zoomgenetics
ZoomGenetics
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Software to Learn Genetics
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Second Law of Thermodynamics https://ift.tt/2r1U3GJ
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Charge of an Electron https://ift.tt/1WAgPNJ
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Surface Tension Questions And Answers https://ift.tt/2r1Wn0k
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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What is Radiation [Mode of Heat Transfer] https://ift.tt/2FBSQ32
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Momentum Definition [Class-12 Physics] https://ift.tt/2r1U11z
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Law of Conservation of Energy https://ift.tt/2FEPPPD
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Multiple Choice Questions on Circular Motion https://ift.tt/2r17OFE
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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Electronegativity Chart [Periodic Table] https://ift.tt/2Fzj32a
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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What is Centripetal Force [Class-12 Circular Motion] https://ift.tt/2r1TX1P
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ On Protein Synthesis https://ift.tt/2qF5cgB
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ On Protein Synthesis
Q-01: In Eukaryotic cells, mRNA Splicing, Capping, and Transcription takes place in: (A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleus (C) Golgi Bodies (D) Mitochondria Q-02: The process of transfer of information stored in DNA to mRNA is called: (A) Translation (B) Transformation (C) Translocation (D) Transcription Q-03: The strand of DNA that do not serves as template for transcription is: (A) Master strand (B) Sense strand (C) Anti-sense strand (D) none of the above. Q-04: The process in which introns and intervening sequences of non-essential nature are removed by nuclease is called: (A) Cutting (B) Splitting (C) Chopping (D) Splicing Q-05: The process of capping is adding a cap of which of the following at 5`-end of mRNA (A) 3-methylguanosine (B) 5-methylguanosine (C) 7-methylguanosine (D) 9-methylguanosine Q-06: The region of DNA where initiation of transcription beings is called: (A) Transcriptor end (B) Operator end (C) Promoter end (D) Repressor end Q-07: Transcription occurs during which phase of the cell: (A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Interphase Q-08: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase enzyme II synthesizes (A) rRNA (B) hnRNA (C) tRNA (D) None of the above Q-09: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase enzyme I synthesizes (A) rRNA (B) hnRNA (C) tRNA (D) None of the above Q-10: In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase enzyme III synthesizes (A) rRNA (B) hnRNA (C) tRNA (D) None of the above Q-11: mRNA synthesis on DNA template takes place in which direction? (A) 3` to 5` direction (B) 5` to 3` direction (C) both direction (D) random direction Q-12: Which factor (polypeptide, protein) of RNA polymerase recognises the promoter region and initiates the transcription process? (A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Omega (D) Sigma Q-13: Which factor (polypeptide, protein) of RNA polymerase helps in elongation and termination of RNA synthesis? (A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Rho (D) Sigma Q-14: There are about how many genes in humans? (A) 10,000 (B) 20,200 (C) 30,000 (D) 40,000 Q-15: What is the correct sequence? (A) Gene (DNA) -> Protein -> tRNA (B) mRNA -> Gene (DNA) -> Protein (C) rRNA -> mRNA -> Protein (D) Gene (DNA) -> mRNA -> Protein Q-16: A particular length of gene capable of producing protein molecule or polypeptide chain or enzyme molecule is called: (A) Codon (B) Muton (C) Recon (D) Cistron Q-17: What is the correct sequence? (A) Transcription -> Replication -> Translation (B) Polymerization -> Splicing -> Transcription (C) Translation -> Splicing -> Transcription (D) Transcription -> Splicing -> Translation Q-18: Exons in a gene sequence contain: (A) non-coding sequences (B) coding sequences (C) Promoter sequences (D) Terminator sequences Q-19: Introns in a gene sequence contain: (A) non-coding sequences (B) coding sequences (C) Promoter sequences (D) Terminator sequences Q-20: Splicing of mRNA involves removal of: (A) Promoters (B) Terminators (C) Introns (D) Enhancers / Silencers Q-21: The enzyme which forms RNA from DNA is called: (A) DNA polymerase (B) DNA ligase (C) RNA primer (D) RNA polymerase Q-22: Genetic code is in the form of (A) duplets (B) triplets (C) quadruplets (D) sextuplets Q-23: For a particular amino acid, more than one codon can be used. This is called _________ of codon. (A) redundancy (B) degeneracy (C) relevancy (D) authenticity Q-24: Which one of these is not a Stop codon? (A) AGG (B) UAA (C) UAG (D) UGA Q-25: Which one of these is not a code for Arginine (Arg, R)? (A) AGG (B) AGA (C) CGA (D) CCA Q-26: Which one of these is a code for Tryptophan (Trp, W)? (A) AGG (B) GUG (C) UGC (D) UGG Q-27: Which one of these is a code for Tyrosine (Tyr - Y)? (A) UAU (B) GUA (C) GUC (D) GCC Q-28: Which one of these is Not a code for Valine (Val - V)? (A) GUG (B) GUA (C) GUC (D) GCA Q-29: Which one of these is a start codon? (A) GUG (B) GUA (C) GUC (D) AUG Q-30: What does start codon code for? (A) Methionine , Met, M (B) Arginine, Arg, R (C) Lysine, Lys, K (D) Tryptophan, Trp, W Q-31: Genetic codon are non-ambiguous. An exception to this rule is: (A) AGG (B) UCC (C) AUA (D) GGA Q-32: The total possible combinations of codons (triplets) are: (A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 60 (D) 64 Q-33: How many out of 64 codons, code for 20 amino acids? (A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 60 (D) 61 Q-34: Which of the following Genetic codons is a non-sense codon? (A) UGA (B) GCC (C) AAA (D) CCC Q-35: A protein covering nucleoid and other parts in a virion is called: (A) Envelope (B) Capsid (C) Shell (D) Membrane
Ans-01:(B) Ans-02:(D) Transcription Ans-03:(C) Anti-sense strand Ans-04:(D) Splicing Ans-05:(C) 7-methylguanosine Ans-06:(C) Promoter end Ans-07:(D) Interphase Ans-08:(B) hnRNA Ans-09:(A) rRNA Ans-10:(C) tRNA Ans-11:(B) 5` to 3` direction Ans-12:(D) Sigma Ans-13:(C) Rho Ans-14:(C) 30,000 Ans-15:(D) Gene (DNA) -> mRNA -> Protein Ans-16:(D) Cistron Ans-17:(D) Transcription -> Splicing -> Translation Ans-18:(B) coding sequences Ans-19:(A) non-coding sequences Ans-20:(C) Introns Ans-21:(D) RNA polymerase Ans-22:(B) triplets Ans-23:(B) degeneracy Ans-24:(A) AGG Ans-25:(D) CCA Ans-26:(D) UGG Ans-27:(A) UAU Ans-28:(D) GCA Ans-29:(D) AUG Ans-30:(A) Methionine , Met, M Ans-31:(D) GGA. It codes for Glycine as well as Glutamic acid. Ans-32:(D) 64 (64 = 4^3, all permutations of A, U, G and C) Ans-33:(D) 61. Rest 3 are Stop codons Ans-34:(A) UGA Ans-35:(B) Capsid
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ on Pedigree Analysis
Q-01: A cross between dominant phenotype with recessive parent to know its genotype is called. (A) Back Cross (B) Dihybrid Cross (C) Test Cross (D) Reciprocal Cross Q-02: Which of the following sentences is true. (A) Back Cross is Test Cross (B) Back Cross is Reciprocal Cross (C) Test Cross is Back Cross (D) Reciprocal Cross is Test Cross Q-03: An example of criss-cross inheritance is: (A) Father -> son -> granddaughter (B) Father -> daughter -> granddaughter (C) Mother -> daughter -> grandson (D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Q-04: An example of Diagynic criss-cross inheritance is: (A) Father -> son -> granddaughter (B) Father -> daughter -> granddaughter (C) Mother -> daughter -> grandson (D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Q-05: An example of Diandric criss-cross inheritance is: (A) Father -> son -> granddaughter (B) Father -> daughter -> granddaughter (C) Mother -> son -> granddaughter (D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Q-06: An example of Hologynic inheritance is: (A) Father -> son -> granddaughter (B) Father -> daughter -> granddaughter (C) Mother -> daughter -> granddaughter (D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Q-07: An example of Holandric inheritance is: (A) Father -> son -> grandson (B) Father -> daughter -> granddaughter (C) Mother -> daughter -> granddaughter (D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Q-08: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHH and ttHH, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of tall-and-bald children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-09: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHH and ttHH, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf-and-hairy children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-10: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHH and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf-and-hairy children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-11: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf-and-bald children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-12: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-13: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of bald children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q-14: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of tall-or-hairy children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 87.5% Q-15: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of bald-or-hairy children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 87.5% (D) 100% Q-16: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of tall-or-bald children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 62.5% (D) 87.5% Q-17: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf-or-bald children in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 62.5% (D) 87.5% Q-18: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of tall or hairy children, but not both, in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 62.5% (D) 87.5% Q-19: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of tall or bald children, but not both, in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 62.5% (D) 87.5% Q-20: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf or hairy children, but not both, in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 87.5% Q-21: In a cross between parent with genotype TtHh and ttHh, where T = Tall; t= dwarf; H = hairy & h = bald, the percentage of dwarf or bald children, but not both, in total possible progeny would be: (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 87.5% Q-22: Father is of blood group O and mother of blood group B. The percentage of children with blood group O would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 62.5% Q-23: Father is of blood group O and mother of blood group O. The percentage of children with blood group O would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-24: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group B. The percentage of children with blood group O would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-25: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group O. The percentage of children with blood group A would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-26: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group B would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-27: Father is of blood group AB and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group B would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-28: Father is of blood group AB and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group AB would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-29: Father is of blood group AB and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group A would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-30: Father is of blood group AB and mother of blood group O. The percentage of children with blood group A would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-31: Father is of blood group AB and mother of blood group O. The percentage of children with blood group B would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-32: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group B would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-33: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group A would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100% Q-34: Father is of blood group A and mother of blood group AB. The percentage of children with blood group AB would be (A) 12.5% (B) 25.0% (C) 50.0% (D) 100%
Ans-01:(C) Ans-02:(C) Ans-03:(D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Ans-04:(D) Father -> daughter -> grandson Ans-05:(C) Mother -> son -> granddaughter Ans-06:(C) Mother -> daughter -> granddaughter Ans-07:(A) Father -> son -> grandson Ans-08:(A) 0%. Parents don`t have bald allele. Ans-09:(C) 50% Ans-10:(C) 50% Ans-11:(A) 12.5% Ans-12:(C) 50% Ans-13:(B) 25% Ans-14:(D) 87.5% Ans-15:(D) 100% Ans-16:(C) 62.5% Ans-17:(C) 62.5% Ans-18:(B) 25.0% Ans-19:(B) 25.0% Ans-20:(C) 50.0% Ans-21:(C) 50.0% Ans-22:(C) 50.0%. (it can be either zero or 50%; since zero is not in option, it would be 50%) Ans-23:(D) 100% Ans-24:(B) 25.0%. It means both mother and father are heterozygous Ans-25:(C) 50.0% Ans-26:(B) 25.0% Ans-27:(B) 25.0% Ans-28:(C) 50.0% Ans-29:(B) 25.0% Ans-30:(C) 50.0% Ans-31:(C) 50.0% Ans-32:(B) 25.0% Ans-33:(C) 50.0% Ans-34:(B) 25.0%
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ on Pedigree Analysis https://ift.tt/2SXSFBW
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ On Nucleic Acid https://ift.tt/2F7fQXk
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ On Nucleic Acid
Q-01: In RNA, Adenine always pair with... (A) Guanine (B) Cytosine (C) Thymine (D) Uracil Q-02: In RNA, Guanine always pair with: (A) Adenine (B) Cytosine (C) Thymine (D) Uracil Q-03: What is the correct equation, if S = Pentose Sugar B = Nitrogenous Base P = Phosphate group Pu = Purines Py = Pyrimidines (A) Nucleotide = S + B + Py (B) Nucleotide = S + B + Pu (C) Nucleotide = S + B + P (D) Nucleotide = Nucleoside + Pu Q-04: What is the correct equation, if S = Pentose Sugar B = Nitrogenous Base P = Phosphate group Pu = Purines Py = Pyrimidines (A) Nucleoside = S + B + Nucleotide (B) Nucleoside = S + P (C) Nucleoside = S + B (D) Nucleoside = P + s + B Q-05: Pyrimidines are: (A) Cytosine, Thymine (B) Adenine, Uracil, Thymine (C) Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine (D) Cytosine, Guanine Q-06: Purines are: (A) Cytosine, Thymine (B) Adenine, Uracil, Thymine (C) Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine (D) Adenine, Guanine Q-07: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs is incorrect? (A) T-A (B) G-C (C) U-T (D) U-A Q-08: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs is correct? (A) T-U (B) G-A (C) G-T (D) U-A Q-09: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs is correct? (A) T-A (B) C-A (C) G-U (D) U-C Q-10: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs is incorrect? (A) T-A (B) C-G (C) G-U (D) U-A Q-11: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs have double hydrogen bond? (A) U-C & U-G (B) G-C & C-G (C) A-T & U-A (D) U-T & U-C Q-12: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs have triple hydrogen bond? (A) U-C & U-G (B) G-C & C-G (C) A-T & U-A (D) U-T & U-C Q-13: What is the correct equation, if S = Pentose Sugar B = Nucleobase P = Phosphate group Nt = Nucleotide Ns = Nucleoside (A) P = Nt - Ns (B) Ns = Nt + P (C) Nt = S + Ns (D) Nt = S + B Q-14: What is the correct equation, if S = Pentose Sugar B = Nucleobase P = Phosphate group Nt = Nucleotide Ns = Nucleoside (A) B = Nt  - S (B) B = Ns + S (C) S = Ns - B (D) Nt = B + P Q-15: What is the correct equation, if S = Pentose Sugar B = Nucleobase P = Phosphate group Nt = Nucleotide Ns = Nucleoside (A) P = Nt - S (B) P = Ns + S (C) Ns = Nt - P (D) Ns = B + P + S Q-16: Adenosine is a (A) Nucleobase (B) Nitrogenous base (C) Ribonucleoside (D) Nucleotide Q-17: Guanosine is a (A) Nucleobase (B) Nitrogenous base (C) Ribonucleoside (D) Nucleotide Q-18: Thymidine is a (A) Nucleobase (B) Nitrogenous base (C) Deoxyribonucleoside (D) Nucleotide Q-19: Uridine is a (A) Nucleobase (B) Nitrogenous base (C) Ribonucleoside (D) Nucleotide Q-20: Cytidine is a (A) Nucleobase (B) Nitrogenous base (C) Ribonucleoside (D) Nucleotide Q-21: The chemical formula for nucleobase, Adenine is: (A) C4H5N3O (B) C5H6N2O2 (C) C5H5N5 (D) C5H5N5O (E) C4H4N2O2 Q-22: The chemical formula for nucleobase, Cytosine is: (A) C4H5N3O (B) C5H6N2O2 (C) C5H5N5 (D) C5H5N5O (E) C4H4N2O2 Q-23: The chemical formula for nucleobase, Guanine is: (A) C4H5N3O (B) C5H6N2O2 (C) C5H5N5 (D) C5H5N5O (E) C4H4N2O2 Q-24: The chemical formula for nucleobase, Thymine is: (A) C4H5N3O (B) C5H6N2O2 (C) C5H5N5 (D) C5H5N5O (E) C4H4N2O2 Q-25: The chemical formula for nucleobase, Uracil is: (A) C4H5N3O (B) C5H6N2O2 (C) C5H5N5 (D) C5H5N5O (E) C4H4N2O2 Q-26: The rules regarding nucleobases, such as (I) purine and pyrimidine content of DNA are equal; (II) A + G = T + C (III) A + C = T + G, etc, were formulated by (A) Fredrick Griffith (B) Linus Pauling (C) Erwin Chargaff (D) O. T. Avery and Coworker Q-27: Which of the following is not present in RNA? (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine Q-28: Which of the following is not present in RNA? (A) Adenine (B) Ribose Sugar (C) Uracil (D) Thymine Q-29: Which of the following is not present in RNA? (A) Adenine (B) Ribose Sugar (C) Uracil (D) Deoxyribose Sugar Q-30: Which of the following is present in RNA? (A) Thymine (B) Cytidine (C) Uridine (D) Adenine Q-31: Which of the following is present in mRNA? (A) Thymine (B) Cytidine (C) Uridine (D) Guanine Q-32: Which of the following is not present in mRNA? (A) Adenine (B) Uridine (C) Cytosine (D) Guanine Q-33: Which of the following is present in mRNA? (A) Guanosine (B) Adenosine (C) Uridine (D) Cytosine Q-34: Which of the following is not present in mRNA? (A) Purine (B) Phosphate Group (C) Uracil (D) Deoxyribose Sugar Q-35: rRNA is also called: (A) soluble RNA (B) insoluble RNA (C) supernatant RNA (D) adaptor RNA Q-36: Which of the following types of RNA, constitute 60 to 80% of the total RNA? (A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) rRNA (D) All have equal proportion. Q-37: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs is incorrect in RNA? (A) T-A (B) A-U (C) G-C (D) U-A Q-38: If A = Adenine, C = Cytosine, G = Guanine, T = Thymine and U = Uracil, which of the following base pairs have double hydrogen bond? (A) T-A & A-U (B) U-T & U-A (C) G-C & C-G (D) U-A & U-C
Ans-01:(D) It pairs with Thymine in DNA (A-T), but with Uracil in RNA (A-U) Ans-02:(B) Guanine always pair with Cytosine, whether in DNA or RNA Ans-03:(C) Nucleotide = S + B + P Ans-04:(C) Nucleoside = S + B Ans-05:(C) Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine Ans-06:(D) Adenine, Guanine Ans-07:(C) U-T Ans-08:(D) U-A Ans-09:(A) T-A Ans-10:(C) G-U Ans-11:(C) A-T & U-A Ans-12:(B) G-C & C-G Ans-13:(A) P = Nt - Ns Ans-14:(C) S = Ns - B Ans-15:(C) Ns = Nt - P Ans-16:(C) Ribonucleoside Ans-17:(C) Ribonucleoside Ans-18:(C) Deoxyribonucleoside Ans-19:(C) Ribonucleoside Ans-20:(C) Ribonucleoside Ans-21:(C) Ans-22:(A) Ans-23:(D) Ans-24:(B) Ans-25: (5) Ans-26:(C) Erwin Chargaff in 1950. Also called `Chargaff`s Rules` Ans-27:(C) Thymine Ans-28:(D) Thymine Ans-29:(D) Deoxyribose Sugar Ans-30:(D) Adenine Ans-31:(D) Guanine Ans-32:(B) Uridine Ans-33:(D) Cytosine Ans-34:(D) Deoxyribose Sugar Ans-35:(B) insoluble RNA Ans-36:(C) rRNA Ans-37:(A) T-A Ans-38:(A) T-A & A-U
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ on Genetic Mutations https://ift.tt/2SQhkZ1
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zoomgenetics · 6 years ago
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MCQ on Genetic Mutations
Q-01: A particular length of DNA which is capable of undergoing mutation is called: (A) Codon (B) Muton (C) Recon (D) Cistron Q-02: A particular length of DNA which is capable of crossing over or recombination is called: (A) Recom (B) Crosson (C) Recon (D) Cistron Q-03: Which of the following is the jumping gene, which copy in two stages; first from DNA to RNA by transcription and then from RNA to DNA by reverse transcription? The DNA copy is then inserted in a new position {Copy and Paste} (A) DNA transposon (B) RNA transposon (C) Retroposon (D) Retrotransposon Q-04: Which of the following is the jumping gene, which pass from one location to another by the mechanism that the enzyme transposase makes a staggered cut at the target site producing sticky ends, cut out the transposon and ligates in a new position. {Cut and Paste} (A) DNA transposon (B) RNA transposon (C) Retroposon (D) Retrotransposon Q-05: Which of the following is the DNA segment, which are formed from RNA or which are formed by reverse transcription enzyme or RNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme. (A) DNA transposons (B) RNA transposons (C) Retroposons (D) Retrotransposons Q-06: Eukaryotic gene without introns is called: (A) Interrupted gene (B) Split gene (C) Pseudo gene (D) Exonic gene Q-07: The smallest muton in a gene is (A) single base-pair of DNA (B) double base-pair of DNA (C) triple base-pair of DNA (D) quadruple base-pair of DNA Q-08: Mutation from wild type to a new type is called ________ mutation. (A) forward (B) reverse (C) somatic (D) germinal Q-09: Mutation which is not inheritable is called ________ mutation. (A) forward (B) reverse (C) somatic (D) germinal Q-10: Mutation from mutated gene to its wild form is called ________ mutation. (A) forward (B) reverse (C) somatic (D) germinal Q-11: A single mutation which results in changing more than one character is called ________ mutation. (A) polymeric (B) pleiotropic (C) somatic (D) germinal Q-12: A gene mutation which involves more than one base pair or entire gene is called ________ mutation. (A) polymeric (B) pleiotropic (C) gross (D) germinal Q-13: If in a gene mutation, adenine is replaced with guanine, it is called _________________ (A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Insertion (D) Its impossible Q-14: If in a gene mutation, cytosine is replaced with thymine, it is called _________________ (A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Insertion (D) Its impossible Q-15: If in a gene mutation, cytosine is replaced with guanine, it is called _________________ (A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Insertion (D) Its impossible Q-16: If in a gene mutation, adenine is replaced with thymine, it is called _________________ (A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Insertion (D) Its impossible Q-17: If in a gene mutation, a purine is replaced with a pyrimidine base, it is called _________________ (A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Insertion (D) Its impossible Q-18: In a mutation, where the triplet is changed from AGA to AGG, it is a case of ________ mutation (A) Missense (B) Non-sense (C) Same sense (D) None of the above Q-19: In a mutation, where the triplet is changed from CCA to CCG, it is a case of ________ mutation (A) Missense (B) Non-sense (C) Same sense (D) None of the above Q-20: In a mutation, where the triplet is changed from GAC to GAG, it is a case of ________ mutation (A) Missense (B) Non-sense (C) Same sense (D) None of the above Q-21: In a mutation, where the triplet is changed from UAC to UAG, it is a case of ________ mutation (A) Missense (B) Non-sense (C) Same sense (D) None of the above Q-22: In a mutation, where the triplet is changed from GAG to GUG, it is a case of ________ mutation (A) Missense (B) Non-sense (C) Same sense (D) None of the above
Ans-01:(B) Muton Ans-02:(C) Recon Ans-03:(D) Retrotransposons Ans-04:(A) DNA transposons Ans-05:(C) Retroposons Ans-06:(D) Exonic gene Ans-07:(A) single base-pair of DNA (A-T or G-C) Ans-08:(A) forward Ans-09:(C) somatic Ans-10:(B) reverse Ans-11:(B) pleiotropic Ans-12:(C) gross Ans-13:(B) Transition Ans-14:(B) Transition Ans-15:(A) Transversion Ans-16:(A) Transversion Ans-17:(A) Transversion Ans-18:(C) Same sense (also called silent mutation). Will code for Arginine anyway! Ans-19:(C) Same sense (also called silent mutation) Will code for Proline anyway! Ans-20:(A) Missense GAC will code for Aspartic acid GAG will code for Glutamic acid Ans-21:(B) Non-sense UAG = stop codon UAC will code for Tyrosine Ans-22:(A) Missense. [Causes Sickle-cell anaemia. It results in the transformation of HbA into HbS, in which Glutamic acid (Glu) is replaced by Valine (Val) in the sixth position in each of two ß-chains of haemoglobin molecule.]
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