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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control
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NO.1 Which of the following should be the primary objective of an audit of an entity's business continuity plan? A. Cost of testing and updating the plan. B. Delegation of responsibilities for the plan. C. Relationship of the plan to risk exposures. D. Efficiency of the planning procedures. Answer: C IIA Exam Tests   IIA-CIA-Part1 exam dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 test answers NO.2 Which of the following factors affects the control risk of a company? A. Potential problems like technological obsolescence. B. Unusual pressures on management. C. Complex accounts that require expert valuations. D. Segregation of duties. Answer: D IIA dumps torrent   IIA-CIA-Part1 questions   IIA-CIA-Part1 Real Questions   IIA-CIA-Part1 pdf   IIA-CIA-Part1 Dumps PDF   IIA-CIA-Part1 test NO.3 Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety hazard exists within a manufacturing facility? A. Observation of the facility during operations. B. Questioning of facility management,including the facility safety officer. C. Analysis of facility operating reports,focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred. D. Review of records involving safety violations,filed by facility production employees. Answer: A IIA Exam Cram   IIA-CIA-Part1 pdf   IIA-CIA-Part1   IIA-CIA-Part1 test NO.4 A retail sales company has discontinued a product that normally sold for $100. During the first month of a sale of the product,a 20 percent discount was given. Later that sale price was reduced by an additional 40 percent. What was the overall discount from the original selling price? A. 60 percent. B. 52 percent. C. 48 percent. D. 30 percent. Answer: B IIA   IIA-CIA-Part1 exam dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 test   IIA-CIA-Part1 Exam Tests NO.5 According to IIA guidance,which of the following is the most likely obstacle to undertaking a quality assurance and improvement program by the internal audit activity? A. The size of internal audit department under review. B. The time commitment to complete. C. The lack of independence and objectivity. D. The inability to adequately fund the program. Answer: D IIA Practice Exam   IIA-CIA-Part1 exam   IIA-CIA-Part1 Exam Dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 Test Questions   IIA-CIA-Part1 NO.6 After several years in the engineering department,an engineer was transferred to the internal audit department. One month later,the new auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement for the engineering department. When the auditor's former engineering supervisor suggested a change in the sample selection method,the auditor consulted with the audit supervisor. They determined that the suggested method would not be as representative and that the original selection method should be used. In this situation,the auditor: A. Maintained an independent mental attitude and is therefore objective. B. Has subordinated professional judgment,and objectivity is therefore impaired. C. Does not have objectivity since the auditor recently transferred from the engineering department. D. Does not have independent organizational status since the auditor recently transferred from the engineering department. Answer: C IIA VCE Dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 demo   IIA-CIA-Part1   IIA-CIA-Part1 certification training   IIA-CIA-Part1 demo NO.7 When using a risk assessment model to develop audit plans,it is essential that the chief audit executive take into accountthe: A. Results of the last audit. B. Planned visits by the external auditors during the upcoming year. C. Recent or expected changes in management direction and objectives. D. Dates of future board meetings. Answer: C IIA exam   IIA-CIA-Part1 exam dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 certification training   IIA-CIA-Part1 practice test   IIA-CIA-Part1 Training online NO.8 According to IIA guidance,which of the following statements about working papers is false? A. They assist in the implementation of recommendations. B. They provide support for communication to third parties. C. They demonstrate compliance with auditing standards. D. They contribute to development of the internal audit staff. Answer: A IIA demo   IIA-CIA-Part1 dumps   IIA-CIA-Part1 certification training
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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MB2-703 Bootcamp, MB2-702 Exam Tests
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Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Deployment
Published: January 29, 2014
Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Simplified Chinese, Spanish
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
Credit toward certification: MCP, Microsoft Specialist
Plan the Microsoft Dynamics CRM installation (15?20%)
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Exam Code: MB2-702
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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70-413 Braindumps, MB2-700 Exam Prep
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Who should take this exam?
This exam is intended for individuals who plan to implement, use, maintain, or support Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 applications in their organizations. This audience typically includes service schedulers, administrators, office managers, executives, and consultants who want to demonstrate foundational understanding of the application functionality.
Candidates should have a basic knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 2013 CRM applications, features, and functionalities.
Exam Code: 70-413
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Exam Code: MB2-700
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Applications
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NO.1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. All domain controllers are installed on physical servers. The network contains several Hyper-V hosts. The network contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. You plan to use domain controller cloning to deploy several domain controllers that will run Windows Server 2012. You need to recommend which changes must be made to the network infrastructure before you can use domain controller cloning. What should you recommend? A. Upgrade a global catalog server to Windows Server 2012. Deploy Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). B. Upgrade a global catalog server to Windows Server 2012. Install the Windows Deployment Services server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. C. Upgrade the domain controller that has the PDC emulator operations master role to Windows Server 2012. Deploy a Hyper-V host that runs Windows Server 2012. D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the infrastructure master operations master role to Windows Server 2012. Install the Windows Deployment Services server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. Answer: C Microsoft   70-413 Dumps PDF   70-413 exam prep   70-413 practice test   70-413 Exam PDF Explanation: The clone domain controller uses the security context of the source domain controller (the domain controller whose copy it represents) to contact the Windows Server 2012 Primary Domain Controller (PDC) emulator operations master role holder (also known as flexible single master operations, or FSMO). The PDC emulator must be running Windows Server 2012, but it does not have to be running on a hypervisor. Reference: Introduction to Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) Virtualization (Level 100) NO.2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The physical topology of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. Each office contains 500 employees. You plan to deploy several domain controllers to each office. You need to recommend a site topology for the planned deployment. What should you include in the recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. Exhibit A. Five sites and one site link B. Three sites and three site links C. One site D. Five sites and three site links Answer: D Microsoft   70-413 test answers   70-413 exam prep Explanation: Create a site for each LAN, or set of LANs, that are connected by a high speed backbone, and assign the site a name. Connectivity within the site must be reliable and always available. This would mean 5 sites Site links are transitive, so if site A is connected to site B, and site B is connected to site C, then the KCC assumes that domain controllers in site A can communicate with domain controllers in site C. You only need to create a site link between site A and site C if there is in fact a distinct network connection between those two sites. This would mean 3 sitelinks So answer is "Five sites and three site links" Reference: Defining Sites and Site Links http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc960573.aspx NO.3 You need To configure the Group Policy for salespeople. Solution: You move all shared desktops to a separate organizational unit (OU). You create one Group Policy object (GPO) that has an AppLocker policy rule and enable loopback policy processing within the GPO. You link the GPO to the new OU. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Answer: B Microsoft VCE Dumps   70-413 Study Guide   70-413 exam   70-413 NO.4 You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain. Which tools should you use? A. Gpfixup and Gpupdate B. Rendom and Gpfixup C. Gpupdate and Dcgpofix D. Adprep and Rendom Answer: B Microsoft Exam Cram   70-413 test answers   70-413 exam dumps   70-413 Test Answers   70-413 pdf Explanation: Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com * Rendom.exe is a command-line tool that is used to rename Active Directory domains. Reference: Rendom NO.5 DRAG DROP You need to recommend changes for the Active Directory infrastructure. What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate domain and forest functional levels for proseware.com to the correct locations. Each functional level may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Answer: NO.6 You have a virtual machine (VM) named VM-APP1 that hosts critical application named APP1. The VM has the following VHDX virtual disks: Both VHDX virtual disks are located on LUN1 of a Storage Area Network. Every time you perform Storage Live Migration for VM-APP1, it takes a few hours. You need to ensure that the storage supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX), and that ODX is enabled. Which two Windows PowerShell commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Set-ItemProperty HKLM:\system\currentcontrolset\control\filesystem -Name "FilterSupportedFeaturesMode" -Value 0 B. Set-StorageSubSystem -InputObject (Get-StorageSubSystem) -ThrottleLimit 0 C. Get-ItemProperty HKLM:\system\currentcontrolset\services\<FilterName> -Name "SupportedFeatures" D. Set-ItemProperty HKLM:\system\currentcontrolset\control\filesystem -Name "FilterSupportedFeatiresMode" -Value1 Answer: A,C Microsoft Practice Test   70-413 Study Guide   70-413   70-413 Free download   70-413 test answers NO.7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Your company has 100 users in the sales department. 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The main office contains 2,000 users. The branch office contains 800 users. Each office contains three IP subnets. The company plans to deploy an Active Directory forest. You need to recommend an Active Directory infrastructure to meet the following requirements: - Ensure that the users are authenticated by using a domain controller in their respective office. - Minimize the amount of Active Directory replication traffic between the offices. Which Active Directory infrastructure should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer. A. Two domains and one site B. Two domains and two sites C. One domain and two sites D. One domain and six sites Answer: B Microsoft Exam Cost   70-413 test questions   70-413 exam prep Explanation: To minimize the amount of replication traffic, create 2 sites. To ensure that users are authentication by using a local domain controller, use two domains. 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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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Lpi 304-150 training and testing
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LPIC-3 304: Virtualization & High Availability LPIC-3 is a professional certification program program that covers enterprise Linux specialties. LPIC-3 304 covers administering Linux enterprise-wide with an emphasis on Virtualization & High Availability. Exam Objectives Version: Version 2.0 (last update: December 4th, 2014) Exam Covered: LPIC-3 304 (304-200); Exam 1 of 1 to obtain LPIC-3 Linux Enterprise Professional:  certification Objectives Reflected in Published Exam: February 17th, 2015 Required Prerequisite: Successfully pass LPIC-1 101 and 102 and LPIC-2 201 and 202 exams About Objective Weights: Each objective is assigned a weighting value. The weights range roughly from 1 to 10 and indicate the relative importance of each objective. Objectives with higher weights will be covered in the exam with more questions.
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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C-HANATEC142 Practice Exam, C_HANATEC142 Real Questions
Monitoring of SAP HANA > 12% Operation of SAP HANA > 12% Security and authorization > 12% SAP HANA Installation 8% - 12% Backup & recovery 8% - 12% System architecture 8% - 12% Troubleshooting of SAP HANA 8% - 12% High availability & disaster tolerance < 8% Data Provisioning < 8% Database Migration to SAP HANA < 8%
The "SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA (Edition 2014)" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the required knowledge in the area of the SAP HANA SPS08 for the profile of an SAP HANA technology consultant. This certificate builds on the basic knowledge gained through related SAP HANA training and preferably refined by practical experience within an SAP HANA project team, whereby the consultant applies acquired knowledge in this specialist area practically in projects.
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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ISM certification CPSM exam test software
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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The latest ISACA certification CISM exam practice questions and answers
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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AND-401 examination of the latest Android certification exam questions and answers
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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Riverbed certification 499-01 exam training materials
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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NSE4 exam dumps
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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Free download IBM certification COG-701 exam practice questions and answers
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Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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IBM certification CUR-011 exam targeted exercises
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ITCertMaster provides information on the latest GARP ICBRR examination training
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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itexamleader1 · 9 years ago
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When CloudTrail logging is turned on, CloudWatch will write log files into the Amazon S3 bucket, which is specified during the CloudTrail configuration. NO.2 A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. What will be the difference while performing the restart or stop/start options on that instance? A. For restart it does not charge for an extra hour, while every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour B. Every restart is charged by AWS as a separate hour, while multiple start/stop actions during a single hour will be counted as a single hour C. For every restart or start/stop it will be charged as a separate hour D. For restart it charges extra only once, while for every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour Answer: A Amazon   AWS-SysOps   AWS-SysOps Test Questions   AWS-SysOps Explanation: For an EC2 instance launched with an EBS backed AMI, each time the instance state is changed from stop to start/ running, AWS charges a full instance hour, even if these transitions happen multiple times within a single hour. Anyway, rebooting an instance AWS does not charge a new instance billing hour. NO.3 An organization, which has the AWS account ID as 999988887777, has created 50 IAM users. All the users are added to the same group cloudacademy. If the organization has enabled that each IAM user can login with the AWS console, which AWS login URL will the IAM users use? A. https:// 999988887777.signin.aws.amazon.com/console/ B. https:// signin.aws.amazon.com/cloudacademy/ C. https:// cloudacademy.signin.aws.amazon.com/999988887777/console/ D. https:// 999988887777.aws.amazon.com/ cloudacademy/ Answer: A Amazon Latest Dumps   AWS-SysOps exam   AWS-SysOps Exam Tests Explanation: AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage users and user permissions for various AWS services. Once the organization has created the IAM users, they will have a separate AWS console URL to login to the AWS console. The console login URL for the IAM user will be https:// AWS_Account_ID.signin.aws.amazon.com/console/. It uses only the AWS account ID and does not depend on the group or user ID. NO.4 A user has enabled detailed CloudWatch monitoring with the AWS Simple Notification Service. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand detailed monitoring better? A. SNS will send data every minute after configuration B. There is no need to enable since SNS provides data every minute C. AWS CloudWatch does not support monitoring for SNS D. SNS cannot provide data every minute Answer: D Amazon Exam PDF   AWS-SysOps test answers   AWS-SysOps exam prep Explanation: CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data points to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points to CloudWatch every minute. The AWS SNS service sends data every 5 minutes. Thus, it supports only the basic monitoring. The user cannot enable detailed monitoring with SNS. NO.5 Your application currently leverages AWS Auto Scaling to grow and shrink as load Increases/ decreases and has been performing well Your marketing team expects a steady ramp up in traffic to follow an upcoming campaign that will result in a 20x growth in traffic over 4 weeks Your forecast for the approximate number of Amazon EC2 instances necessary to meet the peak demand is 175. What should you do to avoid potential service disruptions during the ramp up in traffic? A. Ensure that you have pre-allocated 175 Elastic IP addresses so that each server will be able to obtain one as it launches B. Check the service limits in Trusted Advisor and adjust as necessary so the forecasted count remains within limits. C. Change your Auto Scaling configuration to set a desired capacity of 175 prior to the launch of the marketing campaign D. Pre-warm your Elastic Load Balancer to match the requests per second anticipated during peak demand prior to the marketing campaign Answer: D Amazon demo   AWS-SysOps Exam Questions   AWS-SysOps Actual Test NO.6 A user has created a VPC with a subnet and a security group. The user has launched an instance in that subnet and attached a public IP. The user is still unable to connect to the instance. The internet gateway has also been created. What can be the reason for the error? A. The internet gateway is not configured with the route table B. The private IP is not present C. The outbound traffic on the security group is disabled D. The internet gateway is not configured with the security group Answer: A Amazon test   AWS-SysOps exam   AWS-SysOps questions Explanation: A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user's AWS account. AWS provides two features the user can use to increase security in VPC: security groups and network ACLs. Security groups work at the instance level. When a user launches an instance and wants to connect to an instance, he needs an internet gateway. The internet gateway should be configured with the route table to allow traffic from the internet. NO.7 An application you maintain consists of multiple EC2 instances in a default tenancy VPC. This application has undergone an internal audit and has been determined to require dedicated hardware for one instance. Your compliance team has given you a week to move this instance to single-tenant hardware. Which process will have minimal impact on your application while complying with this requirement? A. Create a new VPC with tenancy=dedicated and migrate to the new VPC B. Use ec2-reboot-instances command line and set the parameter "dedicated=true" C. Right click on the instance, select properties and check the box for dedicated tenancy D. Stop the instance, create an AMI, launch a new instance with tenancy=dedicated, and terminate the old instance Answer: A Amazon Actual Test   AWS-SysOps test answers   AWS-SysOps dumps torrent   AWS-SysOps Exam Questions Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/CommandLineReference/ApiReference-cmd- CreateVpc.html NO.8 A user is trying to aggregate all the CloudWatch metric data of the last 1 week. Which of the below mentioned statistics is not available for the user as a part of data aggregation? A. Aggregate B. Sum C. Sample data D. Average Answer: A Amazon   AWS-SysOps pdf   AWS-SysOps demo   AWS-SysOps Test Answers Explanation: Amazon CloudWatch is basically a metrics repository. Either the user can send the custom data or an AWS product can put metrics into the repository, and the user can retrieve the statistics based on those metrics. The statistics are metric data aggregations over specified periods of time. Aggregations are made using the namespace, metric name, dimensions, and the data point unit of measure, within the time period that is specified by the user. CloudWatch supports Sum, Min, Max, Sample Data and Average statistics aggregation.
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