answer: Bill Gates
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24
100) ________ allow database processing to be shared across the Internet.
Answer: XML Web services
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24
101) What is the purpose of a database, and how does the database accomplish this purpose?
Answer: The purpose of a database is to help people keep track of things. It accomplishes this purpose by storing data in tables. Each table has rows and columns, similar to a spreadsheet. A database usually has multiple tables in order to keep track of different but related things. For example, we might have a CUSTOMER table to keep track of customers and a PRODUCT table to keep track of the things we sell. Each row in each table holds data about a particular instance, i.e., one customer or one product. The database also stores the links between the tables, so that we can track which customers bought which products (note: this will require an additional table if one customer can buy more than one product and one product can be sold to more than one customer).
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3-5
102) What are the four components of a database system?
Answer: The four components in a database system are: the user, the database application, the database management system (DBMS) and the database. The user interacts with the database application, which interacts with the DBMS, which controls the database. The functions of the database application include creating and processing forms, creating and transmitting queries and creating and processing reports. The DBMS creates databases, tables and supporting structures, manages database data, enforces rules and provides security. The database stores the user data, the database metadata, indexes, triggers, stored procedures and application metadata.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8-13
103) Briefly describe the function of an application program in a database system.
Answer: The application program is responsible for creating and processing forms. The application displays the form to the user, allows the user to complete the data entry, evaluates the form to determine which data management tasks need to be performed, and transmits the appropriate requests to the DBMS. The application creates and transmits queries. The queries are requests for data that are created in a language like SQL, and transmitted to the DBMS to have the requested data returned to the application program. The application also creates and processes reports. The query to retrieve the necessary data for the report is sent to the DBMS. When the DBMS returns the needed data, the application manipulates it as necessary to create the requested report. The application program also applies application logic to control the manipulation of data in accordance with the business rules. Finally, the application program is responsible for providing control. Control must be exercised to allow the users to make choices for functions and tasks as appropriate for their jobs. Also, control must be exercised to manage the activities of the DBMS.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9-11
104) What components are included in a database?
Answer: The database contains user data, metadata, indexes and other overhead data, and application metadata. User data is the data from the user's environment that they want to track. Metadata is data about the structure of the database. Indexes and other overhead data are structures that the database uses to improve performance. Finally, the application metadata is data about forms, reports, and other application components that some databases, particularly those created with desktop DBMS products, store with the database.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-14
105) Why do we say a database is "self-describing" and why is this an advantage?
Answer: A database is considered self-describing because it contains a description of its own structure within the database itself. This description is called the metadata, and it is stored in specialized tables in relational databases. The advantage is that the database is self-documenting, and that a knowledgeable user or a database designer can easily access the metadata. All DBMS vendors provide tools to access the metadata within their products.
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12-13
106) What is "metadata" and how does it relate to the definition of a database?
Answer: Metadata is data about the structure of the database itself. This includes data about the names of all the tables in the database, the names of all the columns in each of the tables, the data type of each column in each table, the properties of the tables and the columns, etc. Metadata accounts for the "self-describing" aspect of the definition of a database as a "self-describing collection of integrated tables."
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12-13
107) Briefly describe the function of the DBMS in a database system.
Answer: The DBMS creates the database and the tables and structures within it. The DBMS also reads and updates the database data. It receives requests from application programs to perform data maintenance tasks. These requests are translated into actions that are performed on the database. In addition to maintaining the user data within the database, the DBMS also maintains the database structures. The DBMS also enforces any rules that have been defined to govern the values of the data, such as data type requirements and referential integrity constraints. The DBMS controls concurrency issues, which deal with the unwanted interruption of one user's work by another user's work. As the only point of entry into the database, the DBMS also provides security for the database to restrict users' access to only the data that they have authority to read or modify. Finally, the DBMS is responsible for the creation of backup copies of the database data and for restoring the database in case a recovery is required.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11-12
108) What are "referential integrity constraints"? Give an example.
Answer: A referential integrity constraint is a rule that restricts certain actions on the database data. A referential integrity constraint is used to ensure that the values in a field in one table have matching tables in a corresponding field in another table. These constraints are enforced by the DBMS, which will not allow changes to the values of the database that would result in violations of this rule. For example, a database has an EMPLOYEE table and a VEHICLE table that are used to store data on employees and the vehicles that they are assigned to drive. The EMPLOYEE table has a column called EmployeeID that is used to distinguish one employee record from another. The VEHICLE table also has an EmployeeID column that is used to associate a vehicle with the appropriate employee. A referential integrity constraint could be used to prevent a vehicle from being assigned to an employee with an EmployeeID that does not appear in the EMPLOYEE table by requiring that all values in EmployeeID in the VEHICLE table have a matching value in EmployeeID in the EMPLOYEE table.
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11
109) What are the three types of database design situations?
Answer: Database designs can be based on (1) existing data, (2) new systems development and (3) database redesign. Database designs from existing data may be based on data in spreadsheets or other data tables, or on data extracted from other databases. New systems development gathers user requirements for needed applications and designs a database to meet those requirements. Database redesign may be needed to migrate existing databases to a newer DBMS, or to integrate multiple existing databases.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16-19 Fig 1-18
110) Briefly describe the history of database processing.
Answer: The predecessor of database processing was file processing, where data were maintained on magnetic tape. Database processing as we know it today became possible with the availability of direct access disk storage in the 1960s. Using this storage, both the hierarchical data model and then the network data model were developed. In 1970, E. F. Codd of IBM proposed the relational model, which is the standard model used today. Current DBMSs such as DB2, Oracle and SQL Server are based on the relational model. The appearance of microcomputer based DBMSs, in the 1980s led to a "bloodbath" from which Microsoft Access emerged as the dominant PC workstation DBMS. More recent events include the introduction of object-oriented DBMSs (OODBMSs), and the development of tools such as XML to allow the use of database systems over the Internet.
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18-22 Fig 1-18
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Test Bank Evolutionary Analysis 5th Edition
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Chapter 1 A Case for Evolutionary Thinking: Understanding HIV
1) In which of the following regions has AIDS killed the largest number of individuals?
A) India
B) Sub-Saharan Africa
C) United States
D) China
E) United Kingdom
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) The HIV virus contains all of the following components except ________.
A) integrase
B) double-stranded RNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) reverse transcriptase
E) protease
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) The acronym HIV stands for which of the following?
A) human intercellular virus
B) human immune virus
C) human immunodeficiency virus
D) human immunity virus
E) human immunodeficiency vector
Answer: C
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for transcribing viral RNA into DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) reverse transcriptase
C) DNA polymerase
D) reverse integrase
E) RNA duplicase
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) The proteins that enable the HIV virus to bind to cells are typically CD4 and CCR5. On what type of cells are these proteins typically observed?
A) plasma cells
B) dendritic cells
C) effector helper T cells
D) memory helper T cells
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) The AIDS phase of HIV infection begins when the concentration of CD4 T cells in the blood drops below what concentration?
A) 2,000 cells per cubic millimeter
B) 1,000 cells per cubic millimeter
C) 500 cells per cubic millimeter
D) 200 cells per cubic millimeter
E) No CD4 T cells are observed.
Answer: D
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
7) Which of the following drug categories are used to treat HIV infections?
A) integrase inhibitors
B) protease inhibitors
C) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D) DNAse inhibitors
E) fusion inhibitors
Answer: D
Section: 1.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
8) Coreceptor inhibitors block HIV infection by preventing which of the following?
A) binding of the HIV virion onto the plasma membrane
B) binding of the HIV virion onto the CCR5 receptor
C) binding of the HIV virion onto the gp120 protein
D) degrading the coreceptor so the virion cannot attach
E) binding of the HIV virion onto the CD4 receptor
Answer: B
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
9) What is the effect of the ∆32 allele of CCR5 on HIV binding?
A) appears on the surface of CD4 T cells, but the HIV virion is unable to infect the host cell
B) does not appear on the surface of CD4 T cells
C) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and inactivates the virion upon binding
D) interferes with binding of the virion to the CD4 receptor protein
E) appears on the surface of the CD4 T cells and causes the virion to lyse upon binding
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Skill: Application/Analysis
10) The ∆32 allele of CCR5 is found at the highest frequency in which of the following populations?
A) Africans
B) Japanese
C) North Americans
D) Europeans
E) South Americans
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
11) HIV-1 is believed to have been transmitted to humans from which of the following organisms?
A) gorillas
B) sooty mangabeys
C) African green monkeys
D) chimpanzees
E) baboons
Answer: D
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
12) HIV-1 Group M is responsible for 95% of human infections. When is it estimated that HIV-1 Group M was transferred to humans?
A) 1980
B) 1960
C) 1930
D) 1995
E) 1900
Answer: C
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
13) Antibodies and killer T cells recognize HIV or HIV-infected cells by binding to short pieces of viral proteins displayed on the virus or the infected host cell. These short pieces of viral proteins are called ________.
A) coat proteins
B) virosomes
C) proteosomes
D) epitopes
E) episomes
Answer: D
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
14) Tetherin is an important protein produced by the host. What is the function of tetherin in protecting a host cell from HIV?
A) ties maturing virions to the membrane of the host cell, thereby preventing the release of the mature virus
B) binds the virus to the external host cell membrane, thereby preventing the virus from entering the host cell
C) binds the viral RNA to reverse transcriptase, thus preventing synthesis of the viral DNA
D) binds the two viral RNA strands together, thus preventing the transcription of viral DNA in the host cell
E) causes the maturing virions to aggregate together, thus preventing their release from the host cell
Answer: A
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
15) Early in the infection with HIV, most virions bind to the host cell using CCR5 as a coreceptor. As the infection progresses, the HIV population evolves to use an alternate coreceptor. What is the alternate coreceptor these X4 viruses utilize?
A) Tetherin
B) CCR5α
C) vpu
D) TRIM5α
E) CXCR4
Answer: E
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
16) In what region of the world is the incidence of infection with HIV highest?
Answer: Sub-Saharan Africa
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
17) Originally, HIV was thought to be restricted to transmission during homosexual contact between gay men. List other ways in which HIV is currently known to be transmitted.
Answer: HIV can be transmitted by heterosexual sex, oral sex, needle sharing, transfusion with contaminated blood products, other unsafe medical procedures, childbirth and breast-feeding.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
18) What does the acronym AIDS stand for?
Answer: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
19) What viral coat protein typically binds first to the CD4 receptor on helper T cells?
Answer: gp120
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
20) When AZT is used to treat HIV infections, why does resistance to AZT usually develop?
Answer: Mutations present in the viral population, due to the lack of proofreading and high error rate of the viral reverse transcriptase, enable mutant virions to discriminate against the incorporation of AZT during transcription.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
21) It has been observed that viral particles often revert (back mutate to non-AZT-resistant populations when treatment with AZT is discontinued. What is the most likely reason for this observation?
Answer: There is no more selective pressure applied to the viral population, and in the absence of AZT the viral particles that reproduce most efficiently have not evolved enough to have the ability to discriminate against AZT.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
22) What is the molecular mechanism by which reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as AZT, prevent viral replication?
Answer: These molecules are analogues of the nucleotide building blocks of DNA, and typically prevent binding or elongation of the of the transcribed DNA molecule.
Section: 1.2
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
23) In what host cell protein is the Δ32 mutation found, and what type of mutation is this?
Answer: The Δ32 mutation is found in the CCR5 coreceptor on CD4 helper T cells, and is a 32-base pair deletion.
Section: 1.3
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
24) Explain the phylogenetic relationship between humans, chimpanzees, and monkeys in the transmission of the current predominant deadly strain in humans, HIV-1.
Answer: HIV-1 is believed to have originated in monkeys as an SIV (simian immunodeficiency virus); SIV was passed from monkeys to chimpanzees, and SIV was passed to and mutated into HIV-1 sometime around 1930.
Section: 1.4
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
25) Explain the mechanism HIV uses to avoid destruction by antibodies present in the human immune system.
Answer: The virus is constantly mutating its surface proteins, and these frequent changes in epitopes on the viral surface prevent the host cell from being able to recognize the virus over time.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
26) Following long periods of infection with HIV, an X4 strain often evolves. What evolutionary advantage does the X4 strain confer on the viral population, and what specific protein does this strain interact with?
Answer: The evolutionary advantage of this strain is that it can infect a different population of T cells. The alternate population of T cells contains the coreceptor CXCR4 instead of the CCR5 coreceptor.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Application/Analysis
27) What is the function of the product of the viral gene vpu in human infections of HIV?
Answer: The viral gene vpu (in a similar manner to the viral protein nef) blocks the action of the host protein tetherin, which normally adheres to viral particles and attaches them to the host cell membrane and prevents their release.
Section: 1.5
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
28) What steps are involved in producing the HIV GP120 protein? List all processes and host cellular structures involved from the point of initial infection with viral RNA to the production of the mature virion outside of the host cell.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Application/Analysis
29) Highly active antiretroviral therapies (HAART) have become the treatment method of choice in treating human HIV infections. What is required for a treatment to be classified as HAART, and why have these treatments proven so effective in the treatment of HIV infections?
Section: 1.2
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
30) If an individual is infected with HIV that goes undetected and untreated, the infection follows a standard clinical course of progression. Explain the three sequential phases of untreated HIV infection, the approximate times over which these phases occur, and the corresponding levels of both HIV RNA and CD4 T cells circulating in the host bloodstream.
Section: 1.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
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ACC 564 Quiz 3 – Strayer New
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Chapter 10 Information Systems Controls for Systems ReliabilityPart 3: Processing Integrity and Availability
1) The best example of a hash total for a payroll transaction file could be
A) total of employees' social security numbers.
B) sum of net pay.
C) total number of employees.
D) sum of hours worked.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
2) Error logs and review are an example of
A) data entry controls.
B) data transmission controls.
C) output controls.
D) processing controls.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
3) Following is the result of batch control totals on employee Social Security Numbers in a payroll processing transaction:
Correct Values From Masterfile
Values Entered During Processing
487358796
487358796
534916487
534916487
498374526
498374526
514873420
514873420
534196487
534916487
678487853
678487853
471230589
471230589
3719438158
3720158158
The difference in the control totals is 720,000. Which data entry control would best prevent similar data entry errors in the future?
A) Modulus 11
B) Validity check
C) Check digit
D) Sequence check
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
4) Which of the following data entry controls would not be useful if you are recording the checkout of library books by members?
A) Sequence check
B) Prompting
C) Validity check
D) Concurrent update control
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
5) A customer failed to include her account number on her check, and the accounts receivable clerk credited her payment to a different customer with the same last name. Which control could have been used to most effectively to prevent this error?
A) Closed-loop verification
B) Duplicate values check
C) Validity check
D) Reconciliation of a batch control total
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
6) If invoices are processed in groups of fifty, which fields from the document shown below would not be used to create a hash control total?
A) Amount
B) Item Number
C) Quantity Ordered
D) Sales Order number
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7) A data entry input control in which the application software sums the first four digits of a customer number to calculate the value of the fifth digit and then compares the calculated number to the number typed in during data entry is an example of a
A) check digit verification.
B) validity check.
C) closed-loop verification.
D) duplicate data check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
8) All of the following controls for online entry of a sales order would be useful except
A) check digit verification on the dollar amount of the order.
B) validity check on the inventory item numbers.
C) field check on the customer ID and dollar amount of the order.
D) concurrent update control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
9) A specific inventory record indicates that there were 12 items on hand before a customer brings two of the items to the check stand to be purchased. The cashier accidentally entered quantity 20 instead of 2. Which data entry control would best have prevented this error?
A) sign check
B) limit check
C) validity check
D) field check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
10) When processing weekly payroll, an employee accidentally entered 400 for hours worked. The best data entry control for this error would be
A) a limit check.
B) a check digit.
C) batch total reconciliation.
D) a field check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
11) The data entry control that would best prevent entering an invoice received from a vendor who is not on an authorized supplier list is
A) a validity check.
B) an authorization check.
C) a check digit.
D) closed-loop verification.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
12) Forms design is an example of this type of control.
A) Data entry control
B) Processing control
C) Output control
D) Input control
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
13) Sequentially prenumbered forms is an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) processing control.
D) input control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
14) Turnaround documents are an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) output control.
C) processing control.
D) input control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
15) A validity check is an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) output control.
D) input control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
16) Parity checks are an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) output control.
D) processing control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 279
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
17) User reviews are an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) output control.
D) processing control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 278
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
18) Data matching is an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) processing control.
D) input control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
19) Batch totals are an example of a(n)
A) data entry control.
B) data transmission control.
C) output control.
D) processing control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
20) Cancellation and storage of documents means that
A) data are copied from a document and stored, after which the document is shredded.
B) documents are defaced before being shredded.
C) documents are defaced and stored.
D) cancellation data are copied from documents before they are stored.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
21) Check digit verification is an example of a(n)
A) data transmission control.
B) output control.
C) processing control.
D) input control.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
22) This ensures that the input data will fit into the assigned field.
A) Limit check
B) Range check
C) Size check
D) Validity check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
23) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value nor fall below another predetermined value.
A) Completeness check
B) Field check
C) Limit check
D) Range check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
24) This determines if all required data items have been entered.
A) Completeness check
B) Field check
C) Limit check
D) Range check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
25) This determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items.
A) Range check
B) Reasonableness test
C) Sign check
D) Size check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
26) This determines if characters are of the proper type.
A) Field check
B) Alpha-numeric check
C) Range check
D) Reasonableness test
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
27) This tests a numerical amount to ensure that it does not exceed a predetermined value.
A) Completeness check
B) Limit check
C) Range check
D) Sign check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
28) This batch processing data entry control sums a field that contains dollar values.
A) Record count
B) Financial total
C) Hash total
D) Sequence check
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
29) This batch processing data entry control sums a non-financial numeric field.
A) Record count
B) Financial total
C) Hash total
D) Sequence check
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
30) When I enter a correct customer number, the data entry screen displays the customer name and address. This is an example of
A) prompting.
B) preformatting.
C) closed-loop verification.
D) error checking.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
31) This control ensures that the correct and most current files are being updated.
A) Cross-footing balance test
B) Data matching
C) File labels
D) Write-protect mechanism
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
32) This batch processing data entry control sums the number of items in a batch.
A) Financial total
B) Hash total
C) Record count
D) Sequence check
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
33) This data entry control compares the ID number in transaction data to a master file to verify that the ID number exists.
A) Reasonableness test
B) User review
C) Data matching
D) Validity check
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
34) File labels are an example of
A) data entry controls.
B) output controls.
C) processing controls.
D) source data controls.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
35) A computer operator accidentally used the wrong master file when updating a transaction file. As a result, the master file data is now unreadable. Which control could best have prevented this from happening?
A) Internal header label
B) Validity check
C) Check digit
D) Parity check
Answer:
Page Ref: 277
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
36) Chaz Finnerty called the IT Help Desk in a huff. "I'm trying to open an Excel file and I get a message that says that the file is locked for editing. What's going on?" The answer is likely that
A) the file is corrupted due to a computer virus.
B) there is no problem. Chaz is editing the file, so it is locked.
C) concurrent update controls have locked the file.
D) Chaz probably opened the file as read-only.
Answer:
Page Ref: 278
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
37) This control protects records from errors that occur when two or more users attempt to update the same record simultaneously.
A) Concurrent update controls
B) Cross-footing balance test
C) Data conversion controls
D) Recalculation of batch totals
Answer:
Page Ref: 278
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
38) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to sell more shares of a stock than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a
A) reasonableness test.
B) field check.
C) validity check.
D) limit check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
39) Modest Expectations Investment Services (MEIS) allows customers to manage their investments over the Internet. If customers attempt to spend more money than they have in their account, an error message is displayed. This is an example of a
A) reasonableness test.
B) field check.
C) validity check.
D) limit check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 276
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
40) The Spontaneous Combustion Rocket Shoppe in downtown Fargo, North Dakota, generates three quarters of its revenue from orders taken over the Internet. The revenue clearing account is debited by the total of cash and credit receipts and credited by the total of storefront and Internet sales. This is an example of a
A) data integrity test.
B) zero-balance test.
C) trial balance audit.
D) cross-footing balance test.
Answer:
Page Ref: 278
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
41) What is the most effective way to ensure information system availability?
A) High bandwidth
B) Maintain a hot site
C) Maintain a cold site
D) Frequent backups
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
42) Concerning system availability, which of the following statements is true?
A) Human error does not threaten system availability.
B) Proper controls can maximize the risk of threats causing significant system downtime.
C) Threats to system availability can be completely eliminated.
D) Threats to system availability include hardware and software failures as well as natural and man-made disasters.
Answer:
Page Ref: 284
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
43) Which of the following is not an objective of a disaster recovery plan?
A) Minimize the extent of the disruption, damage or loss.
B) Permanently establish an alternative means of processing information.
C) Resume normal operations as soon as possible.
D) Train employees for emergency operations.
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
44) Which item below would not typically be part of an adequate disaster recovery plan?
A) a system upgrade due to operating system software changes
B) uninterruptible power systems installed for key system components
C) scheduled electronic vaulting of files
D) backup computer and telecommunication facilities
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
45) A facility that contains all the computing equipment the organization needs to perform its essential business activities is known as a
A) cold site.
B) hot site.
C) remote site.
D) subsidiary location.
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
46) A facility that is pre-wired for necessary telecommunications and computer equipment, but doesn't have equipment installed, is known as a
A) cold site.
B) hot site.
C) remote site.
D) subsidiary location.
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
47) When a computer system's files are automatically duplicated on a second data storage system as they are changed, the process is referred to as
A) real-time mirroring.
B) batch updating.
C) consistency control.
D) double-secure storage.
Answer:
Page Ref: 287
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
48) ________ enables a system to continue functioning in the event that a particular component fails.
A) An incremental backup procedure
B) Fault tolerance
C) Preventive maintenance
D) A concurrent update control
Answer:
Page Ref: 284
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
49) A copy of a database, master file, or software that will be retained indefinitely as a historical record is known as a(n)
A) archive.
B) cloud computing.
C) differential backup.
D) incremental backup.
Answer:
Page Ref: 286
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
50) While this type of backup process takes longer than the alternative, restoration is easier and faster.
A) Archive
B) Cloud computing
C) Differential backup
D) Incremental backup
Answer:
Page Ref: 286
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
51) ________ involves copying only the data items that have changed since the last partial backup.
A) Archive
B) Cloud computing
C) Differential backup
D) Incremental backup
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
52) ________ copies all changes made since the last full backup.
A) Archive
B) Cloud computing
C) Differential backup
D) Incremental backup
Answer:
Page Ref: 286
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
53) The maximum amount of time between backups is determined by a company's
A) recovery time objective.
B) recovery point objective.
C) recovery objective.
D) maximum time recovery objective.
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
54) The maximum acceptable down time after a computer system failure is determined by a company's
A) recovery time objective.
B) recovery point objective.
C) recovery objective.
D) maximum time recovery objective.
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
55) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 12,500 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 25,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 120 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
56) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 10,000 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 20,000 transactions. If the firm's recovery time objective is 60 minutes, then the worst case recovery time objective is
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
57) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 10,000 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 40,000 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore
A) 40,000 transactions
B) 10,000 transactions
C) 10 hours
D) 4 hours
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
58) The accounting department at Synergy Hydroelectric records an average of 12,500 transactions per hour. By cost-benefit analysis, managers have concluded that the maximum acceptable loss of data in the event of a system failure is 25,000 transactions. The firm's recovery point objective is therefore
A) 25,000 transactions
B) 12,500 transactions
C) 1 hour
D) 2 hours
Answer:
Page Ref: 285
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
59) This control entails verifying that the proper number of bits are set to the value 1 in each character received.
A) Echo check
B) Field check
C) Parity check
D) Trailer record
Answer:
Page Ref: 279
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
60) Probably the most important change management control is
A) monitoring user rights and privileges during the change process.
B) testing all changes thoroughly prior to implementation on a stand-alone computer.
C) updating all documentation to reflect changes made to the system.
D) management's careful monitoring and review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 289
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
61) Which of the following is true?
A) Cloud computing is a control technique for system availability.
B) Cloud computing eliminates the need for backup of applications and data.
C) Cloud computing refers to the practice of storing application files and backup data on satellites 'in the clouds'.
D) Cloud computing eliminates the need for companies to own their own software and servers.
Answer:
Page Ref: 288
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
62) Discuss how cloud computing could both positively and negatively affect system availability.
63) Define and contrast a recovery point objective and a recovery time objective.
Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)
Chapter 11 Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems
1) Auditing involves the
A) collection, review, and documentation of audit evidence.
B) planning and verification of economic events.
C) collection of audit evidence and approval of economic events.
D) testing, documentation, and certification of audit evidence.
Answer:
Page Ref: 303
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
2) What is not a typical responsibility of an internal auditor?
A) helping management to improve organizational effectiveness
B) assisting in the design and implementation of an AIS
C) preparation of the company's financial statements
D) implementing and monitoring of internal controls
Answer:
Page Ref: 303
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
3) Which type of work listed below is not typical of internal auditors?
A) operational and management audits
B) information system audits
C) financial statement audit
D) financial audit of accounting records
Answer:
Page Ref: 303
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
4) The ________ audit examines the reliability and integrity of accounting records.
A) financial
B) informational
C) information systems
D) operational
Answer:
Page Ref: 303
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
5) The ________ audit reviews the general and application controls of an AIS to assess its compliance with internal control policies and procedures and its effectiveness in safeguarding assets.
A) financial
B) information systems
C) management
D) internal control
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
6) One type of audit that is concerned with the economical and efficient use of resources and the accomplishment of established goals and objectives is known as a(n) ________ audit.
A) financial
B) information systems
C) internal control
D) operational or management
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
7) The ________ audit is concerned with the economical and efficient use of resources and the accomplishment of established goals and objectives.
A) financial
B) informational
C) information systems
D) operational
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
8) The purpose of ________ is to determine why, how, when, and who will perform the audit.
A) audit planning
B) the collection of audit evidence
C) the communication of audit results
D) the evaluation of audit evidence
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
9) Organizing the audit team and the physical examination of assets are components of which two separate audit stages?
A) planning; evaluating audit evidence
B) planning; collecting audit evidence
C) collecting audit evidence; communicating audit results
D) communicating audit results; evaluating audit evidence
Answer:
Page Ref: 304-305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
10) With which stage in the auditing process are the consideration of risk factors and materiality most associated?
A) audit planning
B) collection of audit evidence
C) communication of audit results
D) evaluation of audit evidence
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
11) A system that employs various types of advanced technology has more ________ risk than traditional batch processing.
A) control
B) detection
C) inherent
D) investing
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
12) Control risk is defined as the
A) susceptibility to material risk in the absence of controls.
B) risk that a material misstatement will get through the internal control structure and into the financial statements.
C) risk that auditors and their audit procedures will not detect a material error or misstatement.
D) risk auditors will not be given the appropriate documents and records by management who wants to control audit activities and procedures.
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
13) The possibility that a material error will occur even though auditors are following audit procedures and using good judgment is referred to as
A) control risk.
B) detection risk.
C) inherent risk.
D) investigating risk.
Answer:
Page Ref: 305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
14) The ________ stage of the auditing process involves (among other things) the auditors observing the operating activities and having discussions with employees.
A) audit planning
B) collection of audit evidence
C) communication of audit results
D) evaluation of audit evidence
Answer:
Page Ref: 305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
15) Verifying the accuracy of certain information, often through communication with third parties, is known as
A) reperformance.
B) confirmation.
C) substantiation.
D) documentation.
Answer:
Page Ref: 305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
16) The evidence collection method that examines all supporting documents to determine the validity of a transaction is called
A) review of documentation.
B) vouching.
C) physical examination.
D) analytical review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
17) The evidence collection method that considers the relationships and trends among information to detect items that should be investigated further is called
A) review of the documentation.
B) vouching.
C) physical examination.
D) analytical review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
18) Assessing the quality of internal controls, the reliability of information, and operating performance are all part of which stage of the auditing process?
A) audit planning
B) collection of audit evidence
C) evaluation of audit evidence
D) communication of audit results
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
19) An auditor must be willing to accept some degree of risk that the audit conclusion is incorrect. Accordingly, the auditor's objective is to seek ________ that no material error exists in the information audited.
A) absolute reliability
B) reasonable evidence
C) reasonable assurance
D) reasonable objectivity
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
20) The risk-based audit approach is
A) a four-step approach to internal control evaluation.
B) a four-step approach to financial statement review and recommendations.
C) a three-step approach to internal control evaluation.
D) a three-step approach to financial statement review and recommendations.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
21) Which of the following is the first step in the risk-based audit approach?
A) Identify the control procedures that should be in place.
B) Evaluate the control procedures.
C) Determine the threats facing the AIS.
D) Evaluate weaknesses to determine their effect on the audit procedures.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
22) Determining whether the necessary control procedures are in place is accomplished by conducting
A) a systems overhaul.
B) a systems review.
C) tests of controls.
D) both B and C
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
23) According to the risk-based auditing approach, when a control deficiency is identified, the auditor should inquire about
A) tests of controls.
B) the feasibility of a systems review.
C) materiality and inherent risk factors.
D) compensating controls.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
24) The ________ to auditing provides auditors with a clear understanding of possible errors and irregularities and the related risks and exposures.
A) risk-based approach
B) risk-adjusted approach
C) financial audit approach
D) information systems approach
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
25) What is the purpose of an information systems audit?
A) To determine the inherent risk factors found in the system
B) To review and evaluate the internal controls that protect the system
C) To examine the reliability and integrity of accounting records
D) To examine whether resources have been used in an economical and efficient manner in keeping with organization goals and objectives
Answer:
Page Ref: 307
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
26) The information systems audit objective that pertains to source data being processed into some form of output is known as
A) overall security.
B) program development.
C) program modifications.
D) processing.
Answer:
Page Ref: 307
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
27) To maintain the objectivity necessary for performing an independent evaluation function, auditors should not be involved in
A) making recommendations to management for improvement of existing internal controls.
B) examining system access logs.
C) examining logical access policies and procedures.
D) developing the information system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 309
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
28) The auditor's role in systems development should be as
A) an advisor and developer of internal control specifications.
B) a developer of internal controls.
C) an independent reviewer only.
D) A and B above
Answer:
Page Ref: 309
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
29) Regarding program modifications, which statement below is incorrect?
A) Only material program changes should be thoroughly tested and documented.
B) When a program change is submitted for approval, a list of all required updates should be compiled and then approved by management and program users.
C) During the change process, the developmental version of the program must be kept separate from the production version.
D) After the modified program has received final approval, the change is implemented by replacing the developmental version with the production version.
Answer:
Page Ref: 311
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
30) How could auditors determine if unauthorized program changes have been made?
A) By interviewing and making inquiries of the programming staff
B) By examining the systems design and programming documentation
C) By using a source code comparison program
D) By interviewing and making inquiries of recently terminated programming staff
Answer:
Page Ref: 311
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
31) Which auditing technique will not assist in determining if unauthorized programming changes have been made?
A) Use of a source code comparison program
B) Use of the reprocessing technique to compare program output
C) Interviewing and making inquiries of the programming staff
D) Use of parallel simulation to compare program output
Answer:
Page Ref: 311
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
32) Strong ________ controls can partially compensate for inadequate ________ controls.
A) development; processing
B) processing; development
C) operational; internal
D) internal; operational
Answer:
Page Ref: 310
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
33) The ________ procedure for auditing computer process controls uses a hypothetical series of valid and invalid transactions.
A) concurrent audit techniques
B) test data processing
C) integrated test facility
D) dual process
Answer:
Page Ref: 312
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
34) The auditor uses ________ to continuously monitor the system and collect audit evidence while live data are processed.
A) test data processing
B) parallel simulation
C) concurrent audit techniques
D) analysis of program logic
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
35) Auditors have several techniques available to them to test computer-processing controls. An audit technique that immediately alerts auditors of suspicious transactions is known as
A) a SCARF.
B) an audit hook.
C) an audit sinker.
D) the snapshot technique.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
36) A type of software that auditors can use to analyze program logic and detect unexecuted program code is
A) a mapping program.
B) an audit log.
C) a scanning routine.
D) program tracing.
Answer:
Page Ref: 314
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
37) One tool used to document the review of source data controls is
A) a flowchart generator program.
B) a mapping program.
C) an input control matrix.
D) a program algorithm matrix.
Answer:
Page Ref: 314
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
38) An audit software program that generates programs that perform certain audit functions, based on auditor specifications, is referred to as a(n)
A) input controls matrix.
B) CAATS.
C) embedded audit module.
D) mapping program.
Answer:
Page Ref: 317
Objective: Learning Objective 4
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
39) The use of a secure file library and restrictions on physical access to data files are control procedures used together to prevent
A) an employee or outsider obtaining data about an important client.
B) a data entry clerk from introducing data entry errors into the system.
C) a computer operator from losing or corrupting files or data during transaction processing.
D) programmers making unauthorized modifications to programs.
Answer:
Page Ref: 316
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
40) An auditor might use which of the following to convert data from several sources into a single common format?
A) computer assisted audit techniques software
B) Windows Media Converter
C) concurrent audit technique
D) Adobe Professional
Answer:
Page Ref: 317
Objective: Learning Objective 4
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
41) What is the primary purpose of computer audit software?
A) eliminate auditor judgment errors
B) assist the auditor in retrieving and reviewing information
C) detect unauthorized modifications to system program code
D) recheck all mathematical calculations, cross-foot, reprocess financial statements and compare to originals
Answer:
Page Ref: 317
Objective: Learning Objective 4
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
42) The scope of a(n) ________ audit encompasses all aspects of systems management.
A) operational
B) information systems
C) financial
D) internal control
Answer:
Page Ref: 318
Objective: Learning Objective 5
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
43) Evaluating effectiveness, efficiency, and goal achievement are objectives of ________ audits.
A) financial
B) operational
C) information systems
D) all of the above
Answer:
Page Ref: 318
Objective: Learning Objective 5
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
44) In the ________ stage of an operational audit, the auditor measures the actual system against an ideal standard.
A) evidence collection
B) evidence evaluation
C) testing
D) internal control
Answer:
Page Ref: 318
Objective: Learning Objective 5
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
45) An increase in the effectiveness of internal controls would have the greatest effect on
A) reducing control risk.
B) reducing detection risk.
C) reducing inherent risk.
D) reducing audit risk.
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
46) An expansion of a firm's operations to include production in Russia and China will have the effect of
A) increasing inherent risk.
B) reducing inherent risk.
C) increasing control risk.
D) reducing control risk.
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
47) An increase in the effectiveness of auditing software will have the effect of
A) increasing detection risk.
B) reducing detection risk.
C) increasing control risk.
D) reducing control risk.
Answer:
Page Ref: 305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
48) An auditor examines all documents related to the acquisition, repair history, and disposal of a firm's delivery van. This is an example of collecting audit evidence by
A) confirmation.
B) reperformance.
C) vouching.
D) analytical review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
49) An auditor manually calculates accumulated depreciation on a delivery van and compares her calculation with accounting records. This is an example collecting audit evidence by
A) confirmation.
B) reperformance.
C) vouching.
D) analytical review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 305
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
50) An auditor finds that employee absentee rates are significantly higher on Mondays and Fridays than on other work days. This is an example collecting audit evidence by
A) confirmation.
B) reperformance.
C) vouching.
D) analytical review.
Answer:
Page Ref: 306
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
51) An auditor creates a fictitious customer in the system and then creates several fictitious sales to the customer. The records are then tracked as they are processed by the system. The auditor is using
A) an integrated test facility.
B) the snapshot technique.
C) a system control audit review file.
D) continuous and intermittent simulation.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
52) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to flag all credit transactions in excess of $1,500. The flag causes the system state to be recorded before and after each transaction is processed. The auditor is using
A) an integrated test facility.
B) the snapshot technique.
C) a system control audit review file.
D) audit hooks.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
53) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to record all credit transactions in excess of $1,500 and store the data in an audit log. The auditor is using
A) the snapshot technique.
B) a system control audit review file.
C) audit hooks.
D) continuous and intermittent simulation.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
54) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to flag questionable online transactions, display information about the transaction on the auditor's computer, and send a text message to the auditor's cell phone. The auditor is using
A) the snapshot technique.
B) a system control audit review file.
C) audit hooks.
D) continuous and intermittent simulation.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
55) An auditor sets an embedded audit module to selectively monitor transactions. Selected transactions are then reprocessed independently, and the results are compared with those obtained by the normal system processing. The auditor is using
A) an integrated test facility.
B) the snapshot technique.
C) a system control audit review file.
D) continuous and intermittent simulation.
Answer:
Page Ref: 313
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
56) Which of the following is not one of the types of internal audits?
A) reviewing corporate organizational structure and reporting hierarchies
B) examining procedures for reporting and disposing of hazardous waste
C) reviewing source documents and general ledger accounts to determine integrity of recorded transactions
D) comparing estimates and analysis made before purchase of a major capital asset to actual numbers and results achieved
Answer:
Page Ref: 304
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
57) When programmers are working with program code, they often employ utilities that are also used in auditing. For example, as program code evolves, it is often the case that blocks of code are superseded by other blocks of code. Blocks of code that are not executed by the program can be identified by
A) embedded audit modules.
B) scanning routines.
C) mapping programs.
D) automated flow charting programs.
Answer:
Page Ref: 314
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
58) When programmers are working with program code, they often employ utilities that are also used in auditing. For example, as program code evolves, it is often the case that variables defined during the early part of development become irrelevant. The occurrences of variables that are not used by the program can be found using
A) program tracing.
B) scanning routines.
C) mapping programs.
D) embedded audit modules.
Answer:
Page Ref: 314
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
59) Explain the differences between each type of audit risk.
60) Explain why the auditor's role in program development and acquisition should be limited.
61) How and to whom does an auditor communicate the audit results?
62) Audit tests and procedures traditionally have been performed on a sample basis. Do options exist for auditors to test significantly more (or all) transactions?
63) When doing an information systems audit, auditors must review and evaluate the program development process. What errors or fraud could occur during the program development process?
64) Briefly describe tests that can be used to detect unauthorized program modifications.
65) Define and give examples of embedded audit modules.
66) How is a financial audit different from an information systems audit?
67) Why do all audits follow a sequence of events that can be divided into four stages, and what are the four stages?
68) Name and describe the different types of audits.
AACSB: Analytic
69) Describe the risk-based audit approach.
71) Describe the disadvantages of test data processing.
72) Describe how audit evidence can be collected.
Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)
Chapter 12 The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections
1) In organizations with at least basic segregation of duties, the credit manager reports to the ________ and the treasurer reports to the ________.
A) controller; vice president of finance
B) treasurer; controller
C) marketing manager; vice president of finance
D) treasurer; vice president of finance
Answer:
Page Ref: 331
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
2) In the revenue cycle, before a shipping notice is prepared, the shipping department personnel should match the inventory received from the warehouse to details from
A) picking tickets.
B) sales order and bill of lading.
C) sales order.
D) picking ticket and sales order.
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
3) Which is the best control to prevent invoicing customers for the quantity ordered, which was more than the quantity shipped due to items on backorder?
A) Use the information from the packing slip to prepare the sales invoice.
B) Use the information from the picking ticket to prepare the sales invoice.
C) Use the information from the bill of lading to prepare the sales invoice.
D) Use the information from the sales order to prepare the sales invoice.
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4) The cashier deposits checks in the bank for Very Large Corporation (VLC) and also prepares payments to vendors. Of the following, who is best to reconcile the bank statement to VLC's records on a regular basis?
A) Internal audit department
B) Treasurer
C) External auditor
D) Cashier
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
5) Which of the following documents normally triggers the billing process in the revenue cycle?
A) Packing slip received from the shipping department
B) Sales order received from the sales department
C) Picking ticket received from the sales department
D) Journal voucher received from the shipping department
Answer:
Page Ref: 348
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
6) Which of the following documents would normally trigger the process to record a customer payment?
A) Remittance advice
B) Customer monthly statement
C) Deposit slip
D) Sales invoice
Answer:
Page Ref: 353
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
7) Which document should always be included with a merchandise shipment to a customer?
A) Packing slip
B) Picking ticket
C) Remittance advice
D) Sales invoice
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
8) A monthly statement sent to customers serves a control purpose by
A) providing an opportunity for customers to verify the balance owed and activity on the account.
B) triggering the process to record a customer payment.
C) summarizing invoices and amounts due for customers.
D) reminding customers of the balance due and due date.
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9) Accounting recognizes a sale when
A) inventory becomes the legal property of the customer.
B) cash is received from the customer.
C) a sales order is approved by sales, inventory control, and credit departments.
D) inventory is removed from the warehouse.
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
10) Which of the following is not one of the controls for the mail room where customer payments are commingled with other mail?
A) Requiring the controller to be personally present when mail is received and opened
B) Preparing a remittance list as mail is opened
C) Restrictively endorsing checks when received
D) Requiring two mail room clerks to open mail together
Answer:
Page Ref: 337
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
11) What is the primary objective of the revenue cycle?
A) to maximize revenue and minimize expense
B) to reduce outstanding accounts receivable balances through increased cash sales
C) to provide the right product in the right place at the right time at the right price
D) to sell as much product as possible and/or to maximize service billings
Answer:
Page Ref: 332
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
12) Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the revenue cycle?
A) What credit terms should be offered?
B) How often should accounts receivable be subjected to audit?
C) How can customer payments be processed to maximize cash flows?
D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service?
Answer:
Page Ref: 332-333
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
13) Which of the following is not a basic activity of the revenue cycle?
A) sales order entry
B) shipping
C) receiving
D) billing
Answer:
Page Ref: 333
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
14) Retail stores could send their orders directly to the manufacturer's sales order system in a format that would eliminate the need for data entry, using
A) Vendor Managed Inventory.
B) Electronic Data Interchange.
C) Point Of Sale.
D) Electronic Funds Transfer.
Answer:
Page Ref: 338
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
15) Matching customer account numbers and inventory item numbers to the numbers in the customer and inventory master files is an example of a
A) completeness test.
B) field check.
C) reasonableness test.
D) validity check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 339
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
16) During the sales order entry process, a ________ is performed to compare the quantity ordered with the standard amounts normally ordered.
A) completeness test
B) redundant data check
C) field check
D) reasonableness test
Answer:
Page Ref: 339
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
17) During the sales order entry process, a ________ is performed to verify that each transaction record contains all appropriate data items.
A) completeness test
B) redundant data check
C) field check
D) reasonableness test
Answer:
Page Ref: 339
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
18) When a customer places an order (on account) for a certain product, what should be done before the order is checked for inventory availability?
A) The customer's available credit should be checked.
B) The sales order should be created and written to a file.
C) Shipping should be notified of an order in process.
D) A picking list should be generated for the warehouse.
Answer:
Page Ref: 335
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
19) How is credit approval generally handled for established customers with a documented payment history?
A) Specific authorization by the credit manager
B) General authorization by a sales clerk
C) A new credit application is requested
D) A formal credit check should be made for each sale
Answer:
Page Ref: 340
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
20) What is a typical procedure for processing sales orders from new customers or customers making a purchase that causes their credit limit to be exceeded?
A) General authorization to approve the order is given to sales clerks.
B) Specific authorization must be granted by the credit manager.
C) The sale should be rejected.
D) The sales clerk should order a report from a credit bureau before approving the order.
Answer:
Page Ref: 340
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
21) A company should check inventory quantities before accepting a sales order for all the following reasons except to
A) verify the accuracy of the perpetual inventory records.
B) inform the customer about availability and delivery times.
C) know which items may need to be back ordered.
D) update inventory records to reduce the quantity available by the number of items ordered.
Answer:
Page Ref: 341-342
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
22) Responding to customer inquiries and general customer service is an important aspect in the revenue cycle. Since customer service is so important, software programs have been created to help manage this function. These special software packages are called
A) EDI systems.
B) POS systems.
C) VMI systems.
D) CRM systems.
Answer:
Page Ref: 343
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
23) The best solution for maintaining accurate automated perpetual inventory system is to use
A) closed-loop verification when inventory is received from vendors and recorded.
B) point of sale devices integrated with inventory records.
C) periodic physical counts to reconcile with perpetual inventory records.
D) RFID tags.
Answer:
Page Ref: 342
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
24) This document is a legal contract that defines responsibility for goods that are in transit.
A) packing slip
B) bill of lading
C) picking list
D) back order
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
25) Two documents usually accompany goods shipped to a customer. What are the two documents?
A) a bill of lading and an invoice
B) a packing slip and a bill of lading
C) an invoice and a packing slip
D) an invoice and a sales order
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
26) What is the basic document created in the billing process?
A) bill of lading
B) sales order
C) packing list
D) sales invoice
Answer:
Page Ref: 349
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
27) A company uses the method for tracking accounts receivable where customers pay according to individual sales invoices. This describes the ________ method.
A) monthly statement
B) open-invoice
C) balance forward
D) cycle billing
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
28) A method for tracking accounts receivable that matches specific invoices and payments from the customer is called a(n) ________ method.
A) specific identification
B) balance forward
C) cycle billing
D) open-invoice
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
29) The document a customer returns with their payment and that identifies the source and the amount of the payment is called a
A) remittance advice.
B) remittance list.
C) credit memorandum.
D) debit memorandum.
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
30) In the ________ method of tracking accounts receivable, customers pay according to the amount showing on their monthly statement and payments are applied against the total account balance.
A) specific identification
B) open-invoice
C) balance forward
D) remittance advice
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
31) When a customer pays off the balance on an invoice, the payment is credited to the ________ file.
A) customer master
B) sales transaction
C) cash receipts master
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer:
Page Ref: 351
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32) A type of business document in which part of the original document is returned to the source for further processing is called a ________ document.
A) feedback
B) returnable
C) closed-loop
D) turnaround
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
33) A document typically encountered in the revenue cycle that is both an output document and a source document is the
A) sales invoice.
B) customer purchase order.
C) sales order.
D) packing slip.
Answer:
Page Ref: 349
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
34) A ________ system prepares and mails monthly statements to customers throughout the entire month, instead of just at the end of the month.
A) continuous
B) open-invoice
C) cycle billing
D) balance forward
Answer:
Page Ref: 351
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
35) The accounts receivable department must know when customers pay their invoices, yet segregation of duties controls dictate that the collection and recording functions be kept separate from each other. What is a solution to this potential internal control problem?
A) Have customers send a remittance advice with their payment.
B) Have mailroom personnel prepare a remittance list which can be forwarded to accounts receivable.
C) Establish a lockbox arrangement with a bank.
D) all of the above
Answer:
Page Ref: 353-354
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
36) The benefits of a lockbox arrangement with a bank are maximized when
A) the bank is located nearby to the company, so remittance advices can be delivered to the company every day.
B) several banks around the country are used, in order to minimize the time payments spend in the mail.
C) an arrangement is made with only one bank, so all remittance advices can be batched for processing.
D) the bank deposits the payments and accesses the customer's information system to record the payments.
Answer:
Page Ref: 354
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
37) An arrangement where a bank receives customer payments through the postal system, scans the remittance advices, and transmits payment data to the business electronically is known as
A) e-commerce.
B) an electronic lockbox.
C) electronic funds transfer (EFT).
D) electronic data interchange (EDI).
Answer:
Page Ref: 354
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
38) Customers that send their payments electronically directly to the company's bank are using
A) electronic data interchange (EDI).
B) electronic funds transfer (EFT).
C) procurement cards.
D) an electronic lockbox.
Answer:
Page Ref: 354
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
39) A way to incorporate the advantages of Electronic Data Interchange with the Electronic Funds Transfer is
A) Financial Electronic Data Interchange.
B) e-commerce.
C) to use procurement cards.
D) an electronic lockbox.
Answer:
Page Ref: 354
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
40) Key differences exist when an integrated Enterprise Resource Planning system (ERP) replaces an existing AIS or legacy system. For example, ________ are more accurate and timely, enabling sales order entry staff to provide customers more accurate information about delivery dates.
A) inventory records
B) cash receipts
C) credit approval decisions
D) exception reports
Answer:
Page Ref: 342
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
41) When an ERP is used, it is assumed that there will be increases in efficiency and the effectiveness of the activities related to the revenue cycle. However, what must be in place and functioning well to fully realize these benefits?
A) an effective marketing staff
B) all the components of the expenditure cycle
C) adequate controls
D) adequate system flowchart documentation
Answer:
Page Ref: 335
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
42) The activities involved in soliciting and processing customer orders within the revenue cycle are known as the ________.
A) sales order entry process
B) shipping order process
C) revenue process
D) marketing process
Answer:
Page Ref: 337
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
43) To ensure proper segregation of duties, only the ________ has authority to issue credit memos.
A) accounts receivable supervisor
B) controller
C) credit manager
D) cashier
Answer:
Page Ref: 352
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
44) It has been discovered that credit sales have been made to customers with a poor credit rating. If this continues, the company will face increasing uncollectible receivables and losses due to bad debts. Separation of duties between ________ and ________ should help resolve the problem.
A) shipping; billing duties
B) credit approval; marketing
C) billing; credit approval
D) marketing; accounts receivable
Answer:
Page Ref: 340
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
45) Consider the following revenue cycle scenario: The company has been exposed to customer dissatisfaction and the suggested control procedure to be implemented is to install and use bar-code scanners. What is the threat?
A) The company may be shipping the wrong merchandise.
B) The company may be shipping the wrong quantities of merchandise.
C) The company may be shipping orders to the wrong address.
D) All of the above threats may apply to this scenario.
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
46) Which of the following would be the least effective control to minimize the loss of inventory?
A) Secure the storage location of inventory.
B) Release inventory only with proper documentation.
C) Periodically back up all perpetual inventory records.
D) Reconcile the physical counts with and perpetual records.
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
47) Separating the shipping and billing functions is designed to reduce the threat of
A) failure to bill customers.
B) billing customers for wrong quantities.
C) billing customers before merchandise has been shipped.
D) shipping the wrong merchandise.
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
48) All of the following edit checks for online editing of accounts receivable transactions would probably be included except
A) validity checks on customer ID and invoice numbers.
B) check digit verification on the amount of the sale.
C) closed loop verification on the customer ID.
D) field checks on the values in dollar fields.
Answer:
Page Ref: 352
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
49) When a proper segregation of duties exists in the area of handling cash receipts, the ________, who reports to the ________, actually handles the cash and is not the same person who posts cash receipts to customer accounts.
A) cashier; treasurer
B) cashier; controller
C) accountant; treasurer
D) accountant; controller
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
50) In a revenue cycle with proper controls, the ________ who reports to the ________, is not involved in any cash handling activities.
A) accounts receivable clerk; treasurer
B) accounts receivable clerk; controller
C) cashier; controller
D) cashier; treasurer
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
51) A serious exposure in the revenue cycle is loss of assets. What is the related threat and applicable control procedure that address this exposure?
A) shipping errors; reconciliation of sales order with picking ticket and packing slip
B) theft of cash; segregation of duties and minimization of cash handling
C) making sales that turn out to be uncollectible; force sales people to make collection calls on customers with past due balances
D) poor performance; preparation and review of performance reports
Answer:
Page Ref: 337
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
52) Which of the following duties could be performed by the same individual and not violate segregation of duty controls?
A) handling cash and posting to customer accounts
B) issuing credit memos and maintaining customer accounts
C) handling cash and authorizing credit memos
D) handling cash receipts and mailing vendor payments
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
53) To prevent the loss of valuable data in the revenue cycle, internal file labels can be used to
A) keep competitors from accessing files.
B) record off-site storage locations.
C) organize the on-site physical storage site.
D) reduce the possibility of erasing important files.
Answer:
Page Ref: 277, 335
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
54) The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order online from Sad Clown Pajamas. He ordered 100 one-size fits all pajama bottoms, but when he ordered 1000 one-size fits all pajama tops, the following error message popped up: "Did you mean to enter a quantity of 1000 for your order?" This message is the result of a
A) reasonableness test.
B) validity check.
C) limit check.
D) closed-loop verification.
Answer:
Page Ref: 339
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55) The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order online from Sad Clown Pajamas. He entered all the items and quantities, completed the checkout and payment process, but the following error message popped up when he tried to exit the site: "Please enter your email address." This message is likely the result of a
A) customer relationship management software application.
B) validity check.
C) completeness test.
D) closed-loop verification.
Answer:
Page Ref: 339
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
56) Sad Clown Pajamas is an Internet-based wholesaler. Customers enter their orders online. The manager of Callow Youth Clothing was entering an order when the following error message popped up: "Your total order exceeds your available credit. A Credit Department representative will contact you within 24 hours." This message is the result of a
A) validity check.
B) reasonableness test.
C) limit check.
D) sign check.
Answer:
Page Ref: 340
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
57) In Petaluma, California, electric power is provided to consumers by the Power To The People Electrical Company, a local co-op. Each month PTTP mails bills to 70,000 households and then processes payments as they are received. The customers are provided with a remittance advice, which is a
A) warning that failure to pay by the due date will result in a late charge.
B) confirmation of the firm's privacy policy.
C) turnaround document.
D) bill.
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
58) Laz Chance wears roller blades and headphones when he is at work at the Squishy Things Toy Company. He is a product packer. The headphones give him computer-generated instructions so he knows the location of each item and quantity that should be included in the order. These instructions are the equivalent of a
A) picking ticket.
B) bill of lading.
C) packing slip.
D) sales order.
Answer:
Page Ref: 342
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
59) The shipping department at Squishy Things Toy Company follows policies that determine which carrier will deliver orders according to the size, weight, and destination of the shipment. It maintains standing agreements with shippers that specify legal responsibility for the shipment while it is in transit. The terms of the agreements are documented on
A) picking tickets.
B) bills of lading.
C) packing slips.
D) RFID tags.
Answer:
Page Ref: 345
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
60) Sad Clown Pajamas is an Internet-based wholesaler. The manager of Callow Youth Clothing received an order from Sad Clown and found that the wrong product had been shipped. He repackaged the order and sent it back for a refund. When Sad Clown Pajamas received the returned product, they mailed a ______ to Callow Youth Clothing's manager.
A) packing slip
B) letter requesting an explanation
C) remittance advice
D) credit memo
Answer:
Page Ref: 352
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
61) A customer service manager at Sad Clown Pajamas, Bob, received a call from the manager at Callow Youth Clothing, who informed Bob that Callow was entering bankruptcy liquidation and it was unlikely that they would be able to pay the outstanding balance on their account. Bob should
A) document the phone conversation and forward it to the billing department manager.
B) prepare a credit memo.
C) approve a credit memo.
D) document the phone conversation and forward it to the credit department manager.
Answer:
Page Ref: 352
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
62) Because it is the most fungible of all assets, the management of cash has always been the most difficult of all control issues. The most important of cash controls is
A) minimization of cash handling.
B) lockbox arrangements.
C) segregation of duties.
D) frequent reconciliation of records.
Answer:
Page Ref: 355
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
63) A sales clerk at an electronics store scanned the bar code for a low cost set of headphones and then substituted a high cost set of headphones for his friend, who paid the lower price. Which of the following controls would best help to prevent this sort of fraud?
A) Use of RFID tags
B) Physical inventory count
C) Segregation of duties
D) Limited physical access to bar codes
Answer:
Page Ref: 342
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
64) The accounts receivable management method typically used by credit card companies is
A) balance forward.
B) postbilling.
C) monthly statement.
D) open-invoice.
Answer:
Page Ref: 351
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
65) The accounts receivable clerk destroys all invoices for sales made to family and friends and does not record the sales in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers. The family and friends usually give the clerk cash as a"thank you". Which procedure will not prevent or detect this fraud?
A) Send monthly statements to all customers with balances owed.
B) Reconcile sales invoices in the billing department to the total debits to accounts receivable subsidiary ledgers.
C) Sequentially prenumber all invoices and prepare a sequence check at the end of each day.
D) Reconcile the accounts receivable control account to the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.
Answer:
Page Ref: 350
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
66) Which of the following poses an internal control problem?
A) Physical inspection of inventory quantity and condition is outsourced to a firm that specializes in this service.
B) Products are released from inventory after a warehouse employee and a shipping clerk both sign the pick list.
C) Sales representatives have authority to increase customers' credit limits in $1,000 increments.
D) When customer payments are received in the mail, checks are sent to the cashier's office and remittance advices are sent to the accounts receivable department.
Answer:
Page Ref: 340
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
67) For sales returns, the least effective control to prevent fraudulent processing of a credit memo is to
A) reconcile total of credit memos to total debits posted to customers' subsidiary ledgers.
B) require approval for each credit memo by the credit manager.
C) sequentially prenumber all credit memos and perform a sequence check at the end of each day.
D) match each credit memo with a receiving report.
Answer:
Page Ref: 352
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
68) Describe the basic revenue cycle activities.
69) Explain how validity checks, completeness tests and reasonableness tests can be implemented to ensure accuracy of customer orders.
70) Define and describe benefits of a CRM system.
71) How can Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) facilitate the billing and accounts receivable process?
72) Describe typical credit approval procedures.
73) Describe the two methods to manage accounts receivable.
74) Describe cycle billing and identify how an organization might benefit by using cycle billing.
75) Failure to collect cash on credit sales is a threat in the revenue cycle. What controls can be used to help neutralize this threat?
76) Discuss ways in which technology can be used to streamline cash collections.
77) Describe four threats in the revenue cycle and identify appropriate controls for each threat.
78) Discuss the general control issue of the loss of data, as it relates to the revenue cycle.
79) Explain how to effectively segregate duties in the sales order activity.
80) Discuss the revenue cycle threat of stockouts, carrying costs, and markdowns.
81) You have been hired by a catalog company to computerize its sales order entry process. Approximately 70% of all orders are received over the telephone by a sales person. The other 30% of orders are received by a sales person through mail or fax. The catalog company wants the phone orders processed real-time. The mail and fax orders will be processed in batches of 50 orders. The following attributes are collected for every sales order:
Customer number (if the order is from a new customer, a new number needs to be assigned)
Customer name
Address
Payment method (credit card for phone and fax orders and check for mailed orders)
Credit card number and expiration date
Items ordered and quantity of each
Unit price of each item ordered
Identify and describe at least ten specific control policies and procedures you will implement for the sales order process. Be very specific describing the controls and number each new control you suggest.
Accounting Information Systems, 12e (Romney/Steinbart)
Chapter 13 The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash Disbursements
1) The Squishy Things Toy Company was established in 1948. It recently signed a large contract with a chain of retail toy stores. As a condition of the contract, the Squishy will be required to track and forecast product sales by linking in to the chain's sales database. Squishy will then be responsible for shipping products to the chain's regional warehouses as needed. The relationship between Squishy and the chain is an example of
A) vendor-managed inventory.
B) sales force automation.
C) electronic data interchange.
D) optical character recognition.
Answer:
Page Ref: 382
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
2) Requiring all packing slips be reconciled to purchase orders before accepting a delivery of inventory would be most likely to prevent which of the following situations?
A) A supplier delivers more inventory than ordered at the end of the year and sends an invoice for the total quantity delivered.
B) An employee mails a fake invoice to the company, which is then paid.
C) The inventory records are incorrectly updated when a receiving department employee enters the wrong product number on the receiving report.
D) Receiving department employees steal inventory and then claim the inventory was received and delivered to the warehouse.
Answer:
Page Ref: 386
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3) Comparing quantities on a vendor invoice to quantities on the receiving report would not prevent or detect which of the following situations?
A) Receiving and accepting inventory not ordered
B) Theft of inventory by receiving department employees
C) Update of wrong inventory items due to data entry error
D) Order for an excessive quantity of inventory
Answer:
Page Ref: 386
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4) Which of the following would probably be the least effective control to mitigate the risk of paying an invoice payable to a phony vendor for inventory purchases, mailed to the company by an employee attempting to commit fraud?
A) Only pay from original invoices.
B) Cancel all invoices and supporting documentation when paid.
C) Strict access and authorization controls for the approved vendor master file.
D) Require three-way match for all inventory purchase invoices.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5) Which of the following would be the least effective control to prevent paying the same vendor invoice twice?
A) Allow only the accounts payable department to authorize payment for vendor invoices and allow only the cash disbursements department to cut and mail checks to vendors.
B) Only pay from original invoices.
C) Cancel each document in the voucher package once the check is prepared and mailed.
D) Only pay vendor invoices that have been matched and reconciled to a purchase order and a receiving report.
Answer:
Page Ref: 391
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6) To accomplish the objectives set forth in the expenditure cycle, a number of key management decisions must be addressed. Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the expenditure cycle?
A) How can cash payments to vendors be managed to maximize cash flow?
B) What is the optimal level of inventory and supplies to carry on hand?
C) Where should inventories and supplies be held?
D) What are the optimal prices for each product or service?
Answer:
Page Ref: 372
Objective: Learning Objective 2
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
7) One of the basic activities in the expenditure cycle is the receiving and storage of goods, supplies, and services. What is the counterpart of this activity in the revenue cycle?
A) sales order entry process
B) shipping function
C) cash collection activity
D) cash payments activity
Answer:
Page Ref: 373
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8) The traditional approach to inventory management to ensure sufficient quantity on hand to maintain production is known as
A) safety stock.
B) just-in-time production.
C) economic order quantity.
D) optimal inventory quantity.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
9) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) includes several variables that must be taken into consideration when calculating the optimal order size. One variable, the costs associated with holding inventory, is referred to as
A) ordering costs.
B) carrying costs.
C) the reorder point.
D) stockout costs.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
10) The need to place an order for inventory is specified by the
A) company inventory policies.
B) economic order quantity.
C) stockout point.
D) reorder point.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
11) When goods are being ordered from a vendor, which electronic files are either read or updated?
A) inventory, vendors, and accounts payable
B) vendors and accounts payable
C) open purchase orders and accounts payable
D) inventory, vendors, and open purchase orders
Answer:
Page Ref: 374
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
12) What is a key feature of materials requirements planning (MRP)?
A) minimize or entirely eliminate carrying and stockout costs
B) reduce required inventory levels by scheduling production rather than estimating needs
C) determine the optimal reorder point
D) determine the optimal order size
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
13) Materials requirements planning (MRP)
A) reduces the uncertainty about when materials are needed, thereby reducing the need to carry large levels of inventory.
B) is able to compute exactly the cost of purchasing by taking into account all costs associated with inventory carrying.
C) requires vendors to deliver inventory to the production site exactly when needed and in the correct quantities.
D) None of the above are correct.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
14) The inventory management approach that attempts to minimize, if not eliminate, carrying and stockout costs is
A) materials requirements planning.
B) economic order quantity.
C) just-in-time inventory.
D) evaluated receipt settlement.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Difficult
AACSB: Analytic
15) What aspect below best characterizes a Just-In-Time (JIT) inventory system?
A) frequent deliveries of smaller quantities of items to the work centers
B) frequent deliveries of large quantities to be held at the work centers
C) less frequent deliveries of large quantities of goods to central receiving
D) infrequent bulk deliveries of items directly to work centers
Answer:
Page Ref: 378-379
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
16) What is the key difference between the MRP and JIT inventory management approaches?
A) Only JIT reduces costs and improves efficiency.
B) MRP is especially useful for products such as fashion apparel.
C) JIT is more effectively used with products that have predictable patterns of demand.
D) MRP schedules production to meet estimated sales needs; JIT schedules production to meet customer demands.
Answer:
Page Ref: 379
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
17) MRP will be a preferred method over JIT when the
A) demand for inventory is fairly predictable.
B) demand for inventory is mostly unpredictable.
C) product has a short life cycle.
D) MRP is always a preferred method over JIT.
Answer:
Page Ref: 379
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
18) A key decision in ordering is selecting a suitable vendor. Which of the following would not be a major criterion in vendor selection?
A) prices of goods
B) quality of goods
C) credit rating of the vendor
D) ability to deliver on time
Answer:
Page Ref: 380
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
19) Once a vendor is selected for a product, the vendor's identity is recorded in the
A) purchase requisition transaction file.
B) purchase requisition master file.
C) inventory transaction file.
D) inventory master file.
Answer:
Page Ref: 381
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
20) A purchase order is
A) a document formally requesting a vendor to sell a certain product at a certain price.
B) a request for delivery of certain items and quantities.
C) a contract between the buyer and vendor once accepted by the vendor.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer:
Page Ref: 381
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
21) Stepanek Sales and Service provides free coffee to employees. Stepanek arranged with Ingebrigtson's Joe to deliver as many coffee packages, sugar, creamer, and filters as needed each week. Ingebrigtson's sends a monthly invoice for Stepanek to pay. This arrangement is best described as a
A) blanket purchase order.
B) set purchase order.
C) fixed purchase order.
D) standard purchase order.
Answer:
Page Ref: 381
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
22) A major cost in the purchasing function is the number of purchase orders processed. One technique that may reduce purchasing-related expenses is to have suppliers compete with each other to meet demand at the lowest price. This name of this technique is
A) an EDI auction.
B) a trading exchange.
C) a reverse auction.
D) a supplier consortium.
Answer:
Page Ref: 382
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
23) One of the major responsibilities of the receiving department is
A) deciding if the delivery should be accepted.
B) verifying any purchase discounts for the delivery.
C) deciding on the location where the delivery will be stored until used.
D) updating inventory subsidiary ledgers.
Answer:
Page Ref: 384
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
24) Which of the following is generally not shown on a receiving report?
A) price of the items
B) quantity of the items
C) purchase order number
D) counted and inspected by
Answer:
Page Ref: 384
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
25) A receiving clerk notes that a delivery of 10 units has been received, but the purchase order specified 12 units. A debit memo will need to be prepared to adjust for the difference between the quantity ordered and received. Who should prepare this document?
A) the receiving clerk
B) the controller
C) the vendor
D) the purchasing department manager
Answer:
Page Ref: 385
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
26) Identify in which of the following scenarios a company could adjust the balance due the vendor by issuing a debit memo.
A) quantity different from that ordered
B) damage to the goods
C) goods that fail inspection for quality
D) All of the above are possible scenarios.
Answer:
Page Ref: 385
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
27) What is one of the best ways to improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the receipt and storage of ordered items?
A) requiring all suppliers to have the carrier verify quantities and item numbers before shipment
B) requiring all suppliers to include RFID tags on their items
C) requiring all suppliers to use EDI to expedite the receiving department function
D) requiring all delivery trucks to have satellite data terminals to expedite the receiving department function
Answer:
Page Ref: 385
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
28) Vendor invoices are approved by the ________, which reports to the ________.
A) purchasing department; controller
B) accounts payable department; treasurer
C) purchasing department; treasurer
D) accounts payable department; controller
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
29) The disbursement voucher and supporting documents are sent to the ________ for payment prior to the due date.
A) cashier
B) treasurer
C) controller
D) accounts payable department
Answer:
Page Ref: 390
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
30) A(n) ________ system posts an approved invoice to the vendor account and stores it in an open invoice file until payment is made by check.
A) nonvoucher
B) voucher
C) cycle
D) evaluated receipt settlement
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
31) A disbursement voucher contains
A) a list of outstanding invoices.
B) the net payment amount after deducting applicable discounts and allowances.
C) the general ledger accounts to be debited.
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
32) One objective of accounts payable is to authorize payment only for goods or services actually ordered and received. The best way to process supplier invoices is to use
A) electronic funds transfer for small, occasional purchases from suppliers.
B) a nonvoucher system.
C) EDI for all small, occasional purchases from suppliers.
D) a disbursement voucher system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
33) What is not an advantage of using disbursement vouchers?
A) Disbursement vouchers reduce the number of checks written.
B) Disbursement vouchers can be prenumbered which simplifies the tracking of all payables.
C) Disbursement vouchers facilitate separating the time of invoice approval from the time of invoice payment.
D) There are no disadvantages to using disbursement vouchers.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
34) Which of the following is not an advantage of a voucher system?
A) Several invoices may be included on one voucher, reducing the number of checks.
B) Disbursement vouchers may be pre-numbered and tracked through the system.
C) The time of voucher approval and payment can be kept separate.
D) It is a less expensive and easier system to administer than other systems.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
35) Duties in the expenditure cycle should be properly segregated to promote internal control. This means that the authorization function is performed by ________, the recording function is performed by ________, and cash handling is performed by the ________.
A) accounts payable; purchasing; cashier
B) purchasing; accounts payable; cashier
C) purchasing; cashier; accounts payable
D) purchasing; accounts payable; treasurer
Answer:
Page Ref: 375
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
36) A voucher package should include
A) a purchase requisition, vendor invoice, and receiving report.
B) a purchase order, vendor invoice, and receiving report.
C) a purchase requisition, purchase order, and receiving report.
D) a bill of lading and vendor invoice.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
37) Evaluated receipt settlement (ERS) approves payment of vendor invoices after reconciling the purchase order and the
A) vendor invoice.
B) sales invoice.
C) receiving report.
D) disbursement voucher.
Answer:
Page Ref: 388
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
38) All of the following are opportunities to improve efficiency of the accounts payable function except
A) use blanket purchase orders.
B) convert a manual AIS system to EDI and EFT.
C) streamline noninventory purchases.
D) use evaluated receipt settlement.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387-388
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
39) When purchasing miscellaneous supplies, companies can reduce costs, improve efficiency, and combat employee fraud by
A) using procurement cards.
B) implementing a JIT inventory system.
C) requiring employees to personally purchase items then reimbursing employees at the end of each month.
D) paying amounts out of petty cash.
Answer:
Page Ref: 389
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
40) If available, a 1% discount for payment within 10 days instead of 30 days represents an approximate savings of ________ % annually.
A) 1
B) 12
C) 18
D) 36
Answer:
Page Ref: 390
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
41) What is the best control to mitigate the threat of paying prices that are too high for goods ordered?
A) require the receiving department to verify the existence of a valid purchase order
B) use only approved suppliers and solicit competitive bids
C) only pay invoices that are supported by the original voucher package
D) use bar-code technology to eliminate data entry errors
Answer:
Page Ref: 382
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
42) What is probably the most effective control for the prevention of kickbacks to purchasing agents?
A) purchasing from approved vendors
B) diligent supervision in the purchasing department
C) a corporate policy to prohibit purchasing agents from accepting kickbacks
D) reviews of vendor performance
Answer:
Page Ref: 383
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
43) One of the threats associated with the process and activity of receiving and storing goods is
A) errors in counting.
B) kickbacks.
C) requests for unnecessary items.
D) errors in vendor invoices.
Answer:
Page Ref: 385
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
44) What is the best way to prevent the acceptance of unordered goods?
A) Order only from approved vendors.
B) Match the packing slip to a purchase order before accepting delivery.
C) Enforce an appropriate conflict of interest policy in place.
D) Require specific authorization from the purchasing manager before accepting any goods.
Answer:
Page Ref: 386
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
45) Which of the following is not a common control for ensuring inventory is secure and inventory counts are accurate?
A) control of physical access to the inventory storage areas
B) transfers of inventory with proper documentation
C) sending "blind" copies of purchase orders to inventory control for data entry
D) making physical counts of inventory at least once per year
Answer:
Page Ref: 376
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
46) Double-checking the accuracy of an invoice is a control that can help to neutralize a threat in the expenditure cycle. What activity would specifically be associated with this control?
A) ordering goods
B) receiving and storing goods
C) paying for goods and services
D) requesting goods be ordered
Answer:
Page Ref: 389
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
47) What control would best mitigate the threat of paying an invoice twice?
A) never authorize payment of a photocopy of an invoice
B) double-check mathematical accuracy of invoices
C) approval of purchase orders
D) maintaining adequate perpetual inventory records
Answer:
Page Ref: 391
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
48) Which control would best prevent payments made to fictitious vendors?
A) Allow payments only to approved vendors.
B) Restrict access to any payment or approval documents.
C) Have an independent bank reconciliation.
D) Make sure all documents are in order before approving payments.
Answer:
Page Ref: 392
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
49) In the expenditure cycle, good control dictates that expenditures should be paid by check. This may not be feasible when minor purchases are made. To facilitate quick payment for minor purchases, a(n) ________ should be set up and maintained using ________.
A) special bank account; disbursement vouchers
B) imprest fund; vouchers
C) cash box; small denomination bills
D) petty cash fund; procurement cards
Answer:
Page Ref: 392
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
50) A surprise count of an imprest petty cash fund should find the total of ________ equal to the amount authorized for the fund.
A) cash and credit memos
B) cash and vouchers
C) cash
D) cash and checks
Answer:
Page Ref: 392
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
51) What control should be put in place that assigns responsibility for EFT payments made to vendors?
A) Encrypt all EFT transmissions.
B) Time stamp all EFT transactions.
C) Establish a control group to monitor EFT transactions for validity and accuracy.
D) Number all EFT transactions.
Answer:
Page Ref: 391
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
52) Which of the following threats is not specific to the purchase requisition process of the expenditure cycle?
A) stockouts
B) purchasing from unauthorized vendors
C) requisitioning goods not needed
D) All of the above are threats in the purchase requisition process.
Answer:
Page Ref: 380
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
53) There is a symmetrical interdependence between a firm's expenditure cycle and its suppliers'
A) production cycle.
B) revenue cycle.
C) expenditure cycle.
D) general ledger and reporting system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 372
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54) The Squishy Things Toy Company was established in 1948. It recently signed a large contract with a chain of retail toy stores. As a condition of the contract, the Squishy will be required to track and forecast product sales by linking in to the chain's sales database. Squishy will then be responsible for shipping products to the chain's regional warehouses as needed. The technology that is used for communication between Squishy and the chain is
A) vendor-managed inventory.
B) sales force automation.
C) electronic data interchange.
D) optical character recognition.
Answer:
Page Ref: 372
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
55) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on ensuring that the amounts purchased minimize these costs, will employ
A) a just-in-time inventory system.
B) the economic order quantity.
C) a reorder point.
D) materials requirements planning.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
56) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on ensuring that orders are placed with sufficient lead time to prevent stockouts, will employ
A) a just-in-time inventory system.
B) the economic order quantity.
C) a reorder point.
D) materials requirements planning.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
57) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on forecasting demand for Sad Clown's products, will employ
A) a just-in-time inventory system.
B) the economic order quantity.
C) a reorder point.
D) materials requirements planning.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58) The management at Sad Clown Pajamas, an Internet-based wholesaler, is considering a new inventory control system. The current system is inadequate because it results in stockouts that interrupt production and excess stocks of some materials that result in markdowns and high carrying costs. The new system, which will focus on reducing or completely eliminating carrying costs, will employ
A) a just-in-time inventory system.
B) the economic order quantity.
C) a reorder point.
D) materials requirements planning.
Answer:
Page Ref: 378
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he proudly announced that he had negotiated a(n) ________ with a client that defined a long-term commitment to buy components from Folding Squid.
A) purchase order
B) blanket purchase order
C) evaluated receipt settlement
D) voucher
Answer:
Page Ref: 381
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
60) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he proudly announced that he had received a ________ from a client to buy a large quantity of components from Folding Squid.
A) purchase order
B) blanket purchase order
C) voucher
D) purchase requisition
Answer:
Page Ref: 381
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
61) Bob Chum is the sales manager at Folding Squid Technologies. At lunch with the company CEO, he complained that a recent shipment from a vendor had been unsatisfactory and so had to be returned. That required the purchasing manager to send a ________ to the supplier.
A) purchase order
B) blanket purchase order
C) receiving report
D) debit memo
Answer:
Page Ref: 385
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
62) To minimize the number of checks that need to be written to pay vendor invoices a company should use a
A) voucher system.
B) just-in-time inventory system.
C) nonvoucher system.
D) evaluated receipt settlement system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
63) Evaluated receipt settlement increases efficiency by
A) eliminating the need for receiving reports.
B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices.
C) eliminating the need for purchase orders.
D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks.
Answer:
Page Ref: 388
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
64) In the expenditure cycle, Financial Electronic Data Interchange (FEDI) increases efficiency by
A) eliminating the need for receiving reports.
B) eliminating the need for vendor invoices.
C) eliminating the need for purchase orders.
D) eliminating the need to prepare and mail checks.
Answer:
Page Ref: 390
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Easy
AACSB: Analytic
65) Procurement cards differ from corporate credit cards in which of the following ways?
A) Credit limits can be set for procurement cards, but not corporate credit cards.
B) Credit cards can be used to make purchases without an explicit sign off by supervisors, but procurement cards require a sign off.
C) Procurement cards can only be used with approved vendors, but credit cards can be used anywhere.
D) Procurement card invoices are sent separately for each card, whereas corporate credit cards are consolidated into a single invoice.
Answer:
Page Ref: 389
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
66) The purchasing manager at Folding Squid Technologies has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. He also reviews receiving reports, approves or corrects them, and authorizes the cashier to pay vendor invoices. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?
A) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct.
B) Accounts payable should reconcile purchase orders, receiving reports, and invoices.
C) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by accounts receivable and then cancelled when paid.
D) Controls are adequate under the current system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
67) The purchasing manager at Folding Squid Technologies has responsibility for reviewing and authorizing purchase orders. Receiving reports are prepared by shipping and receiving based on the relevant purchase order(s). Purchase orders, receiving reports, and vendor invoices are reconciled by accounts payable, which authorizes payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?
A) Vendor invoices should be reviewed by the purchasing manager to ensure that they are correct.
B) Accounts payable should authorize purchase orders.
C) Receiving reports should be reviewed and corrected by the purchasing manager.
D) Controls are adequate under the current system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
68) The receiving clerk at Folding Squid Technologies examines incoming shipments and reconciles their contents with the relevant purchase orders. A receiving report is then sent to accounts receivable and the vendor's invoice is approved for payment. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?
A) The invoice should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled.
B) Accounts payable should reconcile the purchase order and the receiving report.
C) Invoices, purchase orders, and receiving reports should be reconciled by the receiving clerk.
D) Controls are adequate under the current system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
69) The receiving clerk at Folding Squid Technologies examines incoming shipments and checks their purchase order numbers. A receiving report is then sent to accounts payable, where it is reconciled with the relevant purchase orders and invoices and payment is authorized. Which of the following would correct control weaknesses, if any, related to these activities?
A) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the shipping clerk after the purchase order and receiving report are reconciled.
B) Vendor invoices should be approved for payment by the purchasing manager.
C) Purchase orders and receiving reports should be reconciled by the purchasing manager.
D) Controls are adequate under the current system.
Answer:
Page Ref: 387
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Analytic
70) Which of the controls below would be least effective to prevent ordering goods at higher than market prices?
A) Variance analysis of actual expenses to budgeted expenses
B) For high-dollar goods, solicit competitive bids from possible vendors
C) Only place orders with vendors on an approved vendor list
D) Frequent review of, and update to, vendor price lists stored in the AIS
Answer:
Page Ref: 382
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
71) The document below would be known as what by Alpha Omega Electronics?
A) Receiving report
B) Purchase order
C) Purchase requisition
D) Packing slip
Answer:
Page Ref: 384
Objective: Learning Objective 1
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
72) Which of the following would be the best control to prevent receiving department employees from stealing inventory and claiming the ordered quantity wasn't received from the vendor?
A) Reconcile quantity on packing slip to physical count when accepting delivery.
B) Restrict physical access to the receiving area.
C) Require all deliveries be made at the receiving area.
D) Require dual signatures on the move ticket when receiving delivers the inventory to the warehouse.
Answer:
Page Ref: 386
Objective: Learning Objective 3
Difficulty : Moderate
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
73) Define and describe the EOQ approach to inventory management.
74) Discuss the differences between EOQ, MRP, and JIT.
75) a) What is the major cost driver in the purchasing function? b) Describe how information technology can be used to control this cost driver.
76) Explain what is meant by the expenditure cycle as a "mirror image" of the revenue cycle.
77) Identify possible problems associated with receiving goods and appropriate actions in response to the problems.
78) How can information technology be used to improve the vendor invoice approval process?
79) Under what conditions is MRP more suitable than JIT and vice versa?
80) In the expenditure cycle, the majority of payments made are by check. What are some control issues related to payment of vendors by check?
81) Identify ten threats and applicable control procedures in the expenditure cycle.
82) What types of decision-making and strategic information should the AIS provide in the expenditure cycle?
83) How can using RFID tags or bar codes on goods or products provide significant benefit in the expenditure cycle?
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Final Contract
Overview
Provide an overview of your concentration, including several fundamental questions or issues that will help frame your studies. Describe the relevant areas of study.
Film: How can I better capture the human experience through narrative images? How can I contribute to group projects in a way that helps support the story. I want to take the analogue video class at hampshire and at least one semester of computer animation.
Creative Writing: I am working towards my goal of writing a transgender youth/young adult fiction-fantasy novel. I want to write a book that shows that a non-binary character can be the hero. I hope to take at least two more semesters of creative writing classes.
Marine Biology: I am trying to acquire a 5 College Marine & Coastal Sciences Certificate. I am most interested in cuttlefish studies and pursuing how to better conserve different cuttlefish species. In addition I would like to get dirty with hands-on wetlands restoration work. Hopefully, I will be able to go abroad and interact with some cuddly cephalopods!
Goals
Write your goals. What do you want to know, understand, and be able to do by the end of Division II?
Write a book, swim with cuttlefish, understand how to do simple animations, continue making films, produce maple syrup, etc. Honestly I am trying to pursue my interests and understand my passions better, so that I will be more prepared when figuring out what my DIV III will be. I ned to know how to scuba dive, understand how to use different Computer Generated Information editing programs including after effects, fully understand the color wheel in adobe premier, learn how to weld, go to glass collective and make a glass cuttlefish, become better at self-editing my writing, lessen my procrastination, and increase my motivational drive. I have so many questions and want to keep asking more in everything I do, including how can I help those around me better? I want to get an internship this summer to obtain lab hours for the Marine & Coastal Science Certificate.
Division II Plan
How will you achieve your goals and answer your questions? Describe the sequence of courses learning activities and possibly internships, independent work, and field study that will shape your Division II. (Some advisors recommend writing a semester-by-semester plan).
I am hopefully going to do summer internships and go on a study abroad on top of volunteer work. I hope to take four classes next semester and get my scuba liscence for investigating cuttlefish in their natural habitats. I hope to take a hands-on lab-filled marine biology class next fall to aqcuire my lab hours and mark off another marine science class towards my certificate. I plan on taking the summer course for intro to oceanography over the summer so I will only need to take one more class to complete the requirements. As for my hampshire classes I hope to get more involved with film and photo including using the green screen facilities in the media basement for future projects. I am going to take another film class next fall and take advantage of hampshire courses where I can do final film projects. As for creative writing, I hope to use this summer as a platform to really get in multiple chapters of the transgender youth fantasy novel I am working on.
Multiple Cultural Perspectives
How do you plan to engage with multiple cultural perspectives in Div II? View a complete description of this requirement.
I hope to go on a study abroad to further study cuttlefish and work with whatever culture I find myself surrounded by in my adventures. In addition I plan on taking queer feelings, another buddhism course, and hopefully middle eastern economics. If I am lucky I will be in an location where english is not the first language.
Community Engagement
Read more and find the student guidelines and forms.
The list of activities below are those you wish to use as part of your Division II contract to satisfy the CEL-2 requirement.
Rugby Ruffian(Julie LeGrand , 135 hours)
Queer Community Alliance(Emily Rimmer , 25 hours)
Basano Del Grappa Internship(Dr. Tracy Anne Essoglou , 85 hours)
Current and Previous Coursework
Courses from the list below may be included in Division II with the approval of your Division II committee.
IncludeTermCourse
2016S
HACU-0209
Video I: Non-Conforming PractiLucretia Knapp
Complete
2016S
IA-0244
The Fictional HousePeter Smith
Complete
2016S
IA-0269
Sequential Imagery IIThomas Haxo
Complete
2015F
IA-0258
Point of View for FictionNathalie Arnold
Complete
2015F5C-CRSConservation BiologyAmherstC+ (4 cred)
2015F5C-CRSFish Consrvatn & MgtUMassC (3 cred)
2015F
OPRA-0132
Outdoor Adventure Samp.Karen Warren
Complete
2015S
HACU-0238
Myths of AmericaRachel Rubinstein
Complete
2015S
CSI-0143
Buddhism & Society in AsiaSue Darlington
Complete
2015J
JTW-0229
The Art of Hot GlassPatricia Bennett
Complete
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[Event & Scenario] “Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World” START
Part 1.5, start! OSIRIS, who have joined Avalon, are all hyped up in starting activities but what stands before them...? Travel with OSIRIS to America and beat those who get in your way!
Details
▼ Release Date: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00JST ~ onwards
Part 1.5 of the "Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World" will start! Chapter 1 will focus on OSIRIS.
▼ Access Condition
Finish reading the final chapter of each band’s (BLAST, OSIRIS, Fairy April, Cure2tron) Main Scenario Ep.1.
How To Participate
You can access Part 1.5 from the banner on the home screen as long as the condition of clearing the last chapters for Episode 1 of all the bands have been satisfied.
※ Although there is no deadline, you may only receive the Clear Reward once.
How To Play
Get “Flyers” by playing songs from different Areas listed in the Event Page. Choose the Area you want to play in and win the Duel Gig of each stage to proceed to the next stage. The Main Areas will have multiple stages accompanied by event stories. You will then unlock some Free Stages per Main Stage cleared which will be your main source of gaining Flyers after clearing all the Main Areas.
You can exchange the “Flyers” for rewards like limited edition cards via the Shop’s “Item Exchange” section. [more info.]
You can access the event scenarios via the new section, “Episode Of Avalon” from the Stories Tab.
Event Stage Schedule
The Area Stages for "Episode of Avalon #1.5 Voyager of the New World" will be released sequentially from 2017/12/30(Sat) 00:00 JST. The new stages will be released at a schedule:
12/30(Sat) 00:00~・Departure 01/01(Mon) 00:00~・Detour 01/03(Wed) 00:00~・Bandits 01/05(Fri) 00:00~・Submit or Perish 01/07(Sun) 00:00~・Depression 01/09(Tue) 00:00~・Perfection 01/11(Thu) 00:00~・A Long Road 01/13(Sat) 00:00~・Epilogue
New Rival Band Appearance!
EISENROSES (Left to Right, romaji tentative): Alexei, Wolff, Gaia, Sugar, Jive
Past Event Scenario Limited Time Rerun
Scenarios of the events leading up to the scenario for Part 1.5 will have a re-run for a limited time only. Unopened scenarios will be available for reading during the following period:
▼ Duration: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/15 (Mon) 12:59 JST
※ You can access the event scenarios from the "Story" tab → "Event Scenario" but will not be able to receive any reward upon clearing.
The target Event Scenario are as follows:
Advent of the Quattro Virtuoso GIGS ー Dante of the Purgatory
Anniversary GIGS ー Dreamin' (untranslated)
On Board The Merry Christmas GIGS ー Dante is Coming To Town!
Event Reward Card
SR: Ray Cephart [A Journey's Exhilarating Feeling]
Event Strategy-1
Using OSIRIS members' cards into Bands to use for LIVEs will improve overall performance.
Event Strategy-2
A special login bonus will be held!
Make sure to log in from 2017/12/28(Thu) 17:00JST, during the event period to get one (1) 100%+ Stamina Charge a day.
▼ Duration: 2017/12/28 (Thu) 17:00 JST ~ 2018/01/14 (Sun) 23:59 JST
※ Daily bonus cannot be obtained once the day is over. ※ Like normal login bonuses, the daily bonus will reset at 00:00JST every day.
Time-Limited Event Song
“Beyond the Limit” by OSIRIS Lyrics, composition, arrangement: Gouki Ohtsuka
“Voyager of the New World” Limited Rare Gacha (Daily Rotation)
Duration: 2017/12/28(Thu) 17:00JST ~ 2018/01/15(Mon) 12:59JST
Line-up: SSR Sousuke Maki, SSR Kyo Takara, SSR Yoshimune Tokuda, SSR Shelly, SR Yamato Shinonome, SR Miley
※ SR Yamato Shinonome and SR Miley will be available throughout the duration of the gacha.
The gacha can use both Free and Paid Medals
It is possible to pull regular cards other than the Event limited gacha cards.
At least 1 SR or above card is guaranteed for every 10-pull
Signed cards will be discharged at a certain probability. Signs will only appear for SR cards and above and will be treated the same as non-signed, having the same stat and effects. You can admire the sign in various places.
Event limited cards might reappear during future events/campaigns.
“Voyager of the New World”Rare Gacha Schedule
ALL CHARACTERS ・12/28, 1/14, 1/15 SHELLY ・12/29, 1/2, 1/6, 1/10 KYO TAKARA ・12/30, 1/3, 1/7, 1/11 SOUSUKE MAKI ・12/31, 1/4, 1/8, 1/12 YOSHIMUNE TOKUDA ・1/1, 1/5, 1/9, 1/13
※ Please take note that the pick-up date will change at a daily basis
Featured New Cards
SSR Sousuke Maki [tba*] Leader Skill: [COMBO BONUS] Combo Bonus boosted by 25% Main Skill: [Löyly* of Tragedy] 30% chance of activation upon 30 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 30% for 6 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)
※ Despite the trigger and end of the "Other Skill Effectiveness Boost", LIFE dropping to 0 will still result in LIVE failure.
SSR Kyo Takara [Search for a Lost Child] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP] Combo Bonus boosted by 25% Main Skill: [Even the Destination’s Wrong] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 30% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)
※ Despite the trigger and end of the "Other Skill Effectiveness Boost", LIFE dropping to 0 will still result in LIVE failure.
SSR Yoshimune Tokuda [Search for a Lost Child] Leader Skill: [BEAT UP+Fairy*] All Member’s BEAT boosted by 30%. Additional 20% if Fairy April members, other than Yoshimune, makes up the rest of the Band. Main Skill: [Kotatsu of Magic] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting Combo Bonus by 16% for 8 seconds.
SSR Shelly [tba*] Leader Skill: [GROOVE UP+Cure2tron*] All Member’s GROOVE boosted by 30%. Additional 15% if at least 1 Cure2tron member, other than Shelly, in included in the Band. Main Skill: [Kotatsu of Magic] 10% chance of activation upon 15 successful taps, boosting score by 20% for 4 seconds.
SSR Yamato Shinonome [tba*] Leader Skill: [MELODY BONUS+SPIRIT*] All Member’s MELODY boosted by 15% and Spirits gained by 20% Main Skill: [--] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 20% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)
SSR Miley [Dress-up] Leader Skill: [LIFE UP] All Member’s LIFE boosted by 15% Main Skill: [--] 40% chance of activation upon 50 successful taps, boosting others’ skill effectiveness by by 20% for 8 seconds. (When the Skill of the same nature overlaps, only the card with the higher effectiveness will activate.)
※ Cards from this gacha are will have a max level of 90 for SSR and 75 for SR once Break.
You can check the in-game gacha/event page for more info.
*Some Card Names and Skill Names to be added. I’m out of time at the moment.
*Click for Sousuke’s Skill Name.
#news : event#guide : event#band yarouze#banyaro#band yarouze!#Episode of Avalon 1.5 Voyager of the New World#admin : pk5u
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CIS 513 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New
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Chapters 5 Through 8
Chapter 5 - Wireless Personal Area Networks
TRUE/FALSE
1. WPAN technologies are designed to connect devices that are typically up to 10 meters apart.
2. One of the advantages of WPAN technologies is their conservative use of battery power.
3. The first step in the Bluetooth pairing process is the paging procedure.
4. A reduced-function device can only connect to one full-function device on the network.
5. Bluetooth uses a challenge-response strategy for device authentication.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT a likely application for WPAN technologies?
a.
home control systems
c.
industrial control systems
b.
video streaming
d.
security systems
2. Which of the following is true about WPAN standards?
a.
IEEE developed standards for protocols above layer 2
c.
IEEE 802.15.1 is the Bluetooth standard
b.
industry alliances developed specifications for layers 1 and 2
d.
802.16n is the ZigBee standard
3. Which of the following is true about the OSI model and IEEE 802?
a.
the PMD is part of the Data Link layer
c.
the LLC is part of the Physical layer
b.
the PLCP formats data received from the MAC
d.
the MAC layer is responsible for establishing connectivity to the local network
4. Which radio frequency band does Bluetooth use?
a.
2.4 GHz ISM
c.
2.0 GHz ISM
b.
5.0 GHz ISM
d.
4.2 GHz ISM
5. Which of the following is true about the Bluetooth protocol stack?
a.
the L2CAP sits between Baseband and RF
c.
Link Manager communicates directly with the Physical Radio
b.
the Baseband layer sits atop the RF layer
d.
The RF layer communicates between the Link Manager and L2CAP
6. What feature available in some Bluetooth devices increases data rates to 2.1 or 3 Mbps?
a.
Link Manager
c.
L2CAP
b.
radio module
d.
EDR
7. Which Bluetooth power class allows transmission ranges up to 330 feet?
a.
Power Class 1
c.
Power Class 3
b.
Power Class 2
d.
Power Class 4
8. Bluetooth 1.x uses a variation of which modulation technique?
a.
PSK
c.
FSK
b.
ASK
d.
GSK
9. What feature of Bluetooth version 3.0 uses a separate radio module that transmits using the same methods as IEEE 802.11?
a.
BLE
c.
AMP
b.
ULP
d.
NFC
10. Which transmission technique is used by Bluetooth devices?
a.
Narrowband
c.
DHSS
b.
FHSS
d.
UWB
11. Which feature of Bluetooth version 1.2 allows Bluetooth networks to coexist with 802.11 networks with a minimum of interference?
a.
adaptive frequency hopping
c.
alternate MAC/PHY
b.
frequency hopping spread spectrum
d.
Bluetooth low energy
12. What is created when a Bluetooth network has one master and at least one slave using the same channel?
a.
scatternet
c.
piconet
b.
wi-fi net
d.
bluenet
13. How is the master device determined in a Bluetooth network?
a.
the device with the lowest address number
c.
the first device to send out an inquiry message to discover other devices
b.
the device with the highest priority hop sequence on the piconet
d.
the device that carries out a paging procedure and establishes a connection
14. Which of the following is NOT a field in a Bluetooth frame?
a.
Access code
c.
Header
b.
Frame check sequence
d.
Payload
15. Which of the following is NOT a Bluetooth error correction scheme?
a.
1/3 rate FEC
c.
ARQ
b.
2/3 rate FEC
d.
CRC
16. In which Bluetooth power mode is only the slave device’s internal timer running?
a.
active mode
c.
hold mode
b.
sniff mode
d.
park mode
17. Which of the following is true about the ZigBee standard?
a.
designed to support mesh networking
c.
used for larger data transfers than Bluetooth
b.
replaced an existing global, open standard
d.
operates in the 5.0 and 6.5 GHz ISM bands
18. Which layer in a ZigBee device is responsible for detecting the presence of an RF signal in the currently selected channel?
a.
LLC
c.
MAC
b.
PHY
d.
Upper
19. Which task is the MAC layer responsible for in an 802.15.4 device?
a.
turning the radio transceiver on and off
c.
association and disassociation
b.
analyzing link quality
d.
selecting a frequency channel for operation
20. Which type of ZigBee device controls the network in a star topology?
a.
all end-node devices
c.
full-function device
b.
reduced function device
d.
PAN coordinator
COMPLETION
1. In a ZigBee tree topology, if a child loses it connection with its FFD, it becomes a(n) _____________.
2. ________________ is an 802.15.4-based technology that implements IPv6 on WPANs and supports mesh networking.
3. A ______________ authority is a private company that verifies the authenticity of each user in order to discourage fraud.
4. In Bluetooth Encryption Mode ______, all traffic is encrypted.
5. 802.15.4 provides for _______________ integrity, a technique that uses a message integrity code.
MATCHING
a.
8-DPSK
f.
inquiry procedure
b.
ACL link
g.
MIC
c.
ARQ
h.
modulation index
d.
binding
i.
sequential freshness
e.
guaranteed time slots
j.
superframe
1. a reserved period for critical devices to transmit priority data
2. a simple method of phase shift keying that uses eight degrees of phase to encode tribits
3. the process of establishing a relationship between endpoints in a ZigBee network
4. a security service available in 802.15.4 and used by the receiving device
5. a process that enables a device to discover which devices are in range
6. a packet-switched link that is used for data transmissions
7. the amount that the frequency varies
8. an error-correction scheme that continuously retransmits until an acknowledgment is received or a timeout value is exceeded
9. a mechanism for managing transmissions in a piconet
10. a code composed of a subset of the data, the length of the data, and the symmetric key
SHORT ANSWER
1. What are the three types of addresses used in a Bluetooth piconet? Describe each.
2. Describe the two types of physical links between Bluetooth devices.
3. What are the two types of network access used in IEEE 802.15.3 networks? Describe them.
4. List three of the seven tasks the 802.15.4 MAC layer is responsible for.
5. What are the four levels of addresses for identifying devices within a ZigBee PAN?
6. What is a cluster tree topology and how do they compare to mesh networks?
7. How is power management implemented in a ZigBee network?
8. Describe the WirelessHART technology.
9. List and describe the three levels of Bluetooth security.
10. What is the process that ZigBee WPANs use for authentication and encryption? Describe how it works.
Chapter 6 - High-Rate Wireless Personal Area Networks
TRUE/FALSE
1. IEEE 802.15 covers all the WPAN working groups.
2. The WHDI consortium developed the WHDI specification primarily for the delivery of data produced from online database queries.
3. The piconet coordinator in a WirelessHD network should be a battery operated device for mobility.
4. The DSPS power saving mode allows devices to sleep for long periods of time until they choose to wake up and listen to a beacon.
5. UWB is capable of handling multiple data streams, including HD television.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which IEEE standard enables multimedia connectivity between mobile and fixed consumer devices within the home?
a.
802.15.3c
c.
802.15.1
b.
802.15.5
d.
802.15.4
2. In which frequency range does WHDI operate?
a.
2.4 GHz
c.
5 GHz
b.
800 MHz
d.
400 KHz
3. Which of the following is true about WiGig?
a.
it is compatible with 802.11ac
c.
makes use of technology designed by AMIMON
b.
it requires layer 3 and 4 protocols for audiovisual support
d.
it has adopted the 802.15.3c standard for multimedia distribution
4. What does WiGig use to maintain reliable connections at very high frequencies?
a.
single-carrier modulation
c.
OFDM
b.
beamforming
d.
protocol adaptation layers
5. What technique does WirelessHD employ to support data rates over 25 Gbps?
a.
LRP
c.
HDMI
b.
spatial multiplexing
d.
beamforming
6. Which of the following is true about a WVAN piconet?
a.
the piconet relies on an access point
c.
large non-mobile devices like TVs are not part of a piconet
b.
the PNC is typically a mobile device such as a tablet computer
d.
the PNC is the first sink device in the area
7. Which of the following is described as a piconet that has its own PNC but depends on the original piconet’s PNC to allocate a private block of time when its devices are allowed to transmit?
a.
child piconet
c.
neighbor piconet
b.
parent piconet
d.
subordinate piconet
8. Which of the following is NOT an HR WPAN feature provided by the 802.15.3 MAC layer?
a.
uses a one-octet device ID
c.
data transport includes QoS
b.
PNC can be queried about other devices
d.
infrastructure mode networking is supported
9. Which part of an 802.15.3 superframe is used for association and command communication?
a.
contention access period
c.
channel time allocation period
b.
beacon
d.
management channel time allocation
10. What type of transmission method does an 802.15.3 piconet use during the CTAP?
a.
SDMA
c.
FDMA
b.
TDMA
d.
CDMA
11. Which field of the 802.15.3 MAC frame format is used to reassemble a file in the correct sequence?
a.
Frame control
c.
Fragmentation control
b.
Piconet ID
d.
Stream index
12. Which 802.15.3 power-saving methods allows devices to sleep for the duration of several superframes and allows them to wake up in the middle of a superframe to transmit or receive data?
a.
PSPS
c.
PSPS
b.
APS
d.
APCI
13. Which radio band does the 802.15.3c standard use?
a.
5.0 GHz
c.
2.4 GHz
b.
60 GHz
d.
p00 MHz
14. How many channels and what is the width of each 802.15.3c channel?
a.
4, 2 GHz
c.
11, 25 MHz
b.
6, 200 MHz
d.
14, 50 MHz
15. Which of the following is NOT a 802.15.3c PHY layer enhancement?
a.
passive scanning
c.
channel energy detection
b.
parity bit error detection
d.
transmit power control
16. The RF modulation techniques used for 802.15.3c are variations of which of the following?
a.
QAM and PSK
c.
NRZ-L and NRZ-I
b.
FSK and ASK
d.
BPSK and QPSK
17. In the WirelessHD specification 1.1, Which of the following is NOT a function of the higher protocol layers?
a.
video format selection
c.
device discovery
b.
clock synchronization
d.
video and audio encoding and decoding
18. What application has UWB been used for since the 1960’s?
a.
video streaming
c.
cellular phone towers
b.
ground-penetrating radar
d.
automobile speed detectors
19. What term is used for the technique in which the amplitude, polarity, or position of an analog pulse represents either a 1 or a 0?
a.
biphase modulation
c.
direct-sequence UWB
b.
mesh networking
d.
impulse modulation
20. What type of attack on a Bluetooth device can access contact lists without the user’s knowledge?
a.
bluejacking
c.
bluesnarfing
b.
bluespoofing
d.
blueDoS
COMPLETION
1. The IEEE 802.15.3c standard enables ________________ connectivity between mobile and fixed consumer devices within the home.
2. The WHDI specification is designed to mirror the screens of multiple devices to the TV screen with the use of ____________.
3. _____________________ uses multiple radios and antennas to steer a signal in the direction of the receiver.
4. ZigBee uses a(n) _______________ encryption key for network-wide communications.
5. Security for IEEE 802.15.3 HR WPANs is based on ________________, a symmetric key encryption mechanism.
MATCHING
a.
biphase modulation
f.
isochronous
b.
channel time allocations
g.
MCTA
c.
contention access period
h.
PNC
d.
D-WVAN
i.
spatial multiplexing
e.
H-WVAN
j.
superframe
1. periods of time allocated by the PNC to a specific device for prioritizing communications
2. the home or parent WVAN
3. time periods used for communication between the devices and the PNC
4. a mechanism used to communicate commands or any asynchronous data that may be present in a superframe
5. a technique that uses multiple radios and multiple antennas to transmit and receive different parts of the same PHY frame
6. a time-dependent transmission that must occur every frame or every so many
frames to maintain the quality of the connection
7. a mechanism for managing transmissions in a piconet
8. a device that provides all the basic communications timing in an 802.15.3 piconet
9. uses a half-cycle positive analog pulse to represent a 1 and a half-cycle negative analog pulse to represent a 0
10. a secondary wireless video area network that operates in a different frequency channel
SHORT ANSWER
1. Provide a summary of the purpose and application for IEEE 802.15.3c.
2. List four potential HR WPAN applications.
3. What was the primary purpose the WHDI consortium developed the WHDI specification?
4. What do the PALs do for WiGig?
5. What are the three sections the WirelessHD specification divides the PHY layer into?
6. Describe child and neighbor piconets.
7. Describe the three parts of an 802.15.3 superframe.
8. What information is contained in the Frame control field of an 802.15.3 frame?
9. List and describe the two modes of security for IEEE 802.15.3 HR WPANs.
10. Briefly discuss the potential of spectrum conflict with WPANs.
Chapter 7 - Low-Speed Wireless Local Area Networks
TRUE/FALSE
1. A wireless residential gateway provide better security than connecting a computer directly to the Internet.
2. The range of an AP base station is approximately 375 feet in an environment with no obstructions and little interference.
3. When transmitting above 2 Mbps using DSSS in an 802.11b network, a Barker code is used.
4. The PHY layer of the 802.11b standard provides functionality for a client to join a WLAN and stay connected.
5. A SIFS occurs immediately after the transmission of frames and no device is allowed to transmit during the SIFS.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT true about wireless NICs?
a.
they change the computer’s internal data from serial to parallel before transmitting
c.
they have an antenna instead of a cable port
b.
you can connect an external wireless NIC to a USB port
d.
notebook computers often use Mini PCI cards for wireless NICs
2. Which component found in an access point is NOT found in a wireless NIC?
a.
radio transmitter
c.
radio receiver
b.
RJ-45 interface
d.
antenna
3. Aside from acting as the base station for the wireless network, what other function does an AP perform?
a.
it routes packets
c.
proxy server
b.
acts as a bridge
d.
it performs as a firewall
4. Where does an AP that it using PoE get its DC power from?
a.
an AC outlet
c.
UTP cables
b.
a built-in AC/DC converter
d.
high-frequency radio waves
5. If three friends each have a laptop computer and they want to exchange files wirelessly but nobody has an AP, what should they do?
a.
use Ad hoc mode
c.
use the Basic Service Set
b.
use infrastructure mode
d.
use the Extended Service Set
6. What is the term used for when a client finds a different AP that can provide a better-quality signal and then associates with the new AP?
a.
reassociation
c.
transfer
b.
reconnect
d.
handoff
7. Which of the following is NOT a field in the 802.11b PLCP frame?
a.
Start frame delimiter
c.
Signal data rate
b.
Source address
d.
Length
8. Which field of the PLCP frame indicates how long in microseconds the data portion of the frame is?
a.
Start frame delimiter
c.
Service
b.
Signal data rate
d.
Length
9. What is the primary job of the PMD sublayer?
a.
translate binary 1s and 0s into radio signals
c.
reformat the data received from the MAC layer
b.
evaluate the Header error check field
d.
implement a channel access method
10. What is the maximum throughput a device can achieve operating on an 802.11b network?
a.
about 11 Mbps
c.
about 54 Mbps
b.
about 5.5 Mbps
d.
about 27 Mbps
11. What is the period of time devices must wait after the medium is clear before attempting to transmit?
a.
collision timeframe
c.
backoff interval
b.
signal data rate
d.
synchronization period
12. What is the RTS/CTS protocol designed to reduce or prevent?
a.
negative acknowledgements
c.
collisions
b.
CRC errors
d.
handshakes
13. With which channel access method does the AP ask each computer if it wants to transmit?
a.
point coordinated function
c.
CSMA/CD
b.
CSMA/CA
d.
virtual carrier sensing
14. In active scanning, what does the client do initially to start the association process?
a.
poll the access point
c.
send a beacon with the requested SSID
b.
send a probe frame
d.
transmit an associate request frame
15. What is the last frame sent to successfully conclude a client’s attempt to associate using active scanning?
a.
scan reply
c.
probe response
b.
synchronize acknowledgement
d.
associate response
16. Which of the following is true about client’s associating with an AP?
a.
an AP can reject the request based on the client MAC address
c.
a client can reassociate with another AP in a BSS
b.
a client can be associated to multiple APs simultaneously for fault tolerance
d.
if a client is not preconfigured for a specific AP, it will not attempt to associate
17. Which of the following is NOT true about WLAN power management?
a.
power management is transparent to applications
c.
the AP uses timestamps to maintain synchronization
b.
802.11b devices use power management in ad hoc mode
d.
the AP keeps a record of which client’s are sleeping
18. What is the list of devices called that an AP sends in a beacon that indicates which clients have buffered frames waiting?
a.
sleep mode identifier
c.
traffic indication map
b.
buffered frames allocation
d.
packet delivery list
19. Which of the following is a function performed by MAC management frames?
a.
request-to-send
c.
reassociation request
b.
transmit data to the client
d.
acknowledgement
20. What is the time period during which all devices must wait between transmissions of data frames?
a.
Short Interframe Space
c.
Idle Requirement Period
b.
DCF Interframe Space
d.
Transmission Control Period
COMPLETION
1. In the place of a port for a cable connection, a wireless NIC has a(n) ______________.
2. An AP acts as a(n) ____________ between the wired and wireless networks.
3. ____________________ mode consists of at least one wireless client connected to a single AP.
4. Once the _____________ has formatted the frame, it passes the frame to the PMD sublayer.
5. When a client is finishing transmitting, it begins listening for a(n) ________________ from the receiving device.
MATCHING
a.
ACK
f.
control frames
b.
active scanning
g.
DCF
c.
associate request frame
h.
fragmentation
d.
BSS
i.
management frames
e.
channel access methods
j.
passive scanning
1. a WLAN mode that consists of at least one wireless client and one AP
2. a frame sent by a client to an AP that contains the client’s capabilities and supported rates
3. MAC frames that assist in delivering the frames that contain data
4. the process of listening to each available channel for a set period of time
5. the division of data to be transmitted from one large frame into several smaller frames
6. a procedure used to reduce collisions by requiring the receiving station to send an explicit packet back to the sending station
7. the default channel access method in IEEE 802.11 WLANs
8. MAC frames that are used, for example, to set up the initial communications between a client and the AP
9. the process of sending frames to gather information
10. the different ways of sharing resources in a network environment
SHORT ANSWER
1. What are the four steps involved in wireless NIC transmission?
2. Describe the two basic functions of an AP.
3. What is infrastructure mode? Include a discussion of BSS and ESS in your answer.
4. What is a drawback of an ESS WLAN with respect to roaming users? What is a remedy to this drawback?
5. Describe the Physical layer of the 802.11b standard.
6. List the three parts of the PLCP frame.
7. How does CSMA/CA in DCF handle media contention?
8. How does RTS/CTS work?
9. Describe the six basic rules of communication in an 802.11 network.
10. Describe the six steps that occur if two devices have frames to transmit.
Chapter 8 - High-Speed WLANs and WLAN Security
TRUE/FALSE
1. The 802.11a standard maintains the same MAC layer functions as 802.11b WLANs.
2. Increasing data transmission speed through more complex modulation schemes makes multipath distortion worse.
3. The 4-bit Rate field in an 802.11a PLCP frame specifies the speed at which the Data field will be transmitted.
4. Wireless controllers incorporate most AP functions including the radio.
5. VPNs encrypt a connection for security and use very few processing resources.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following 802.11 standards uses U-NII bands and does not use ISM bands?
a.
802.11b
c.
802.11g
b.
802.11a
d.
802.11n
2. Which of the U-NII bands is approved for outdoor use?
a.
U-NII-1
c.
U-NII-2 Extended
b.
U-NII-2
d.
U-NII-3
3. What is the multiplexing technique used by 802.11a to help solve the multipath distortion problem?
a.
QPSK
c.
FEC
b.
OFDM
d.
PBCC
4. How many bits per symbol can be transmitted using 16-QAM?
a.
16
c.
4
b.
2
d.
8
5. Which wireless data rate uses 64-level quadrature amplitude modulation, transmitting over 48 subcarriers?
a.
11 Mbps
c.
24 Mbps
b.
2 Mbps
d.
54 Mbps
6. Which layer defines the characteristics of the wireless medium?
a.
PLCP
c.
LLC
b.
PMD
d.
MAC
7. Which field in an 802.11a PLCP frame are used to initialize part of the transmitter and receiver circuits?
a.
Tail
c.
Service
b.
Pad
d.
Parity
8. What is the disadvantage of an 802.11a WLAN compared to an 802.11b WLAN?
a.
shorter range
c.
more interference sources
b.
higher error rate
d.
lower bandwidth
9. How many non-overlapping channels are available in an 802.11g WLAN?
a.
23
c.
3
b.
11
d.
8
10. Why is the SIFS time in the 802.11g standard effectively extended to 16 microseconds?
a.
for compatibility with 802.11a
c.
to allow 802.11n devices on the network
b.
to account for quiet time
d.
to achieve data rates higher than 11 Mbps
11. Which of the following is correct about antenna diversity?
a.
it is the cornerstone of the 802.11n technology
c.
it increases bandwidth while decreasing range
b.
it is two radios and one antenna
d.
it is two antennas with one radio
12. What do 802.11n devices employ to direct a transmission back to the device from which a frame was received?
a.
spatial multiplexing
c.
MIMO
b.
beamforming
d.
antenna diversity
13. What is the maximum radio configuration for 802.11n devices?
a.
3 transmitters, 3 receivers
c.
4 transmitters, 4 receivers
b.
6 transmitters, 4 receivers
d.
4 transmitters, 3 receivers
14. How much bandwidth do 802.11n devices utilize when running at speeds up to 300 Mbps?
a.
20 MHz
c.
40 MHz
b.
22 MHz
d.
44 MHz
15. What is the purpose of a guard band?
a.
help prevent adjacent channel interference
c.
helps prevent outside EM interference
b.
help prevent co-channel interference
d.
helps prevent intersymbol interference
16. What 802.11n mode of operation is referred to as greenfield?
a.
transmitting in non-HT mode with 802.11a/g devices
c.
transmitting with only HT devices
b.
transmitting in mixed HT/non-HT devices
d.
transmitting at a faster speed than receiving
17. Which HT operation mode is used when one or more non-HT devices are associated with an HT AP and supports devices at 20 or 40 MHz?
a.
Mode 0
c.
Mode 2
b.
Mode 1
d.
Mode 3
18. Which IEEE standard supports QoS and enables prioritization of frames in DCF?
a.
802.11f
c.
802.11d
b.
802.11e
d.
802.11c
19. What 802.11 standard under development uses up to 160 MHz bandwidth and can achieve data rates up to 7 Gbps?
a.
802.11bg
c.
802.11cd
b.
802.11ac
d.
802.11ga
20. What type of device can you deploy to allow client WLAN connectivity when the main AP is out of range?
a.
bridge
c.
monitor
b.
controller
d.
router
COMPLETION
1. __________________ distortion occurs when the receiving device gets the same signal from several different directions at different times.
2. The _______________ interval prevents a new symbol from arriving at the receiver before the last multipath signal reaches the receiver’s antenna.
3. AP _____________________ is a security problem that takes advantage of the fact that clients authenticate with the AP but not vice versa.
4. The strength of encryption relies on keeping the __________ secret as well as its length.
5. 802.1X uses the Extensible ________________ Protocol for relaying access requests between a wireless device, the AP, and the RADIUS server.
MATCHING
a.
co-channel interference
f.
reduced interframe space
b.
CTS-to-self
g.
spatial multiplexing
c.
guard band
h.
symbol
d.
intersymbol interference
i.
TKIP
e.
pre-shared key
j.
wireless controller
1. a 128-bit key used by WPA
2. interference between two devices configured to use the same frequency channel
3. a change in the signal, also known as a baud
4. a 2-microsecond interframe space that can be used in 802.11n networks
5. the unused frequency space between two adjacent channels
6. a security protocol used in WPA that provides per packet key-mixing
7. a coordination method used by 802.11g devices that prevents 802.11 and 802.11b devices that do not “understand” OFDM from attempting to initiate a transmission
8. a transmission technique that uses multiple radios and multiple antennas to send different parts of the same message simultaneously
9. devices that make it much easier to manage large WLANs by implementing most of the functions of an AP
10. caused when the beginning of a symbol arrives at the receiver antenna while multipath reflections from the previous symbol are still reaching the antenna
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the U-NII frequency band and WLAN standard uses it?
2. Describe how 802.11a uses the U-NII-1, U-NII-2, and U-NII-2 extended bands.
3. What are the two mandatory and two optional transmission modes defined in the 802.11g PHY layer?
4. What are the three parts of an 802.11a PLCP frame? Describe them briefly.
5. Describe the approach that 802.11n (HT) takes to the implementation of the PHY layer.
6. What is MIMO technology? Include beamforming and spatial multiplexing in your answer.
7. What is the channel configuration of 802.11n and how does it help achieve higher data rates?
8. What is the guard interval and what does it help prevent?
9. What are wireless controllers and why are they important in WLANs?
10. What is 802.11i and what aspect of WLANs does it deal with?
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