Everything you should know about the coronavirus pandemic
The latest information about the novel coronavirus identified in Wuhan, China, and advice on how pharmacists can help concerned patients and the public.
A novel strain of coronavirus — SARS-CoV-2 — was first detected in December 2019 in Wuhan, a city in China’s Hubei province with a population of 11 million, after an outbreak of pneumonia without an obvious cause. The virus has now spread to over 200 countries and territories across the globe, and was characterised as a pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) on 11 March 2020[1],[2].
As of 3 May 2021, there were 152,534,452 laboratory-confirmed cases of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) infection globally, with 3,198,528 reported deaths. The number of cases and deaths outside of China overtook those within the country on 16 March 2020[3].
As of 3 May 2021, there have been 4,421,850 confirmed cases of the virus in the UK and 127,539 of these have died (in all settings, within 28 days of the test).
This article gives a brief overview of the new virus and what to look out for, and will be updated weekly. It provides answers to the following questions:
What are coronaviruses?
Where has the new coronavirus come from?
How contagious is COVID-19?
How is COVID-19 diagnosed?
What social distancing measures are being taken in the UK?
What is happening with testing for COVID-19?
What should I do if a patient thinks they have COVID-19?
What can I do to protect myself and my staff?
What about ‘business as usual’ during the pandemic?
Will the government provide financial help during the pandemic?
How can cross-infection be prevented?
There has been a lot of talk in the news and on social media about how certain medications can exacerbate the symptoms of COVID-19, what is the current advice around these medications?
Where can I find information on managing COVID-19 patients?
Is the coronavirus pandemic likely to precipitate medicines shortages?
Are there national clinical trials of potential drugs to treat COVID-19?
Is there a vaccine for COVID-19 and, if so, will pharmacy staff be involved in its roll out?
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What are coronaviruses?
SARS-CoV-2 belongs to a family of single-stranded RNA viruses known as coronaviridae, a common type of virus which affects mammals, birds and reptiles.
In humans, it commonly causes mild infections, similar to the common cold, and accounts for 10–30% of upper respiratory tract infections in adults[4]. More serious infections are rare, although coronaviruses can cause enteric and neurological disease[5]. The incubation period of a coronavirus varies but is generally up to two weeks[6].
Previous coronavirus outbreaks include Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS), first reported in Saudi Arabia in September 2012, and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), identified in southern China in 2003[7],[8]. MERS infected around 2,500 people and led to more than 850 deaths while SARS infected more than 8,000 people and resulted in nearly 800 deaths[9],[10]. The case fatality rates for these conditions were 35% and 10%, respectively.
SARS-CoV-2 is a new strain of coronavirus that has not been previously identified in humans. Although the incubation period of this strain is currently unknown, the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention indicate that symptoms may appear in as few as 2 days or as long as 14 days after exposure[6]. Chinese researchers have indicated that SARS-CoV-2 may be infectious during its incubation period[11].
The number of cases and deaths outside of China overtook those within it on 16 March 2020
Where has the new coronavirus come from?
It is currently unclear where the virus has come from. Originally, the virus was understood to have originated in a food market in Wuhan and subsequently spread from animal to human. Some research has claimed that the cross-species transmission may be between snake and human; however, this claim has been contested[12],[13].
Mammals such as camels and bats have been implicated in previous coronavirus outbreaks, but it is not yet clear the exact animal origin, if any, of SARS-CoV-2[14].
How contagious is COVID-19?
Increasing numbers of confirmed diagnoses, including in healthcare professionals, has indicated that person-to-person spread of SARS-CoV-2 is occurring[15]. The preliminary reproduction number (i.e. the average number of cases a single case generates over the course of its infectious period) is currently estimated to be between 1.4 to 2.5, meaning that each infected individual could infect between 1.4 and 2.5 people[16].
Similarly to other common respiratory tract infections, MERS and SARS are spread by respiratory droplets produced by an infected person when they sneeze or cough[17]. There is also some evidence that SARS-CoV-2 can spread by airborne transmission. Measures to guard against the infection work under the current assumption that SARS-CoV-2 is spread in the same manner.
How is COVID-19 diagnosed?
As this coronavirus affects the respiratory tract, common presenting symptoms include fever and dry cough, with some patients presenting with respiratory symptoms (e.g. sore throat, nasal congestion, malaise, headache and myalgia) or even struggling for breath.
In severe cases, the coronavirus can cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory syndrome, kidney failure and death[18].
The case definition for COVID-19 is based on symptoms regardless of travel history or contact with confirmed cases. Diagnosis is suspected in patients with a new, continuous cough, fever or a loss or changed sense of normal smell or taste (anosmia). A diagnostic test has been developed, and countries are quarantining suspected cases[19].
What social distancing measures are being taken in the UK?
The government launched its coronavirus action plan on 3 March 2020, which details four stages: contain, delay, mitigate, research[20]. On 12 March 2020, the UK moved to the delay phase of the plan and raised the risk level to ‘high’.
On 16 March 2020, Johnson announced social distancing measures, such as working from home and avoiding social gatherings, as well as household isolation for those with symptoms[21],[22].
Further social distancing measures were announced on 18 March 2020, including closing all schools in the UK except for vulnerable children and those of key workers, such as pharmacists and other health and social care staff, teachers and delivery drivers. Restaurants, cafes, pubs, leisure centres, nightclubs, cinemas, theatres, museums and other businesses were also told to close.
On 22 March 2020, Johnson announced that the most clinically extremely vulnerable people, including those who have received organ transplants, are living with severe respiratory conditions or specific cancers, and some people taking immunosuppressants, should stay in their homes for at least the next 12 weeks (see Box 2).
Since this date, shielding in England, Scotland and Wales has been eased and brought back in several times in line with lockdown restrictions. And on 16 February 2021, a new risk assessment model was introduced in England to help clinicians identify adults with multiple risk factors that make them more vulnerable to COVID-19, resulting in an additional 1.7 million people being added to the shielding list. Shielding ended in England and Wales on 1 April 2021 and in Scotland on 26 April 2021.
Box 2: Shielding from COVID-19
Those classed as “clinically extremely vulnerable” may include the following (disease severity, history or treatment levels will also affect who is in this group):
Solid organ transplant recipients
People with cancer who are undergoing active chemotherapy
People with lung cancer who are undergoing radical radiotherapy
People with cancers of the blood or bone marrow such as leukaemia, lymphoma or myeloma who are at any stage of treatment
People having immunotherapy or other continuing antibody treatments for cancer
People having other targeted cancer treatments which can affect the immune system, such as protein kinase inhibitors or PARP inhibitors
People who have had bone marrow or stem cell transplants in the last 6 months, or who are still taking immunosuppression drugs
People with severe respiratory conditions including all cystic fibrosis, severe asthma and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary
People with rare diseases that significantly increase the risk of infections (such as severe combined immunodeficiency, homozygous sickle cell)
People on immunosuppression therapies sufficient to significantly increase risk of infection
Adults with Down’s syndrome
Adults on dialysis or with chronic kidney disease (stage 5)
Women who are pregnant with significant heart disease, congenital or acquired
Other people who have also been classed as clinically extremely vulnerable, based on clinical judgement and an assessment of their needs. GPs and hospital clinicians have been provided with guidance to support these decisions
A strict lockdown started in the UK on 23 March 2020, with people told to stay at home except to buy essential food and medicines, one form of exercise a day, any medical need, and travelling to and from essential work. Gatherings of more than two people in public was not allowed and all shops selling non-essential goods, libraries, playgrounds, outdoor gyms and places of worship closed. All social events, including weddings, baptisms and other ceremonies, but excluding funerals were cancelled.
A relaxation of the lockdown was announced by Johnson on 10 May 2020. The government published a 60-page ‘recovery strategy’ on 11 May 2020, which sets out the next phases of the UK’s response to the virus, including easing some social restrictions, getting people back to work and reopening schools.
Local lockdowns were introduced at the end of June 2020 to try to control the spread of coronavirus in particular regions in England but cases continue to rise and a second national lockdown was imposed from 5 November 2020 for four weeks. A three-tier system of restrictions will follow the national lockdown in England. In Scotland, a five-level alert system was introduced on 2 November, which will allow different restrictions to be imposed in local areas depending on the prevalence of the infection. A fire-break lockdown came into force in Wales from 23 October 2020, and ran until 9 November 2020.
On 19 December 2020, new tier-four restrictions were imposed in London, Kent and Essex and other parts of the South East of England, meaning that individuals in those areas had to stay at home and not meet up with other households. On 31 December 2020, further areas of England including the Midlands, North East, parts of the North West and parts of the South West were also escalated to tier four.
A new national lockdown was imposed in England and Scotland from 5 January 2021, and similar restrictions were introduced in Wales shortly after. The lockdowns began to lift in steps from the end of March 2021.
What is happening with testing for COVID-19?
Tests can now be accessed by anyone with symptoms via nhs.uk/coronavirus.
An NHS test and trace service was launched across England on 28 May 2020, with similar services starting in Scotland and Wales around the same time. Anyone who tests positive for the virus is contacted to share information about their recent interactions. People identified as being in close contact with someone who tests positive will have to self-isolate for 10 days, regardless of whether they have symptoms.
Testing is also now available to care home staff and residents in England, and NHS workers where there is a clinical need, whether or not they have symptoms.
Pharmacy staff in England and Scotland should book tests online via gov.uk and they will be conducted at drive-through testing sites across the country, as well as via home testing kits.
Pharmacy staff in Wales with symptoms of COVID-19 are able to access testing through their Local Health Board.
The government has also announced the start of a new national antibody testing programme, with plans to provide antibody tests to NHS and care staff in England from the end of May 2020. Clinicians will also be able to request the tests for patients in both hospital and social care settings if they think it is appropriate.
Regular testing of asymptomatic patient-facing staff delivering NHS services using lateral flow antigen tests was introduced in NHS trusts in November and expanded to primary care services in December 2020.
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300+ TOP NEUROLOGY Objective Questions and Answers
NEUROLOGY Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment, and confusion is known as?
A. Alzheimer disease
B. cerebral palsy
C. Tourette syndrome
D. myasthenia gravis
Ans:A
2. This sign/reflex is used to diagnose meningitis:
A. Hormans
B. Brudzinski
C. anterior drawer
D. startle
Ans:B
3. Demyelination is defined as?
A. loss of an axon in a neuron
B. loss of dendrites in a neuron
C. loss of protective sheath surrounding neurons
D. loss of the connective tissue between neurons
Ans:C
4. Serotonin and dopamine are?
A. neurotransmitters
B. components of CSF
C. only found in patients with neurological disorders
D. components of the myelin sheath
Ans:A
5. A sulcus is also known as a?
A. cortex
B. fissure
C. lobe
D. medulla
Ans: B
6. The cauda equina is located?
A. at the beginning of the spinal cord above the atlas
B. in the cerebellum
C. between vertebrae
D. at the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra
Ans: D
7. Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing, and other vital functions?
A. brainstem
B. gray matter
C. occipital lobe
D. white matter
Ans:A
8. A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a (an) ?
A. glial cell
B. epithelial cell
C. neuron
D. proton
Ans: C
9. The term convulsion means a (an) ?
A. injury resulting from a blow
B. tremor
C. violent involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations
D. involuntary and quick repetitious spasms of a muscle
Ans:A
10. Which of the following procedures is used to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid?
A. myelography
B. cerebral angioplasty
C. lumbar puncture
D. MRA
Ans: C
NEUROLOGY MCQs
11. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSS A nalysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
B.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
C.The patient presents with a history of progressive light hemiparesis. Skull films, EKG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRH will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
D.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, ECG, and ESF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
Ans: B
12. The term medulloblastoma refers to a (an) ?
A. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
B. star-shaped tumor
C. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
D. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere
Ans: D
13. A chronic disease characterized by a loss of the myelin sheath, causing paresthesias, muscle weakness, and unsteady gait is called?
A. multiple sclerosis
B. cerebral palsy
C. Huntington chorea
D. narcolepsy
Ans: A
14. A type of brain surgery that uses a system of three-dimensional coordinates to locate the operative site is called?
A. densitometric
B. microsurgery
C. sterotactic
D. laparoscopic
Ans: C
15. The combining for radicul/o refers to a?
A. nerve cell
B. membrane
C. nerve root
D. sheath
Ans: C
16. The term anencephalus means a (an) ?
A. congenital absence of the brain and cranial space
B. lack of memory
C. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
D. loss of sensation
Ans: B
17. Diminished sensitivity to stimulation is called?
A. hypesthesia
B. anesthesia
C. bradykinesia
D. hyperesthesia
Ans: A
18. The term encephalocele refers to a (an) ?
A. rapidly growing malignant tumor
B. congenital hernia in which meninges protrude through an opening in the skull or spinal column
C. abnormal smallness of the head
D. protrusion of the brain through any opening in the skull
Ans: D
19. The fluid-filled cavities in the brain containing CSF are called?
A. plexuses
B. sulci
C. synapses
D. ventricles
Ans: D
20. The term hypesthesia refers to?
A. sensation of numbness, tingling, prickling, etc.
B. lessening of sensitivity to touch
C. decreased sensitivity to pain
D. consciousness
Ans: B
21. Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movements and staggering walk, due to disorders in the cerebellum is called?
A. anoxia
B. dyslexia
C. paraplegia
D. ataxia
Ans: D
22. Which of the following is the term for an abnormal accumulation of CSF fluid in the brain?
A. Huntington disease
B. hydrocephalus
C. multiple sclerosis
D. spina bifida
Ans: B
23. The inability to use or understand spoken or written language because of a brain lesion is known as?
A. anosmia
B. aphasia
C. dyslexia
D. dysphagia
Ans: B
24. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
B.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
C.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
D.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
Ans: C
25. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the nervous system?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Ans: B
26. The equally divided halves of the brain are known as?
A. cerebral gyri
B. cerebral sulci
C. cerebral cortex
D. cerebral hemispheres
Ans: D
27. The term anarthria refers to the?
A. inability to read
B. inability to remember
C. inability to speak
D. inability to speak remembered words properly
Ans: C
28. The term dysmetria means?
A. the inability to read despite normal vision
B. the impairment of intellectual ability
C. the inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
D. severe pain along the course of a nerve
Ans: C
29. Tabes dorsalis is a term that means?
A. terminal portion of the spinal cord and roots of spinal nerves below the first lubar nerve
B. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
C. disease of CNS, usually caused by syphilis
D. rare disease of nervous system; Guillain-Barre sundrome
Ans: C
30. Retrogasserian neurotomy is a (an) ?
A. interruption of a nerve fiber tract within the spinal cord for relief of pain
B. dissection of the posterior root of the trigeminal ganglion
C. excision of a nerve
D. suture of a nerve
Ans: B
31. The term meralgia paresthetica refers to?
A. sensitivity to pain
B. severe pain along the course of a nerve
C. disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations in the thigh
D. sharp pain along a nerve
Ans: B
32. Which of the following is a column of nervous tissue extending from the medulla oblongata to the second lumbar vertebra?
A. brain stem
B. cauda equine
C. nerve root
D. spinal cord
Ans: D
33. Which of the following is the largest part of the brain?
A. pons
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. basal ganglia
Ans: B
34. The term agnosia refers to the (a) ?
A. inability to read
B. inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
C. severe sharp pain
D. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
Ans: D
35. The brainstem consists of the?
A. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord
B. dura mater and the pia mater
C. pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
D. thalamus and hypothalmamus
Ans: C
36. The brain and the spinal cord make up the?
A. autonomic nervous system
B. brainstem
C. cerebral cortex
D. central nervous system
Ans: D
37. Which of the following is characterized by a lack of muscular coordination caused by a loss of oxygen during pregnancy or the perinatal period?
A. encephalopathy
B. Bell palsy
C. Cerebral palsy
D. concussion
Ans: C
38. The somatic nervous system
A. is part of the central nervous system
B. regulates voluntary motor control
C. regulates involuntary motor control
D. transmits impulses to the cerebrum
Ans: B
39. The term parethesia refers to?
A. severe pain along the course of a nerve
B. the sensation of numbness, pricking, burning, crawling, or tingling
C. a disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations
D. impairment or lessening of sensitivity to touch
Ans: B
40. Which of the following is caused by a thrombus which occludes an artery leading to or within the brain?
A. aneurysm
B. cerebrovascular accident
C. cardiovascular accident
D. ictal event
Ans: B
41. The term astrocytoma refers to a (an) ?
A. tumor composed of neuroglial cells (astrocytes)
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
D. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells
Ans: A
42. The germ gliosis refers to?
A. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
B. impairment of sensitivity to touch
C. inflammation of the spinal cord
D. to and fro movement of the eyeballs as seen in brain damage
Ans: A
43. Which of the following terms is associated with degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia that leads to tremors, weakness of muscles, masklike facies, and slowness of movement?
A. meningitis
B. chorea
C. Parkinson disease
D. Tourette syndrome
Ans: C
44. The term glioblastoma multiforme refers to a (an) ?
A. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere
D. inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and their membranes
Ans: A
45. Babinski and Hoffman are tests to evaluate?
A. response to pain
B. motor coordination
C. gait
D. reflexes
Ans: D
46. A pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella is most likely to cause:
A. bilateral cecocentral scotomata
B. B. bilateral lower field cut
C. C. bitemporal hemianopia
D. D. binasal hemianopia
E. E. diplopia
Ans: C
47. According to cumulative data from many sources: Is the Ketogenic Diet effective in making ALL patients seizure-free?
A. Yes – All patients become seizure-free
B. No: only half will become seizure-free
C. No: a third of patients will become seizure-free
D. It is not effective at all
Ans: C
48. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
49. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
50. One can test for ketone bodies in the blood/urine to determine level of ketosis.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
NEUROLOGY Objective type Questions with Answers
51. These are possible side effects while on the KD:
A. Death
B. Constipation
C. Kidney Stones
D. None, only medications have side effects
E. a,b, and c
Ans: E
52. Do NOT use KetoCal for patients with:
A. Nasal congestion
B. Blindness
C. Lactose intolerance
D. Hard to deal with parents
Ans: C
53. KetoCal 4:1 formulation contains ___% fat?
A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%
Ans: B
54. KetoCal 3:1 formulation contains ___% fat?
A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%
Ans: C
55. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?
A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. KetoCal 3:1 lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above
Ans: D
56. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 3:1?
A. Sucrose
B. Corn Syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose
Ans: C
57. What is the protein source in KetoCal formulas?
A. Soy
B. Cow's milk
C. Amino Acids
D. Soy & Milk
Ans: B
58. Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) is a nutritionally complete ketogenic formula?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
59. KetoCal formulas contain ____% MCT?
A. 30%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. None
Ans: D
60. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30 kcals/oz?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
61. Which Nutricia product should NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?
A. Super Soluble Duocal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix
Ans: A
62. Both KetoCal 3:1 and 4:1 are vanilla flavored?
A. Yes
B. No, Only 4:1 is flavored
C. No, Only 3:1 is flavored
D. Both are unflavored
Ans: B
63. When preparing KetoCal, the amount of water added will change the ratio?
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
64. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
65. Is it safe to cook with KetoCal?
A. No – heating denature the formula
B. Yes, except it cannot be frozen
C. Yes
Ans: C
66. Research has shown that the LCT (long chain triglycerides) diet is more effective than the MCT (medium chain triglycerides) in efficacy.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
67. _______ is a possible alternative dietary treatment for seizures which restricts CHOs (10-20g/day). This diet can induce ketosis, does not restrict protein, fluid or calories and does not require an admission or fast.
A. MCT diet
B. Low-glycemic index diet
C. Modified Atkins Diet (MAD.
Ans: C
68. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
69. What additional supplements are necessary when consuming KetoCal®?
A. Multivitamin
B. Calcium
C. Carnitine
D. None, it is nutritionally complete for most patients
Ans: D
70. The purpose of adding modulars to KetoCal would be to change the ketogenic ratio
A. True
B. False
Ans:A
71. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
72. Nutricia provides the following formulations of KetoCal:
A. 1:1 and 2:1 ratio
B. 2:1 and 3:1 ratio
C. 3:1 and 4:1 ratio
Ans: C
73. The Ketogenic Diet is a diet low in fat and high in carbohydrate.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
74. When deciding to use a 3:1 or 4:1 ratio KetoCal, consider:
A. the age of the patient
B. the number of seizures
C. the type of seizures
D. the dietitian caring for the patient
Ans: A
75. KetoCal formulas are indicated for…
A. Intractable epilepsy
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Glucose transporter type-1 deficiency
D. All of the above
Ans: D
76. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?
A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. Lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above
Ans: D
77. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 4:1?
A. Sucrose
B. Corn syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose
Ans: B
78. KetoCal 3:1 has a mild vanilla flavor and is sweetened with aspartame.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
79. What is the suggested water temperature for mixing KetoCal formulas?
A. 100° F
B. 110°F - 120°F
C. 113°F - 122°F
D. 150°F
Ans: C
80. What is the protein source in Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) ?
A. Soy
B. Cow’s milk
C. Amino acids
D. Soy and milk
Ans: A
81. Does KetoCal have an infant indication?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: B
82. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30kcals/oz
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
83. Which Nutricia product can NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?
A. Ducoal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix
Ans: A
84. What is the hang time for KetoCal formula?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 24 hours
Ans: B
85. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
86. upper motor neurons are central. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
87. lower motor neurons are central. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: B
88. After observing a pts normal gait, you can conclude that which of the following are intact?
A. sensory
B. motor
C. vestibular function
D. cerebellar
E. all of the above
Ans: E
89. What are the most important CN's to test for the neurological exam, because they are most commonly affected with hemispheric disease?
A. III, IV, VI, X
B. II, V, VII
C. X, XI, XII
D. II, IV, VII
Ans: B
90. Pts with illness often have impaired orientation to:
A. person
B. place & time
C. Person, place & time
D. the future
Ans: B
91. Psychiatric problems are more linked to person than time & place. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
92. Which of the following is NOT a form of mental status testing?
A. telling the pt 3 words and then having them recall them later in the appt.
B. asking the pt what time it is
C. asking the pt to count backwards from 7
D. ask pt to roll head from right to left
E. checking the pts speech for dysphonia
Ans: D
93. What is dysphonia?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to understand or properly speak
C. inability to sound or hoarseness
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: C
94. What is dysarthria?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: B
95. What is dysphasia?
A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards
Ans: C
96. Using the motor scale of 1-5 to determine tone and strength, 1 represents:
A. movement with gravity
B. full strength
C. feeble strength
D. this scale is not used to determine tone and strength
Ans: C
97. What is ataxia?
A. shuffling the first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging a leg or arm
Ans: C
98. What is hemiparesis?
A. shuffle for first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging leg or arm
Ans: D
99. With steppage, the individual lifts the foot higher in order to avoid tripping. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: A
100. Pt with Cerebral palsy walk like there is something in between their legs. true or false?
A. true
B. false
Ans: B
101. You have the pt put their arms out in front of them, palms up, and close eyes. You notice on arm drifting. What is this test called?
A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatters
Ans: B
102. As part of the neurological exam you have pt stand straight with eyes closed to examine their sway. What is this test called?
A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatter
Ans: A
103. Which of the following is not an example of a deep tendon reflex?
A. biceps
B. gag
C. brachioradialis
D. achilles
Ans: B
104. Which of the following is not an example of a superficial reflex?
A. achilles
B. corneal
C. pupillary
D. Babinski
Ans: A
105. Testing a pts toe reflex to see if toes curl with the pressure of an object is called:
A. Osgood Schlatters test
B. McMurrays test
C. Babinski's test
D. Robininski's test
Ans: C
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