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Free book Network Security, Firewalls and VPNs, 2nd Edition
Free book Network Security, Firewalls and VPNs, 2nd Edition Book: Network Security, Firewalls and VPNs, 2nd Edition ISBN: 9781284031676 Download Link: https://www.dropbox.com/s/i98r6ngbsldmh44/9781284031676.zip
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Free book CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 edition
Free book CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 edition Book: CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 edition ISBN: 9781426018183 Download Link: https://www.dropbox.com/s/bqyyxut8mv0hexy/9781426018183.zip
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 8 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 8 Answers Q:True or false? Customer sign-off isn’t part of the closure phase. A:False Q:How can the closure phase be useful in planning future projects? A:In identifying potential mistakes to avoid. Q:What’s the last step in the closure phase? A:Release resources Q:During the closure phase, the team is released from the project. Whom should you notify that you’ve released project team members? A:Functional managers
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 7 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 7 Answers Q:How should any changes to the project be handled during the executing phase? A:By effectively using the change control process. Q:What’s scope creep? A:It’s the gradual addition of new system requirements to the original specifications. Evolving stakeholder expectations, the recognition of new possibilities by team members, or open-ended and unclear scope definition documents all can contribute to scope creep. Q:List the three compliance standards that can apply to a project. A:Standards compliance, Process compliance, and Decision oversight. Q:Change control is usually the _______ part of a project and, if not controlled, can lead to significant resource waste and missed schedules. A:B Weakest Q:The deliverable for your project has been deemed complete and error-free by the project development team. What testing should you perform at this point? A:User acceptance testing
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 6 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 6 Answers Q:Why is project tracking important? A:To track the overall progress and milestone achievements. Q:Define earned value. A:The technique used to monitor project progress in terms of scope, time, and cost. Q:Name the two reports commonly used to track a project. A:Project status report and variance report Q:Define variance. A:The difference between the plan and the actual. Q:List two reasons why a project might be behind schedule when it comes to managing resources. A:Miscommunication and lack of training
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 5 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 5 Answers Q:List three guidelines for dealing with individual performance issues. A:Always try to deal with the issues in private. A:Stress the impact of individual performance on team success. A:Be sure the expectations have been clearly communicated. A:Try to get insight into the root cause of the behavior. A:Jointly develop specific actions and expectations to be monitored until the performance is up to par. Q:What types of written communication should you use to keep the customer or sponsor informed of what is going on with the project? A:Status reports A:Other written updates
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 4 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 4 Answers
Q:True or false? Team meetings support group interaction and clarification and some ability for the sender of information to check for understanding by the recipients. A:True
Q:What are three methods of communication in a project? A:Team meetings, memoranda and e-mails, and presentations.
Q:Identify the communication medium that provides detailed documents, typically with supporting data to provide sufficient information for review and assessment. A:B Reports
Q:What's the recommended frequency for team meetings? A:C Weekly
Q:What's the recommended frequency for team meetings? A:C Weekly
Q:What are the four main components of a seller contract? A:Requirements, delivery dates, performance reporting requirements, and acceptance criteria.
Q:You should create high-level reports for what audience on a monthly basis? A:Senior management.
Q:What are the three major components of risk management? A:Identification, quantification, and response
Q:How will you monitor the quality of an ongoing project? A:Through periodic inspections, verification testing, reviews by peers, customer surveys, focus groups, and quality review meetings.
Q:List the factors involved in quality management. A:Planning A:Communication A:Monitoring A:Response
Q:What are types of costs of quality management? A:Prevention costs, appraisal costs, and failure costs
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 3 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 3 Answers
Q:True or false? Planning is a one-time activity in a project. A:False
Q:Explain the functions of the planning process. A:Defining a project from start to finish, breaking down work into smaller, manageable pieces, and recognizing critical performance milestones.
Q:What is a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A:A detailed document describing the breakdown of a project’s work.
Q:What is identified in a WBS? A:Tasks
Q:True or false? If risks exist for a project, one should still proceed with the project. A:True. Knowing about these risks helps you prepare to address them.
Q:What factors should you consider when estimating the cost of a project? A:Labor, equipment and material, and facilities
Q:Describe critical path. A:Critical path establishes the length of a project. If any task in the critical path isn’t accomplished on time, the project won’t be finished on time.
Q:List three factors to consider when choosing a project team member. A:Expertise and experience A:Interest in working on the project A:Availability
Q:List two visual project-scheduling tools. A:Milestone chart A:Summary chart A:Gantt (bar) chart A:Network diagram
Q:What are strategies you can use during cost estimating? A:Get contributions from your project team, document your costs and calculations, and use software or templates related to the project.
Q:List the activities to create a human resource management plan. A:List the resources for each activity in the Gantt chart along with the hours that they’ll be needed and the spread of the hours over the duration of the activity. A:Add the hours on all activities for each resource for each time period to show the total hours that the resource is assigned to the project.
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 2 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 2 Answers
Q:Document to solicit quotes or bid A:Request For Quote (RFQ)
Q:Clearly identifying the boundaries of the project is: A:Defining the Scope
Q:Match the assessment method types with the respective definition: A:Survey/Questionnaire - Written questions for sellers to explain their capabilities A:Audit - Assess sellers' capabilities to confirm sellers' answers A:Interview - Assess knowledge of responders to determine how their capabilities will meet requirements A:Review of Previous Work - Assess previous projects and determine quality of work A:Review of Quality Systems - Assess quality of work and quality assurance steps
Q:Once you are in the planning stage, you no longer need the stakeholder involved in the planning process as this is the project manager's responsibilities. A:False
Q:A category to estimate cost that uses a Top-Down Approach (and may leverage estimates from previous projects) is: A:Analogous
Q:What is NOT a part of the scope statement? A:Project scope creep
Q:Using the analogy approach for creating a Work Breakdown Structure should be avoided since you should not use other project's documents when developing your own project. A:False
Q:Document to solicit info from prospective sellers, surveying the market: A:Request For Information (RFI)
Q:Plan to smoothly share information to stakeholders: A:Communications Management Plan
Q:This document lists all of the identified risks: A:Risk Register OR A:Register
Q:The first step in defining the project scope is researching to see if other capabilities exist. A:False
Q:A formal project management plan review meeting is not necessary as all issues should have already been addressed. A:False
Q:A critical path means the tasks on that path are very important; however, if one of those tasks fall behind and is late the whole project schedule is affected and must the updated date must be moved to the right. A:True
Q:The Kickoff Meeting is typically conducted at the end of the Implementation Phase. A:False
Q:Is used to during the Project, within each phase, to determine the difference between the original allocated budget and the actual spending: A:Budget Variance
Q:Adding additional resources to a task is ________________ a project. A:Crashing
Q:A Project Management Plan is a collection of all plans created during the planning phase of a project. A:True
Q:Planning doesn't involve chopping up work into smaller pieces. A:False
Q:Match the Risk term with the correct definition A:Risk Avoidance - eliminating that risk altogether A:Risk Transfer - Shifting the risk to another party A:Risk Mitigation - Reducing probability or impact of risk A:Residual risk - risk left over after mitigating and/or transferring A:Risk Acceptance - Accepting consequences of minor risk
Q:Place the steps of creating a Project Management Plan into the proper order: A:1. Creating the table of contents A:2. Designing a project management plan change control process A:3. Sponsor review of the Table of Contents A:4. Write the Project Management Plan
Q:Conducting inspections to keep errors out of a product is: A:Reactive Quality Management
Q:___________________ is an important document as it contains specs and details for a contract. A:Statement of Work OR A:SOW OR A:Statement of Work (SOW)
Q:Match the planning functions with their correct description A:Translate requirements into manageable tasks - Goal of planning stage is to determine how to meet the business requirements that were initially defines during the initiation phase A:Define resources needed - Detailed plans permit you to determine what people, equipment, and facilities will be needed when. A:Coordinate project team work - A number of people, working semi-independently and in parallel, perform project activities. Plans provide coordination by determining who's doing what and when. A:Evaluate potential risks - While some risks can be identified while determining the project scope , many more surface only after detailed planning is performed. Knowing about these risks helps you prepare risk mitigation strategies. A:Signal emerging problems - Plans serve the project manager as an initial expectation and base of comparison. Deviations between actual and plan signal emerging problems. If the project isn't meeting expectations, then corrective actions should be taken.
Q:A category used to estimate cost that leverages mathematic equations to be computed is: A:Parametric
Q:Match the type of Work Breakdown Structure approach with the proper definition: A:Analogy - Using another project's previously created work to start off with. A:Top-Down - Using larger requirements and breaking them down into smaller requirements/tasks A:Bottom-Up - Develop as many items/requirements as possible to the smallest level and then consolidate them into larger groups A:Guidelines - Tasks/requirements provided to you in advance to follow
Q:Document used to solicit proposal from prospective sellers. A:Request For Proposal (RFP)
Q:A Request For Proposal (RFP) is a document used to determine if capabilities exists in the market landscape and survey what potential bidders could submit in the future. A:False
Q:Using the PERT method, what is the expected cost of a given activity using the parameters provided (whole dollars only, without going to the right of the decimal): Pessimistic estimate = $75,000 Most Likely estimate = $40,000 Optimistic estimate = $25,000 A:$43,333
Q:A hierarchical decomposition & organizational structure of activities is: A:Work Breakdown Structure
Q:Choose all uses of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) A:Managing the budget A:Scheduling resources A:Status Updates
Q:The process of identifying, quantifying, and controlling potential risk that could have impact on the project is: A:Risk Management
Q:Breaking work down into smaller pieces complicates things and makes the project much more difficult to manage. A:False
Q:A make-or-buy analysis allows you to determine if the return on investment would be higher for making the item yourself (building) or if buying (out sourcing) the item. A:True
Q:Preventative measures which keep errors out of a product is: A:Proactive Quality Management
Q:Cost estimate categories typically are: A:Facilities A:Labor A:Material
Q:Match the Risk Level with the correct Severity Definition A:1 - Minor issue A:2 - Limited potential for time or cost overrun A:3 - Some potential of failure A:4 - Potential of project failure A:5 - Project will fail
Q:A category to estimate cost that works at off the Work Breakdown Structure levels is: A:Bottom-Up
Q:Proactive quality management is normally 10 times less expensive than reactive quality management. A:True
Q:A contingency reserve assists with unexpected costs that creep up with the project. A:True
Q:Risk is calculated by: A:Probability X Impact
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Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures Third Edition Chapter 5 Test Answers
Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures Third Edition Chapter 5 Test Answers
Q:Which of the following is true about cryptographic primitives? A:primitives are usually not the source of security failures
Q:Which of the following best describes a one-way function? A:easy to compute but difficult and time consuming to reverse
Q:Which of the following is commonly used for verifying message integrity? A:hashing function
Q:Which of the following is described as a 64-bit block cipher composed of a 16-round Feistel network and key-dependent S-box functions? A:Blowfish
Q:Which of the following is true about Message Authentication Code. A:the key is sent to the receiver securely
Q:What is a downside to using Triple DES? A:requires more processing time
Q:At which layer of the OSI model does IPsec work? A:Three
Q:Which of the following is a type of cryptanalysis that applies primarily to block ciphers but can also be used against stream ciphers and hashing functions and works by examining how differences in input affect the output? A:differential
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 2 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 2 Answers
Q:True or false? Risk assessment isn’t part of the project charter. A:False
Q:True or false? To successfully complete a project, stakeholders’ consensus is necessary. A:True
Q:List three stakeholders for a typical project. A:Sponsor A:Customer A:End-user A:Project team A:Project manager A:Media A:Public
Q:List three ways to identify stakeholder requirements. A:Focus groups A:Surveys A:Interviews
Q:List two informal project drivers. A:Spending allocated budget and maintaining prestige.
Q:Who creates a scope definition document? A:The project manager
Q:List at least four components of a scope document. A:Project goals A:Deliverables A:Boundaries A:Ownership
Q:Why is it important to identify informal drivers? A:Informal drivers should be identified so a project isn’t initiated just on the basis of these drivers. Informal drivers usually have no business or strategic justification.
Q:Who’s a stakeholder? A:An individual or entity that might be affected by a project.
Q:Which of the following is the role performed by a sponsor? A:B Initiate the project and finance it.
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 1 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Questions Chapter 1 Answers
Q:What defines a successful project? A:When it’s delivered on time, within budget, and meets scope requirements.
Q:Define the term “project life-cycle.” A:The project life-cycle is the sum of the five project phases: initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/controlling, and closing.
Q:List three ways IT projects differ from non-IT projects. A:The deliverable is often intangible. A:The designers are often the implementers. A:Most IT departments have multiple projects going on at one time, and the projects might be dependent on each other.
Q:Describe at least two responsibilities of a project manager. A:Identifies the high-level tasks for the project. A:Assembles a team for the project. A:Determines a timeline for the project. A:Estimates costs. A:Creates the project management plan.
Q:What occurs during the initiating and planning phase? A:Needs are identified, and the scope of the project is defined. In addition, a budget and schedule are created.
Q:Why do projects fail? A:Uninvolved sponsors A:Poor project planning A:Changes in project managers A:Lack of work definition and responsibility A:Unclear benefits and deliverables A:Lack of change control A:Technology changes A:Lack of required skills within the project team A:Scope creep
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 1 Answers Which organizational structure is denoted in the picture above: Selected Answer: Matrix Project Manager and 2 Staff Assigned to Project
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 1 Answers Which organizational structure is denoted in the picture above: Selected Answer: Functional Answers: Functional Project Manager and 2 Staff Assigned to Project
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CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 1 Answers
CompTIA Project+ Certification 2009 Edition Test 1 Answers
Q:You must be able to satisfy everyone's requirements of a project in order to label the project successful. A:False
Q:Match the organizational structure with the correct attributes A:Functional - Team members are loyal to their departments and report only to their functional manager A:Matrix - Team members maintain a home in their department and report to both the XYZ manager and the Project Manager A:Weak Matrix - Between functional and a balanced matrix. A:Strong Matrix - Between a balanced matrix and projectized organization. A:Projectized - Team members have no department they belong to; they are loyal only to the project.
Q:Formally recognizes the Project and authorizes a Project Manager A:Project Charter
Q:Scope Creep is an ongoing problem for projects. A:True
Q:Choose all of the below that are considered common informal project drivers A:Job security A:Need to use up all budgeted money in order to obtain more the next year A:Prestige
Q:Match the stakeholder title with the respective role definition A:Sponsor - The individual initiating the work and ultimately providing the resources to support the project. A:Customer - Individual / group which will eventually receive the products and/or services as an outcome of the project. A:End-User - Folks affected by products and/or services generated by project. A:Seller - Personnel affected by project, such as contractors. A:Project Team - Professional(s) serving on the project team A:Project Manager - Individual managing the project.
Q:Frequent change of Project Managers is good for the project as it allows new faces and ideas to be introduced. A:False
Q:In a projectized organization, the Project Manager AND the Team Members are full time on the project. A:True
Q:During initiating phase, you implement the project management plan, complete the work, and coordinate staff. A:False
Q:Projects should be driven by a _________________ that results in benefits to an organization. A:Business Case
Q:Project success can be contributed to all of the following, except A:Project estimate based on one input
Q:Requirements may not be adequate due to being all of the below expect A:Detailed
Q:Defines requirements and expectations of all involved in the project; issued by a project sponsor; and clarifies roles and expectations. A:Project Charter
Q:Which of the following defines the Triple constraint? A:Scope, Time, Cost
Q:Stakeholders consist of (choose all that apply) A:Project Manager A:Sponsor A:Customer A:Project Team Member A:Project Manager
Q:Only when outputs are measurable can you determine whether the project is moving along on time and within budget. A:True
Q:Projects are ongoing efforts and provide repetitive products or services. A:False
Q:The project scope should be define by the Project Manager with the assistance of the Sponsor(s), Customer(s), Team Members, and any other Stakeholder(s). A:True
Q:It is not required to identify stakeholders’ expectations, needs, or requirements to ensure the project is successful. A:False
Q:Assumptions don’t need to be documented as they are just assumptions and not of a concern. A:False
Q:Constraints are limitations imposed on project and could be financial constraints or resource-based constraints. A:True
Q:Select two factors that drive poor performance of a project A:Poor communications between IT organization and Business units A:Lack of project management skills
Q:Personal agendas have no affect on the success of a project. A:False
Q:Individuals and organizations who are are affect by and have an interest in a project (using proper terminology) A:Stakeholders
Q:Define the proper order of the Project Management Process A:Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring, Closing
Q:This translates business requirements into technical and functional requirements. A:Requirements Analysis
Q:The closing phase formalizes the rejection of the project and ensures the project moves to the controlling phase. A:False
Q:Choose all of the correct methods to identify requirements A:Focus Groups A:Surveys A:Interviews
Q:Obtaining stakeholders’ consensus in vital to achieve a successful project A:True
Q:Match the type of role with the respective responsibilities A:Sponsor – Finances the project A:Project Team – Assists the Project Manager during planning with time and cost estimates. A:Project Manager – Measures the Project’s performance A:Project Manager – Directs Project planning
Q:A project must have clearly defined objectives/deliverables. Adding requirements to a project while the project is in process is A:Scope Creep
Q:What is the end result of the analysis and data gathering, which includes the major requirements and expectations of stakeholders by name A:Stakeholder Register
Q:A project is defined as all of the following, except which one A:Sustaining operations and maintenance
Q:Risk Assessments are not important during the Project Initiation phase and should not be included in a Project Charter. A:False
Q:Match the outputs of the project management process groups: A:Initiating – Project Charter A:Planning – Project Management Plan A:Executing – Deliverable A:Monitoring/Controlling – Corrective Action(s) A:Closing – Sign-Off
Q:Project Charters should never contain budget or costs associated with a project as this is confidential information. A:False
Q:Projects that are developed in from progressive steps that begin at a high level and continue to a more defined/detailed aspect is called A:Progressive Elaboration
Q:What percentage, approximately, do projects fail? Defining failure as a project is 50% behind scheduled, 50% over budget, or the project is cancelled. A:70%
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