#ugc net education paper 2 mcq | Explore Tumblr Posts and Blogs

monica2016 · 3 years

Text

RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment 2020-21

In this blog we will cover assistant professor vacancies in Rajasthan including its syllabus , exam dates , exam pattern , books , notes , how to apply and special tips by toppers about how to crack this exam .

RPSC Rajasthan has issued the notification for recruitment of assistant professor vacancy in Rajasthan for 82 vacant posts in ABST i.e Accounts and business statistics.The exams for proposed recruitment of abst assistant professor was to be held in April 2021 but now the exams are postponed and exams are proposed to be held in September 2021 and scheduled dates are from 24th September onwards. RPSC conducts these exams so if you are looking for teaching profession after post-graduation , you can prepare for this exam and for Rajasthan lecturer vacancy you need to clear UGC NET exam/ State SLAT exam .

we are providing complete Video lectures, Short Notes , 5000+ MCQs and Practice Mock tests of professional knowledge part ,for paper 1 and paper 2 of RPSC Assistant professor ABST exams, which is most important has weightage of 150 marks out of 200 Marks written exam.

Key Highlights of RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment 2020-21

Eligibility for Rajasthan university recruitment of assistant professor

For assistant professor vacancies, Post-Graduation with NET/SLAT is required in relevant subject for which you are applying .

For ABST Subject or Commerce candidates who are looking for assistant professor exam should have following educational qualifications-

Post-graduation in commerce with 55% or equivalent and

NET/ SLAT or similar qualification ,or

Candidates who is holding PHD as per UGC

Exam pattern of assistant professor vacancies

There will be two stages of exam

Stage 1. Written exam – MCQ based – 200 Marks

Stage 2. Interview – 24 Marks

Stage 1 of written MCQ based exam will have Three (3) Papers as under exam for assistant professor

Paper 1– Financial Accounting. Corporate accounting, Management accounting and cost accounting (Total 150 Questions for 75 Marks)

Paper 2- Audit , tax , business statistics (Total 150 Questions for 75 Marks)

Paper 3- Rajasthan GK (Total 100 Questions for 50 Marks)

Detailed syllabus of ABST Assistant professor is given at end of this blog for refence

Negative marking in Rajasthan lecturer vacancy

1/3rd penalty for each wrong answer will be deducted.

Exam and centres of assistant professor abst exam

It will be notified by RPSC Rajasthan very soon along with the admit cards .

Job profile of assistant professor in Rajasthan/workings In Rajasthan government as assistant professor Job.

Job of Assistant professor is most prestigious and as well very easy workings, as a professor you need to take only 3-4 lectures daily and along will that number of holidays are also good

RPSC Assistant professor ABST 2020-21 Vacancy and news regarding Number of expected vacancies

The present vacancy of assistant professor vacancy in Rajasthan is for total of 900+ posts for all subjects and number of vacancies for ABST is 82 , which is a very good number . further its is also expected that in 2022 Rajasthan government will issue notification for assistant professor exam, as soon as the rpsc exam time table is released on www rpsc gov in recruitment notification, we will notify it here.

RPSC recruitment of assistant professor exam date

for 2021 vacancy of assistant professor notification, exam dates proposed is 24th September 2021 onwards by rpsc. For any further updates about rpsc lecturer exam date keep checking this portal or you can also check latest updates at www rpsc govt in

Rpsc assistant professor salary

Salary of rpsc assistant professor is very good in comparison to other teaching jobs. with grade pay of 6000/- , rpsc assistant professor selected candidates get total salary of 80000+ after completion of probation period of two years .

How to apply for assistant professor

In order to apply for assistant professor exam, you need to follow the below given instructions

Step 1- Visit SSO Portal of Rajasthan Government and register / login to your sso id for applying rpsc assistant professor exam

Step 2 – go to recruitment portal on SSO and then you will be re-directed to new page where you will see assistant professor vacancies

Step 3- Click on Junior accountant and fill in details asked and save them.

Step 4 – submit the form of rpsc assistant professor exam and process for online fees payment

Step 5 – pay fees for assistant professor vacancies exam form

Note- take print out of Application form of assistant professor vacancies

Or alternatively you can also apply through an e-Mitra

Admit Card of RPSC assistant professor vacancy in rajasthan

Admit cards will be released very soon and well before exams and the admit cards will be available for download at official website of RPSC i.e www rpsc gov

Answer key of ABST assistant professor Rajasthan

Rpsc will release the answer key for rpsc professor exam after the exam is over and before the release of result and cut off.

Result of RPSC Assistant professor ABST

To be declared after 2-3 months of exam

Cut off of RPSC Assistant professor

It will be released soon after exams are held on official website of RPSC , we will intimate about dates as soon as it is available

Books & Notes for all subjects of Junior Accountant Exam

On this portal you will get complete course for Assistant professor ABST or assistant professor commerce best books and short notes and MCQ and mock tests are available on oneexam , you can checkout these contents as these are all prepared by India’s Top Faculties including CA , university professor and Toppers of Last exam . Hundreds of students have trusted over our specially designed material for this exam.

Coaching for RPSC Junior Accountant

At OneExam.in we have the best course designed in such a way that you can get maximum marks in your commerce part. Watch our free demo videos over YouTube and then trust .we assure you that Nothing better then this you have ever seen for each and every single concepts and topics we have best contents with short Notes and revision charts .

The detailed syllabus is as under university assistant professor exam or RPSC ABST assistant professor exam –

The syllabus of RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment (rpsc assistant professor) will be as under –

Paper 1 (150 questions) (each 0.5 marks)

A- Financial Accounting

Introduction, meaning of Book-Keeping, Accounting and Accountancy, Distinction between Book-Keeping and Accounting, Accounting Process, Objectives of Accounting, Various users of Accounting information, Limitations of Accounting, Accounting Terminologies, Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions. Accounting Standards (Indian Accounting Standards), International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), Recording of Transactions Secondary Books, Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors, Final Accounts with adjustment entries, Closing entries, Financial Statements. Bank Reconciliation Statement, Bills of Exchange, Partnership Accounts- Admission of a Partner, Retirement of

Partner, Death of a Partner, Piecemeal Distribution of Cash and Amalgamation of firms, Depreciation Accounting, Price Level Changes Accounting, Hire Purchase and Instalment Payment Methods, Voyage Accounts, Accounting from Incomplete Records, Accounting Methods for Non-Profit making organisations.

B – Corporate Accounting

Introduction to Company Accounts, Kinds of Companies, Formation of Companies, Share Capital, Issue of Shares, Under Subscription and Over Subscription, Issue of shares at premium and discount, Buy-back of shares and Treasury stock, Accounting treatment and Ledger Preparation, Issue of Bonus and Right shares, Consolidation and split of shares, Redemption of Preference shares and Issue and Redemption of debentures, Preparation of final accounts with calculation of Managerial Remuneration, Disposal of Company profits and Distribution of Dividend, Accounts of Banking and Insurance Companies, Valuation of Goodwill, Valuation of shares, Amalgamation of Companies, Internal and External Reconstruction of companies (including scheme of Reconstruction) Accounts of Holding and subsidiary companies Liquidation of a Company, Double Account system (Accounting for public utilities companies Problems of merger and acquisition.

Accounting for agricultural forms, Government Accounting, corporate social Accounting Accounts of Solicitors, Accounts of Hospitals. Forensic Accounting, Accounting for tour and travel agencies, Basic financial and Accounting System for MFIS.

C – Cost Accounting

Concept of Cost and Cost Control, Cost Accounting methods (Job costing, Batch costing, Contract costing or Terminal costing, process costing including inter process profit, Single output or unit costing, Operating costing Operation costing, Multiple or composite costing, Departmental costing and uniform costing), Non-Integrated and Integrated cost Accounting system. Marginal Costing and Break-Even Analysis, Decisions based on Marginal Costing techniques, Budgetary Control and Preparation of various types of Budgets, Standard Costing and Ascertainment of Material, Labour, Overhead and Sales Variances, Activity Based Costing. Transfer Pricing, Life Cycle Costing, Strategic Cost and Performance Evaluation, Mechanic Accounting and E.D.P, Productivity Accounting and Implication of Computers for Cost Control and Cost reduction, Programmes and Planning, Employee’s Participation in cost reduction programmes.

D – Management Accounting

Objectives and Scope of Management Accounting, Ratio Analysis, Preparation of Fund Flow Statement and Cash Flow Statement. Capital Structure- Theories and Decisions, Cost of Capital, Working Capital Management, Capital Budgeting and Expenditure Decisions, Dividend Decisions, Balance Score Card, Measurement and Performance – ROI, MVA, EVA and Risk Analysis.

Value added Accounting, Human Resource Accounting, Responsibility Accounting, Operating and Financial leverages, Trading on Equity, Lease Financing, Inventory management.

Note:- Pattern of Question Paper

Objective type paper

Maximum Marks : 75

Number of Questions : 150

Duration of Paper : Three Hours

All questions carry equal marks.

Medium of Competitive Exam : Bilingual in English & Hindi

There will be Negative Marking.

PAPER – II

A. Taxation:

Direct Tax

Income Tax Law and Rules with reference to assessment of Individuals, HUF, Firm, AOP and Companies, Assessment Procedure and types of Assessment, Advance payment of tax, Tax deduction at source, Refund of tax, Double taxation, Tax Avoidance and Tax Evasion. Introductory part of Tax Planning with special reference to salaried employees and individuals. Minimum Alternate Tax Net.

Indirect Tax

Custom duty – Role of custom in International Trade, Important Terms and definitions under the custom Act, 1962, Assessable value , Baggage, Bill of entry Dutiable goods, Duty Exporter, Foreign going Vessel, Aircraft goods, Import Manifest, Importer, prohibited goods, Shipping Bill, Stores, Bill of lading, Export manifest, Letter of credit, Kind of Duties, Prohibition of Export and Import of Goods and Provisions regarding notified and specified goods, Import of Goods- Free import and Restricted import, Types of Import- Import of cargo, Import of personal Baggage, Import of stores, Tax Liability and Valuation of goods, computation of custom duty. Appeals and revisions.

CGST/SGST

Important terms and definitions under Central Goods and Service Tax Act 2017 and State and Service Tax Act 2017. Basics of GST. Meaning and scope of Supply, Levy and collection of Tax. Time and value of supply of goods and/or Services, Input Tax Credit, Transitional Provisions, Registration under CGST/SGST Act. Filing of Returns and Assessment, Payment of Tax including payment of tax on reverse charge basis, Refund under the Act. Maintenance of Accounts and Records, Composition Scheme, Job work and its Procedure, Various Exemptions Under GST. Demand and recovery under GST. Miscellaneous provisions. IGST-Scope of IGST, important terms and definitions for determining the place of supply and place of supply of goods and services, Zero rated supply.

B. Auditing:

Meaning, Objectives and Types of Audit. Internal Control, Vouching and Verification of Assets and Liabilities. Assurance and Audit standards, Audit Programme, Working Papers, Documentation, Audit Reports Audit of Companies Appointment, Removal, Rights, Duties and Liabilities of Auditor. Audit of Banks, Insurance Companies, Charitable Trust and Educational Institutions, Management Audit, Efficiency Audit, Cost Audit, EDP Audit, Environmental Audit, Social Audit, Performance Audit, Tax Audit and Audit of Accounting Information System.

C. Business Statistics and Operation Research:

Introduction, Definition and Functions of Statistics, Measures of Central Tendency, Dispersion, Skewness, Moments, Kurtosis, Sheppard’s Correction and Conditions for applying it, Index Numbers, Analysis of Time Series, Interapolation and Extrapolation, Vital Statistics, Correlation and Regression Analysis, Multiple Regression, Association of Attributes, Statistical Decision Theory, Sampling, Test of Hypothesis, Sampling and Non-Sampling errors, Sampling distributions and Standard Error, Sampling Methods, Large and Small Sample Analysis, Sampling of Attributes and Variables, Test of Significance. Z-Test, T-Test, F-Test, Theoretical Frequency Distributions, Probability, Analysis of Variance and Design of Experiments. Linear Programming, Network Analysis-PERT and CPM, Game Theory, Replacement Theory. Statistical Quality control Discriminant Analysis.

Note:- Pattern of Question Paper

Objective type paper

Maximum Marks : 75

Number of Questions : 150

Duration of Paper : Three Hours

All questions carry equal marks.

Medium of Competitive Exam : Bilingual in English & Hindi

There will be Negative Marking

https://oneexam.in/rpsc-assistant-professor-abst-recruitment-2020-21/

0 notes

lazykoalacollectionblog · 5 years

Text

MCQ of Paper 1 NTA UGC NET DEC 2018 Answer Key

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/ugc-net-dec-2018-answer-key/

MCQ of Paper 1 NTA UGC NET DEC 2018 Answer Key

MCQ Previous Papers NTA UGC NET Solved Paper 1 Dec 2018

50 MCQ based on UGC NET DEC 2018 Answer Key

**As you are aware from Dec 2018 onwards NTA conducts the exam online and no Question papers were given to students, However, we have collected this question from our students and answer given is also based on Keys provided by NTA Agency Answer Key.

Solved Answer Keys UGC NET Paper 1-Last 14 Years Question Paper

1.) Which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students to experiment and analyse?

Options:-

(A) History

(B) Science

(D) Economics

ANS. (B) – Experiments in science offer more organized scientific methods & tools for analysing the data through various means; Hence it has edge over other fields of study.

2.) A variable that is manipulated is known as:

Options:-

(A) Dependent variable

(B) Control variable

(D) Confounding variable

ANS. (C) A manipulated variable is the independent variable in an experiment. It’s called “manipulated” because it’s the one you can change. In other words, you can decide ahead of time to increase it or decrease it.

3.) Formulation of a research problem depends upon:

(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?

(b) What are the specific questions?

(d) What negative factors to research upon?

(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.

(f) Construction of hypotheses.

Options:-

(A) – (c), (d), (e) and (f)

(B) – (a), (b), (c) and (f)

(D) – (a), (c), (e) and (f)

ANS. (B) Formulation of the research problem should be based upon a specific problem on which a researcher wants to work. The researcher must be clear about the specific questions. A conceptual model should be framed through which a hypothesis can be formed. The main objective of the research is to resolve the problem and focus on solutions to ensure a productive output. The negativity should not be the factor for the formulation of research design. So, option A, B, C and F are true

4.) Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students?

Options:-

(A) Voice modulation

(B) Concept formulation

(D) Control over emotions

ANS. (D) Students have a different perspective and viewpoint on the given topic and sometimes they lose their control over emotions causing heated arguments hence Control over emotions is a very difficult task for the teacher.

5.) Among the following which one is not an instructional material?

Options:-

(A) Overhead projector

(B) Printed study guide

(D) YouTube video

ANS. (A – It’s pretty much clear from options, Overhead projector is an electronic device rest of others are the way to provide useful information in different forms such as print, audio, video materials.

6.) Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:

(a) History

(b) Randomisation

(d) Instrumentation

(e) Experimental Mortality

(f) Matching

Options:-

(A) (a), (c), (d) and (e)

(B) (d), (e), (f) and (b)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

ANS. (A) The major threats to internal validity are history, maturation, testing, instrumentation, statistical regression, selection, experimental mortality, and selection-history interactions.

7.) The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison

(b) Control

(d) Manipulation

(e) Non-representativeness

(f) Generalisation

Options:-

(A) (a), (b), (d) and (f)

(B) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(D) (b), (c), (d) and (e)

ANS. A

8.) The four major operations in scientific research are:

(a) Demonstration of co-variance

(b) Elimination of spurious relations

(d) Self-education

(e) Operationalisation of personal choice

(f) Theorisation

Options:-

(A) (b), (c), (d) and (e)

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (f)

(D) (c), (d), (e) and (f)

ANS. B

9.) Which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom?

Options:-

(A) Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom

(B) Through observation of silence by the students in classroom

(D) Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom

ANS. A – This is a repeated question asked multiple times in NET exam with different wordings of Question

10.) Which among the following is the best advantage of the Choice Based Credit System?

Options:-

(A) Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time

(B) The shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

(D) Reducing examination anxiety among students

ANS. B CBCS is the mother of learner-centric educational reforms. A student is provided with an academically rich, highly flexible learning system with a vital provision for skill practice and activity orientation that the learner could learn in-depth without sacrificing his creativity. A student can exercise the option to decide his own pace of learning, plan and sequence his choice of paper, learn to face challenges through term work/ project work/ and may venture out to acquire extra knowledge/ proficiency through add on facilities.

Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully and answer question 11 to 15:

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It is gratifying to see how ASEAN-India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991, when the cold war ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full ASEAN dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, ASEAN-India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual leader summit. However, there is scope for more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and ASEAN. ASEAN is committed to strengthening land, air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business, investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can fly directly between India and several ASEAN countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity is the new frontier in the fourth industrial revolution. India has made great progress in innovation, startups and digital inclusion. There are opportunities to apply initiative such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech are two other areas of potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s role in ASEAN should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.

11.) Who can be India’s launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?

Options:-

(A) Southeast Asia

(B) Myanmar

(D) Thailand

ANS. C

12.) What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India?

Options:-

(A) Economic liberalization in India

(B) End of Cold War

(D) Historical past

ANS. A

13.) The areas of collaboration between India and ASEAN are:

(a) FinTech

(b) Aadhaar

(d) Digital backwardness

(e) Trilateral highways

(f) Fourth Industrial Revolution

Options:-

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(D) (b), (c), (d) and (e)

ANS. A

14.) What is needed to encourage tourism between India and ASEAN?

Options:-

(A) Innovation

(B) Air links

(D) Waterways

ANS. B

15.) The commitments of ASEAN with India is :

Options:-

(A) More and more dialogues

(B) Offer political platforms

(D) Improving transport links

ANS. D

16.) Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer?

Options:-

(A) Daughter-in-law

(B) Mother

(D) Sister

ANS. C Helen is the sister-in-law of Jenifer.

17.) Among the following there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them.

Statements:

(a) All poets are dreamers.

(b) No poets are dreamers.

(d) Some poets are not dreamers.

Options:-

(A) (b) and (d)

(B) (a) and (d)

(D) (a) and (b)

ANS. D

18.) Truth and falsity are attributes of:

Options:-

(A) Debates

(B) Arguments

(D) Opinions

ANS. C

19.) if ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be:

Options:-

(A) AVCD

(B) AIUS

(D) AIVX

ANS. B

20.) Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition- “All animals are wild”?

Options:-

(A) Some animals are not wild.

(B) No non-animals are wild.

(D) No animals are wild.

ANS. C

21.) The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, _____ is:

Options:-

(A) YZA

(B) WXY

(D) XYZ

ANS. D , ‘XYZ’ is the correct answer to the series. letters in each term are consecutive with the difference of 4 with the next member.

22.) In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in:

Options:-

(A) Quick adaptation

(B) Stimulation

(D) Passive adaptation

ANS. C In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in overstimulation.

23.) The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, __________ is:

Options:-

(A) 225

(B) 196

(D) 164

ANS. A , Here the addition ‘+1’, ‘+2’, ‘+3’ and ‘+4’ has been shown only for the terms 0, 1, 3, 6 and 10. Hence, the next term which should be added as per the pattern will be +5 i.e., 10 + 5 = 15 and 15** 2 = 225.

24.) Under which of the conditions, an argument may be valid? Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Statements:

(a) When its conclusion and premises are true.

(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false.

Options:-

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) alone

(D) (a) and (c)

ANS. A

25.) Non-verbal communication is considered:

Options:-

(A) Informal

(B) Precise

(D) Formal

ANS. A

26.) The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _______agents of students.

Options:-

(A) Official

(B) Academic

(D) Influencing

ANS. D, The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as influencing agents of students. It is the teacher who regulates his/her class upon the basis of his knowledge and that knowledge can only be delivered through the interaction between the teacher and students.

27.) Given below are two premises (a)and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [taking the premises individually or jointly]

Premises:

(a) All judges are lawyers.

(b) No doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions:

(i) No lawyers are doctors.

(ii) No doctors are judges.

(iii) All lawyers are judges.

(iv) Some doctors are judges.

Options:-

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

ANS. C

28.) Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:

(a) External sympathy

(b) Justification

(d) De-motivation

(e) Supportive listening

(f) Confrontational empathy

Options:-

(A) (c), (d) and (e)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (d), (e) and (f)

ANS. B

29.) Choose the word which is different from the rest:

Options:-

(A) Aravali Hills

(B) Nilgiri Hills

(D) Mount Kilimanjaro

ANS. D

30.) Assertion(A) : Teacher communication is central to classroom management.

Reason (R) : Teacher communication behaviours should not be used to regulate the classroom behaviour of students.

Options:-

(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

ANS. D

Analyze the following data carefully and answer question 31 to 33:

Data on % of villages not electrified in 6 states is given below (in the year 2000):

State % of villages not electrified A 25% B 45% C 20% D 60% E 55% F 30%

Answer the following three questions:

31.) How many States have atleast 50% or more electrified villages?

Options:-

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 3

ANS. B

32.) In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be electrified. The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in State D has thus __________.

Options:-

(A) Come down

(B) Cannot be computed

(D) Not enough data

ANS. A

33.) Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D?

Options:-

(A) State C

(B) State D

(D) State B

ANS. A

Analyze the following data carefully and answer question 34 to 37:

Data on education index in a few States is given below:

State Name % of villages not electrified A 20% B 25% C 23% D 17% E 16% F 21% G 15%

Answer the following two questions:

34.) If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs, what is the population below education index?

Options:-

(A) 0.546 lakhs

(B) 0.390 lakhs

(D) 49000

ANS. A

35.) If the total population of State A was 5 lakhs while the population in State B was 2 lakhs, the number of people below education index will be:

Options:-

(A) Equal in State A and B

(B) Cannot be calculated

(D) Higher in State A

ANS. D

36.) A small text file stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and keep track of user’s preferences is called:

Options:-

(A) History

(B) Report

(D) Cookie

ANS. D Cookies provide a way for the website to recognize you and keep track of your preferences. Cookies are commonly used to “maintain the state” of a browser session.

37.) In which year Education Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. D.S. Kothari was setup?

Options:-

(A) 1960

(B) 1964

(D) 1952

ANS. B The Indian Education Commission popularly known as Kothari Education Commission (1964-66) was set up by the government of India on July 14, 1964, under the chairmanship of Dr. D.S.Kothari Kothari.

38.) In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory, the total number of addresses will be:

Options:-

(A) 512

(B) 256

(D) 216

ANS. B

39.) Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions?

Options:-

(A) All India Council for Technical Education

(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

(D) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

ANS. D , RUSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (C.S.S.), launched in 2013 aims at providing strategic funding to the eligible state Higher Educational Institutions. The Central Funding (in the ratio of 65:35 for the General Category States and 90:10 for the Special Category States) would be norm based and outcome dependent.

40.) A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is:

Options:-

(A) Geothermal energy

(B) Tidal power

(D) Biomass power

ANS. D

41.) Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the purpose of:

Options:-

(A) Providing material for breeding new species

(B) Study by scientists

(D) Providing habitat for birds

ANS. A

42.) How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels?

Options:-

(A) 6 – 9 billion tons

(B) 2 – 6 billion tons

(D) 4 – 6 billion tons

ANS. A

43.) __________ denotes an error in a computer program.

Options:-

(A) Virus

(B) Bug

(D) Bit

ANS. B In computer programming, a logic error is a bug in a program that causes it to operate incorrectly, but not to terminate abnormally (or crash)

44.) The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year?

Options:-

(A) 2007

(B) 2005

(D) 2000

ANS. B National Knowledge Commission was an Indian think-tank charged with considering possible policies that might sharpen India’s comparative advantage in the knowledge-intensive service sectors. It was constituted on 13 June 2005, by the Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh.

45.) The output quality of a printer is measured by:

Options:-

(A) Digits per inch

(B) Dots per inch

(D) Dots per mm

ANS. B , The output quality of a printer is measured by Dots per inch. In printing, DPI refers to the output resolution of a printer and PPI refers to the input resolution of a photograph or image.

46.) The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?

(a) Thermal difference between land and water.

(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.

(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.

Options:-

(A) (a) only

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (a) and (b) only

ANS. A

47.) The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December 1953 by whom among the following?

Options:-

(A) Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

ANS. A University Grants Commission was formally inaugurated by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the then Minister of Education, Natural Resources and Scientific Research, on 28 December 1953. However, the UGC got the status of statutory body of the Indian Government through an act of Parliament in November 1956.

48.) Which of the following are audio file formats?

(a) .wav

(b) .aac

(d) .flv

Options:-

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (a) and (d)

(D) (a) and (b)

ANS. D The most common uncompressed audio formats are WAV, AIFF, AU, PCM or BWF. While Audio Formats With Lossy Compression are MP3, AAC, OGG etc.

49.) In which part of India, the tropical western Ghats are situated?

Options:-

(A) Punjab

(B) Kerala

(D) Assam

ANS. B, The Western Ghats extend from the Satpura Range in the north, stretching from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu. It traverses south through the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka and Kerala.

50.) The University Grants Commission has a Scheme for “ Human Rights and Values in Education”. Under this Scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for ‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component?

Options:-

(A) To establish value and wellness centres in schools.

(B) To encourage research activities.

(D) To develop interaction between society and educational institutions.

ANS. A

#ugc-net-22nd-december-2018 #UGC NET Solved Papers

0 notes

letstcsacademy-blog · 5 years

Text

TET Coaching in Lucknow

2 Months UPTET Coaching.

85% of Exam covered by Classes, Study Material Notes & Booklets.

Daily 2 to 3 hours Regular Classes for the UPTET Students.

Study Material 5 to 7 Booklets Set Covering UPTET MCQ’s Questions.

Special Revision Classes for Previous Year UPTET Papers.

TET Coaching in Lucknow, UPTET Coaching in Lucknow …UPTET exams are directed by Uttar Pradesh government for selecting officers in their particular branches all through UP. Our Lucknow Career Coaching gives you the Best UPTET Coaching In Lucknow with committed educating from quality staff. Your best amigo in that circumstance is Lucknow Tcs Academy which is one of the Best UPTET Coaching Centers in Lucknow with negligible rates of coaching expenses. Our Center is outstanding for 100% guaranteed positive results all through Lucknow. Understudies tend to join our focuses in various zones of Lucknow.

UP TET Coaching Classes In Lucknow

All our branches give UPTET Entrance Exam Coaching In Lucknow that can help you acquire beat position in legitimacy list and get chose for teaching posts in schools and colleges.

UPTET Preparation Institutes In Lucknow

TET Coaching in Lucknow, Best UPTET Coaching in Lucknow

Our training staff is all around talented for giving administrations to Preparation Classes for UPTET Exam in Lucknow. Our coaching focus has the all qualified and promising framework that can manufacture your fantasy vocation as a teacher with our best instructing for UPTET exams. You don’t stress over that as our Top Coaching Academy in Lucknow for UPTET is here for you to slaughter that dread out of your life. We are devoted to put you on top of others with our submitted instructing staff. Ideal open door is given by our preparation to you for making progress in existence with simple strategies.

Lucknow Best UPTET Exam Coaching Institute

TET Coaching in Lucknow, Best UPTET Coaching in Lucknow

As we have helped numerous people to land their fantasy positions in teaching field we have ended up being top coaching institute for UPTET Exam. Our Center is situated in aliganj Lucknow students coming from Barabanki, Sitapur, Faizabad, Basti, and other UP District had developed as one of top rated UPTET exam coaching. Simply Contact and learn with us as we will lead you to a prosperous future with our profoundly effective guiding aptitudes.

TET Coaching in Lucknow, UPTET Coaching in Lucknow

Visit :- TET Coaching in Lucknow

364, Chandralok hydel colony, aliganj Lucknow

Contact no. 9565697720

TCS ACADEMY Best TET Coaching in Lucknow Students who look for the best TET coaching in Lucknow can call 9565697720 for his or her nearest best TET PRT Exam coaching in Lucknow. 489 TET Result in 2018, FREE DEMO Class , TET Study Material Notes ,UPTET 2019 Primary, Upper Primary UPTET PRT 2019. TET Coaching in lucknow.

Also check

TET Coaching In Lucknow , UPTET Coaching In Lucknow

1. TET Coaching in Lucknow - post

2. TET Coaching in Lucknow - website

3. TET Coaching in Lucknow - blog

4. TET Coaching in Lucknow - location

TCS Academy | UGC NET JRF | TET Coaching in Lucknow

Our services include TET Coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching in Lucknow, NET JRF coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching, UGC NET Commerce coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Management coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Economics coaching in Lucknow

Visit us for TET Coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching in Lucknow, NET JRF coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching, UGC NET Commerce coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Management coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Economics coaching in Lucknow

Read our posts for TET Coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching in Lucknow, NET JRF coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET coaching, UGC NET Commerce coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Management coaching in Lucknow, UGC NET Economics coaching in Lucknow

==========================================

Digital Marketing service provided by DiziVita Solutions - Best Digital Marketing | Web Development | SEO Company in Lucknow.

Our services include Website Development Company in Lucknow, Social Media Marketing Company in Lucknow, Website Designing Company in Lucknow, Best SEO Company in Lucknow, Best Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow, Best Web Development Company in Lucknow

Visit us here for Website Development Company in Lucknow, Social Media Marketing Company in Lucknow, Website Designing Company in Lucknow, Best SEO Company in Lucknow, Best Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow, Best Web Development Company in Lucknow

Read our posts here Web Development Company in Lucknow, Best SEO Company in Lucknow, Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow, Website Design Company in Lucknow, Social Media Marketing Company in Lucknow

-------------------------------------------------------------------------

DiziVita Solutions is a branch of JustKlicks - Best SEO Company | Website Development | Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow.

Our Services include Website Development Company in Lucknow, Social Media Marketing Company in Lucknow, Website Designing Company in Lucknow, Best SEO Company in Lucknow, Best Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow, Best Web Development Company in Lucknow

Read our posts here Web Development Company in Lucknow, Best SEO Company in Lucknow, Digital Marketing Company in Lucknow, Website Design Company in Lucknow, Social Media Marketing Company in Lucknow

=========================================

#TET Coaching in Lucknow #UGC NET coaching in Lucknow #NET JRF coaching in Lucknow #UGC NET coaching #UGC NET Commerce coaching in Lucknow #UGC NET Management coaching in Lucknow #UGC NET Economics coaching in Lucknow

0 notes

toppersexam · 4 years

Text

CSIR NET Life Science Paper, Syllabus, Pattern, Eligibility, Cut Off, MCQs, Book at Toppersexam.com

CSIR NET Life Science Paper, Syllabus, Pattern, Eligibility, Cut Off, MCQs, Book

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has entrusted the responsibility of conducting CSIR-UGC NET in CBT mode to NTA. CSIR-UGC NET is a test being conducted to determine the eligibility ‘for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and for Lectureship/Assistant Professor’ in Indian universities and colleges subject to fulfilling the eligibility criteria laid down by UGC. Online applications for JRF/NET are invited twice a year on all India basis through Press Notification of CSIR-UGC NET for JRF and LS/AP

CSIR NET Life Science Paper and MCQs

Buy the question bank or online quiz of CSIR NET Life Science Exam Going through the CSIR NET Life Science Exam Question Bank is a must for aspirants to both understand the exam structure as well as be well prepared to attempt the exam.

The first step towards both preparation as well as revision is to practice from CSIR NET Life Science Exam with the help of Question Bank or Online quiz. We will provide you the questions with detailed answer.

CSIR NET Life Science Paper and MCQs :

Available Now

CSIR NET Life Science Books :

Click Here

CSIR NET Life Science Eligibility CriteriaNationality

Candidate must be an Indian citizen.

If any candidate is found otherwise, the application form of that particular candidate will be rejected.

CSIR NET Age Limit

Maximum age limit prescribed for the award of Joint Research Fellowship (JRF) is 28 years as on January 1, 2020.

Upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years for reserved category candidates (SC/ST/Persons with Disability (PwD) and female applicants) and 3 years for OBC – Non-creamy layer candidates.

There is no stipulated age limit for the Lectureship.

CSIR NET Educational Qualification Requirements

Candidates must have a degree in B.Pharma or BE or B. Tech or MSc or MBBS or Integrated BS-MS or any other science degree with at least 55% marks.

Pursued academic qualification in Life Science only

5% marks relaxation is given to candidates who belong to reserved category.

Aspirants who are currently pursuing M.Sc and have completed graduation (10+2+3) are also eligible for this examination.

CSIR NET Life Science Cut Off

CategoryCSIR NET Cutoff for JRF (in %)CSIR NET Cutoff for Lectureship (in %)

General (Unreserved)59.2553.33

Other Backward Class (OBC)50.5045.45

Scheduled Caste (SC)42.7538.48

Scheduled Tribe (ST)37.7533.98

CSIR NET Life Science Syllabus

1. Molecules and their Interaction Relevant to Biology

2. Cellular Organization

3. Fundamental Processes

4. Cell Communication and Cell Signaling

5. Developmental Biology

6. System Physiology – Plant

7. System Physiology – Animal

8. Inheritance Biology

9. Diversity of Life Forms

10. Ecological Principles

11. Evolution and Behavior

12. Applied Biology

13. Methods in Biology

* The Life Sciences question paper shall be divided into three parts, (A, B & C) as per syllabus & Scheme of Exam will contain 145 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

* Life Sciences Part ‘A’ (20 Questions) shall be common to all subjects. This part shall contain questions pertaining to General Science with emphasis on logical reasoning, graphical analysis, analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparison, series formation, puzzles etc. Candidates will be required to answer 15 in this part.

* Life Sciences Part ‘B’ (50 Questions) shall contain subject-related conventional Multiple Choice questions (MCQs), generally covering the topics given in the syllabus. Candidates will be required to answer 35 in part

* Life Sciences Part ‘C’ (75 Questions) shall contain higher value questions that may test the candidate’s knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem. Candidates will be required to answer 25 in part

* Questions in Parts “A” and “B” carry two marks each and Part “C” questions carry four marks each

CSIR NET Life Science Exam Pattern 2020

Duration : 3 Hours

Negative Mark :

Part A & B - 0.5

Part C - 1.32

S.No.SectionsNo. of QuestionsTotal Marks

1.PART A2030

2.PART B5070

3.PART C80100

Total150200

#CSIRNETLifeScience #CSIRNETLifeScience2020 #CSIRNETLifeScienceExam #FreeTestSeries #QuestionsBank #CSIRNETLifeScienceSyllabus #OnlineTestSeries #OnlineMockTest #ImportantQuestionPaper #ImportantQuestion #ImportantQuestionBank

#freemocktest

0 notes

poddarbschool · 4 years

Text

MBA Entrance Tests

For all you MBA admission seekers, here is a summary of the important MBA Entrance Tests.

Keep healthy, Keep Safe and Best Wishes for your MBA journey…!

MAT

Link: https://www.aima.in/testing-services/mat/mat.html

Management Aptitude Test (MAT) is a standardised test being administered since 1988 to facilitate Business Schools (B-Schools) to screen candidates for admission to MBA and allied programmes. Govt. of India, Ministry of HRD approved MAT as a national level test in 2003. Any B-School - national or international - can consider MAT Score as an admission input based on the Score Cards issued to the candidates. The largest test of its kind in the nation, MAT will continue to be your passport to over 600 B-Schools across India.

Eligibility

Graduates in any discipline. Final year students of Graduate Courses can also apply.

Mode of Test (How to take the test)

Candidate can take MAT as (i) Paper Based Test (PBT) or (ii) Computer Based Test (CBT) or (iii) Both PBT & CBT

How to apply

Register online at website link: https://mat.aima.in/may20/ with Credit Card/Debit Card (ATM Card), Net Banking, UPI or Paytm Wallet. The fees details are given below:

For Paper Based Test(PBT)

1650/-

For Computer Based Test (CBT)

1650/-

For Both PBT & CBT

2750/-

Essential Documents to be made ready for online registration:

· Valid Email Id

· Scanned image of photograph (10 to 50 kb)

· Scanned image of signature ( 5 to 20 kb)

· Credit Card/Debit Card (ATM Card) or Net Banking details

(Detailed procedure is given on the website link.)

SCHEDULE

Paper Based Test (PBT) :-

Test Date : 16 May 2020(Saturday)

Test Timing : 10.00 to 12.30 Hrs

Last Date for Online Registration : 10 May 2020 (Sunday)

Availability of Admit Cards : 12 May 2020 (1600 Hrs)

Computer Based Test (CBT) :-

Test Date : 03 May 2020 (Sunday)

Test Timing : In single/different time slots at specific test venues; subject to candidates registration

Last Date for Online Registration : 26 April 2020 (Sunday)

Availability of Admit Cards : 28 April 2020 (1600 Hrs)

MAT Result

Candidates have to download the MAT Score from AIMA website : https://www.aima.in

Test Cities

Test cities for Paper Based Test (PBT) and Computer Based Test (CBT) are different.

List of Participating Management Institutes

Select the institutes where you have applied or are applying for admission. Important Notice: Candidates are advised to check the approval/recognition status of various programs directly from the concerned Authorities/ Institutes/ Universities.

AIMA has come across a couple of cases where the aspiring candidates' MAT score is not accepted by some participating institutes/universities for admission to MBA full time course despite their confirmation to AIMA MAT at the time of participation by incorporating their notifications in MAT e bulletin. Candidates are advised to recheck with the concerned institutes/universities before applying for MAT.

Admit Card

All provisionally registered candidates for PBT and/or CBT have to download their Admit Card from AIMA website : https://mat.aima.in/may20/ as per the schedule given above. Admit Card contains Candidate's Name, Form No, Roll No, Test Date, Test Time and Test Venue Address.

Clarification

Candidates may clarify queries regarding MAT, if any, at e-mail: [email protected] and at 011-47673000/8130338839.

CMAT 2020

CMAT 2020 will be conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA) on the same pattern as per the Year 2019 i.e., Computer Based Test on January 28, 2020 from 09:30 am to 12:30 pm for admission to various management programs across the country.

The result of CMAT-2020 will be declared by February 7 th, 2020 as CMAT Score which will be accepted by over 1000 participating Institutes. The participating Institutes of CMAT-2020 are the Institutions which will be accepting the CMAT Score.

Candidates must apply separately to the desired CMAT-2020 participating institutes with the CMAT Score 2020. Then, each participating institute will release their respective cut – off CMAT Score which candidates should meet to get qualified for admission to that particular institute. Once qualified, the candidates will have to appear for selection procedure of that particular institute which may comprise of Group Discussion (GD) and Personal Interview (PI).

The final selection of the candidates will be on the basis of the candidates performance based on above. Candidates are advised to see the details of the admission process of each participating institute of CMAT-2020 on their respective website.

Helpline number: 0120-689-5200

Link: https://cmat.nta.nic.in/webinfo/public/home.aspx

Email: [email protected]

ELIGIBILITY The candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree in any discipline. Candidates appearing for the final year of Bachelor’s degree (10+2+3) whose result will be declared before commencement of admission for academic year 2020-21 can also apply for CMAT-2020 computer based test (CBT). The candidate must be a citizen of India. There is no age restriction for appearing in CMAT-2020.

SCHEDULE FOR EVENTS WITH DATES:

On-line submission of Application Form 01.11.2019 to 30.11.2019 (Upto 11:50 p.m.)

Date for successful final transaction of fee 01.11.2019 to 01.12.2019 (through Credit/ Debit Card/ Net Banking/UPI/PayTM

Fee payable for CMAT - 2020

General Boys - Rs 1600/- Girls - Rs.1000/-

Gen-EWS/OBC (NCL) Boys – Rs 1000/- Girls - Rs.1000/-

SC/ ST/ PwD Boys - Rs 800/- Girls - Rs. 700/-

Transgender Rs - 700/-

Date for Choice of City 01.11.2019 To 02.12.2019 (11:50 p.m.)

Date of Examination 28th January, 2020 (Tuesday) Timing of Examination 09:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.

Printing of Admit Cards from NTA’s website From 24th December, 2019

Declaration of Result on NTA’s website By 07th February, 2020

TEST PATTERN The medium of Question Paper is English only.

Quantitative Techniques and Data Interpretation 25 100 Logical Reasoning 25

Language Comprehension 25

General Awareness 25

i) Each question carries 04 (four) marks.

ii) For each correct response candidate will get 04 (four) marks.

iii) For each incorrect response 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.

CAT

Official information regarding CAT 2020 has not been published so far. However here is a look at CAT 2019.

Common Admission Test (CAT) is a computer based test for admission in a graduate management program.

CAT website: www.iimcat.ac.in

Help Desk Number: 18002090830

[email protected]

Important Dates

AUG 7, 2019, Wednesday: CAT 2019 Registration Starts at 10:00 AM

SEP 25, 2019, Wednesday: CAT 2019 Registration Ends at 5:00 PM

OCT 23, 2019, Wednesday: CAT 2019 Admit Card Download Begins at 5:00 PM

NOV 24, 2019, Sunday: CAT 2019 Test Day

ELIGIBILITY The candidate must hold a Bachelor’s Degree, with at least 50% marks or equivalent CGPA [45% in case of candidates belonging to the Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Persons with Disability (PWD) categories].

Candidates applying for CAT 2019 should fulfill any one of the following conditions: • Completed Bachelor’s degree with the required percentage of marks*. • Completed professional degree (CA/CS/ICWA) with required percentage*. • Should be in the final year of Bachelor’s degree with required percentage*. CAT Eligibility * SC/ST/PwD candidates should have minimum 45%. For General, EWS and NC-OBC candidates, the minimum is 50%.

REGISTRATION FEE ₹950 for SC, ST and PwD candidates. ₹1900 for all other candidates.

Please note that a candidate needs to pay the registration fee only once, irrespective of the number of institutes he/she is applying for.

Test Pattern:

Duration 3 hours

Score / grade range -100 to 300

The test has three sections:

Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC)

Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) and Quantitative Ability (QA).

The total duration of the test is 180 minutes.

ATMA

ATMA is a comprehensive and single-window test for admissions to numerous Post-Graduate Management Programs like MBA, PGDM, MCA, MMS and other management post graduate course. ATMA is an online objective type Nationally accepted entrance test. This test is recognized by AICTE and Ministry of HRD, Government of India and is conducted across all the states in India.

ATMA does not require any specific prior knowledge of business or other subject areas. The Test is designed to assess the aptitude of the students for Higher Management Education and primarily consists of sections on verbal, quantitative and analytical reasoning skills.

There are around 399 Business Schools accepting ATMA scores for admitting students in management programs. Each college releases its own cutoff depending on factors such as number of students applied for admission against number of seats.

Link: https://www.atmaaims.com/index.html

Phone Number: 040-23417876, 48544057

Email: [email protected]

Fee: INR 1298

Held Multiple times a year ((February, May, June, July and December 2020)

Syllabus:

Analytical Reasoning Skills – I

Verbal Skills - I

Quantitative Skills – I

Analytical Reasoning Skills – II

Verbal Skills -II

Quantitative Skills – II

Pattern

180 questions

3 hours (30 minutes each section)

6 sections

MCQ questions

Aptitude test

There is negative marking

Eligibility

50% marks in a Bachelor’s degree

Previous University should be recognized by UGC

Candidates who have completed CA can apply.

Final year students can also apply.

IMPORTANT DATES

ATMA EXAM 24th May 2020

LAST DATE FOR FEE PAYMENT 17th May 2020 @ 5PM

LAST DATE OF REGISTRATION 18th May 2020 @ 2PM

LAST DATE OF PRINTING APPLICATION FORM 19th May 2020

ADMIT CARD DOWNLOAD 21st May 2020

RESULT 29th May 2020

SNAP

Link: https://www.snaptest.org/index.html

Call. : 18001231454 | +91-20-28116226/27

Whatsapp No. : +91-7709328908

Email : [email protected]

Candidates aspiring to join MBA / MSc programmes offered by Institutes of Symbiosis Internationa have to appear for the common, mandatory Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Online Test. A candidate needs to register for SNAP Test and also register for the Institute(s) offering her/his choice of programme(s) by paying separate registration fee for each programme. If shortlisted, s/he would then need to attend the further admission (GE-PIWAT) process conducted by each of these Institutes individually.

The registration process for SNAP & the Institutes is integrated. Candidates can complete the SNAP as well as programme registrations in the same portal (www.snaptest.org).

ELIGIBILITY

The candidate should be a graduate from any recognized / statutory University or Institution with a minimum of 50% marks or equivalent grade (45% marks or equivalent grade for Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes).

Candidates appearing for final year examinations can also apply.

IMPORTANT DATES

Since official information has not been published for SNAP 2020, here is a list of previous years dates as guide.

Registration commences on 16 August 2019 (Friday)

Registration Closes on 26 November 2019 (Tuesday)

Payment Closes on 26 November 2019 (Tuesday)

Admit Card Live on (www.snaptest.org) 02 December 2019 (Monday)

SNAP Online Test 2019 15 December 2019 (Sunday) Time: 1400-1600 hours

Announcement of Result 10 January 2020 (Friday)

Please note that the SNAP 2019 test will be computer based test.

SNAP Test duration is of 120 minutes.

SNAP Test is an objective test. Each question has four responses (Only for Normal Questions). Candidate should choose an appropriate response.

Each wrong answer attracts 25% negative marks for Normal Questions and for Special Questions also.

GMAT

Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT) is intended to assess certain analytical, writing, quantitative, verbal, and reading skills in written English for use in admission to a graduate management program, such as an MBA program. It requires knowledge of certain specific grammar and knowledge of certain specific algebra, geometry, and arithmetic.

Link: https://www.gmac.com/gmat-other-assessments/about-the-gmat-exam

Duration : 3 hours

Score / grade validity : 5 Years

Offered : Multiple times a year

Languages : English

Prerequisites / eligibility criteria : No official prerequisite. Fluency in English assumed.

Fee US$ 250

Sections:

Analytical Writing Assessment—measures your ability to think critically and to communicate your ideas

Integrated Reasoning—measures your ability to analyze data and evaluate information presented in multiple formats

Quantitative Reasoning—measures your ability to analyze data and draw conclusions using reasoning skills

Verbal Reasoning—measures your ability to read and understand written material, to evaluate arguments and to correct written material to conform to standard written English

In total the test takes just under 3 1/2 hours to complete, including two optional breaks.

#entrance exam for mba #mba entrance exam #best mba college in jaipur #mba entrance test #entrance test for mba college #mba college entance test #entrance exam for mba college abroad

0 notes

shivamonlineeducationacademy · 7 years

Link

For All Engineering Exam SHIVAM ONLINE EDUCATION ACADEMY VIDEO CHANNEL LINK https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCrRk6Com1Lt9HBqRuSA9Veg Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-k939nAjVs0ACkdoX2fB2N4 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kpniZCO_IyCq1dFi4JbG8z TECHNICAL EXAM MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mi5biwUY7gcYs9bPRJG8Qy MECHANICAL ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kmeZ-B6u2My8LiQXour4t2 BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-knA0UbMkrTIZT_kgv4Bw2D INDIAN GEOGRAPHY https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-maUm3I4kYBkD_ipvI61YB4 SSC CGL PSC https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kvIwy_M3rQyiPJqesABYI1 INDIAN ECONOMY https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-m6SAKflql4HnP9cDRcvp2i INDIAN HISTORY https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-m9ytZ-Viy3LKzVbw9zWh58 INDIAN ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICE https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mWANgIIACpdYeymxBvVMEY GENERAL STUDIES https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mkUfeDI2MvktaVCZ6GFSk5 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nzhI8f_MjJGpbJVLuNJwfW ELECTRONIC ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-niMSNi9hWwLRXEm4QMDkRM INDIAN ENGINEERING SERVICES OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kF3qvvi32XxNjfxZWkV7DF INDIAN POLITY MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nAMK0pOt5VSPN3S9dZ0MDv GENERAL ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nC8lBsL2z2CPJEJzO_O8dn Engineering Materials MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-lSyZPc3O4EB50tWHHFOSsy CCC MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nTz7K6A_oIUqyQDWtmSxuk COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-k3cHebaRxE4lvHjfmdr-X3 COMPUTER AWARENESS MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-m9VCsiPCJyb-ZEz2WWmPzC Industrial Engineering and Production Management MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kfm2AIgS0ybG63FLGAqvqJ Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mbMkvtvBULbyF_RSc2Jc_C Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nja3hDdjs5eZxeBDQ6abFK Thermodynamics MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kWI50HAIkXP8qxoBoyx1-2 IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nMSUu5Wh-wQmosX5dS00G3 Compressors, Gas Dynamics and Gas Turbines MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-n3uH_sOyrrimaBUjPtcpCU Strength of Materials MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mYwvnUCGCKjYY24Yxr_9Ii Hydraulic Machines MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-lhjy5cvIZm9X9Cl7kymSGC Machine Design MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mSk5BcGusQYL38oDnG-mqb Theory of machines MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-ntjp_2BWlbHqh0ZaHqiNFv Workshop Technology MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-kE9IaNmVqX5tmdzY_GrH5T Automobile Engineering MCQ https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-m2EVGaNDKV6weGUWF8r_-- MECHANICAL TECHNICAL INTERVIEW QUESTIONS https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-lB0LPgeVCTr8OSAwDXS-HA CIVIL ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nj4LL_qCh_-lGCHSTBjWwt ENGINEERING ANIMATION VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mt-qIsSBAe_C_VdKGIBiRL GREAT MOTIVATIONAL VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-nA7EMrL3tsAfp3e82HBrqH AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING VIDEO https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mcntAK-cQPrD1tEV_fmUof TECHNICAL PAPER SOLUTION https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-n5TDeOMd_2KjzKQnZ1GejY UPSC PAPER SOLUTION FROM 2000 TO 2016 https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLY9TLnmM2s-mT-AUbGhhWIXleQIPMFgVk SHIVAM ONLINE EDUCATION ACADEMY VIDEO CHANNEL LINK https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCrRk6Com1Lt9HBqRuSA9Veg Related search list engineering mcq questions engineering mcq pdf engineering mcqs civil engineering mcqs.blogspot engineering mcqs mechanical engineering mcqs.blogspot.in engineering mcq blog engineering mcqs with answers pdf engineering mcq app mcquaid engineering engineering mcq engineering mcq blogspot mcq engineering drawing mcq engineering mechanics pdf mcq engineering mechanics mcq engineering mathematics mcq engineering physics mechanical engineering mcq app civil engineering mcq apps software engineering mcq and answers mechanical engineering mcq apk civil engineering mcq answers electrical engineering mcq app mechanical engineering mcq app download civil engineering mcq application electrical engineering mcq question answer pdf a mcqueen engineering electrical engineering mcq books free download mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain pdf civil engineering mcq by gupta and gupta civil engineering mcq books mechanical engineering mcq book free download mechanical engineering mcq book electrical engineering mcq books civil engineering mcq book pdf engineering mcq.com engineering chemistry mcq engineering chemistry mcq pdf engineering chemistry mcq questions engineering curves mcq software engineering mcq careerride engineering mcqs.blogspot.com mcq chemistry for engineering civil engineering mcq pdf engineering drawing mcq engineering drawing mcq pdf engineering drawing mcq questions engineering drawing mcq diploma level engineering drawing mcq questions with answers engineering drawing mcq with answer pdf mechanical engineering mcq download electrical engineering mcq download civil engineering mcq download software engineering mcq doc roy d mcqueen engineering consultants engineering economics mcq questions engineering ethics mcq engineering economics mcq engineering economics mcq pdf mechanical engineering mcq ebook free download software engineering mcq exam civil engineering mcq ebook civil engineering mcq exam electrical engineering mcq software engineering mcq for gate engineering mathematics mcq for gate software engineering mcq for ugc net software engineering mcq for it officer engineering mathematics mcq for gate pdf mechanical engineering mcq for competitive exam mechanical engineering mcq free download software engineering mcq for ibps so electrical engineering mcq for competitive exam software engineering mcq for bca engineering graphics mcq engineering geology mcq engineering graphics mcq pdf engineering geology mcq pdf engineering graphics mcq questions with answers engineering graphics mcq with answers civil engineering mcq gupta and gupta software engineering mcq gate cbse engineering graphics mcq engineering graphics gtu mcq highway engineering mcq hardware engineering mcq hydraulics engineering mcq software engineering mcq mcgraw hill highway engineering mcq questions hardware engineering mcq papers highway engineering mcq pdf engineering insurance mcq software engineering mcq indiabix engineering drawing mcq in pdf electrical engineering mcq in pdf electrical engineering mcq indiabix engineering mcq.blogspot.in software engineering mcq in pdf software engineering mcq it officer civil engineering mcq in gujarati software engineering important mcqs engineering mechanics mcq pdf engineering mechanics mcq engineering mathematics mcq engineering metallurgy mcq engineering mechanics mcq pune university engineering metallurgy mcq pdf engineering metrology mcq engineering mathematics mcq pdf nuclear engineering mcq engineering online mcq electrical engineering mcq online civil engineering mcq on soil mechanics software engineering mcq online software engineering mcq online test civil engineering mcq online engineering chemistry online mcq electrical engineering objective mcq mechanical engineering objective mcq mcq on engineering drawing engineering physics mcq engineering physics mcq pdf engineering physics mcq with answers pdf mechanical engineering mcq pdf software engineering mcq pdf electrical engineering mcq pdf automobile engineering mcq pdf civil engineering mcq questions pdf software engineering mcq questions with answers pdf software engineering mcq questions with answers electrical engineering mcq question answer civil engineering mcq questions engineering drawing mcq questions pdf automobile engineering mcq questions what is mcqs related software engineering railway engineering mcq requirement engineering mcq radar engineering mcq reservoir engineering mcq radio engineering mcq reverse engineering mcq engineering mcqs engineering mcqs pdf engineering science mcq software engineering mcqs electrical engineering mcq s s/w engineering mcq engineering thermodynamics mcq engineering thermodynamics mcq pdf civil engineering mcq test software engineering mcq test mechanical engineering mcq test electrical engineering mcq test civil engineering mcq type question electrical engineering mcq test online chemical engineering thermodynamics mcq 2015 engineering technology mcq answers pune university engineering mcq value engineering mcq software engineering mcq with answers software engineering mcq with answers pdf mechanical engineering mcq with answers pdf civil engineering mcq with answers electrical engineering mcq with answer mechanical engineering mcq with answers genetic engineering mcq with answers engineering physics mcq with answers civil engineering mcq with answers pdf computer engineering mcq with answers engineering mechanics first year mcq pdf engineering mathematics 1 mcq software engineering 1000 mcq software engineering 1 mcq with answers fpl 1 fe engineering mcq engineering mathematics 2 mcq engineering mathematics 2 mcq pdf software engineering 2 mcq with answers software engineering 2 mcqs engineering mathematics 3 mcq pdf engineering mathematics 3 mcq engineering mathematics 3 mcq pune university mathematics 3 for engineering mcq mechanical engineering mcq book mechanical engineering mcq pdf mechanical engineering mcq book pdf mechanical engineering mcq question answer pdf mechanical engineering mcq app mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain mechanical engineering mcqs with answers mechanical engineering mcq for ssc je mechanical engineering mcq questions pdf mechanical engineering mcqs indiabix mechanical engineering mcq mechanical engineering mcq questions mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain pdf download mechanical engineering mcq apk mechanical engineering mcq app download mechanical engineering mcq with answers pdf mechanical engineering mcq questions and answers mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain pdf free download mechanical engineering mcq book free download mechanical engineering mcq blogspot mechanical engineering mcq book download mechanical engineering mcqs by khurmi mechanical engineering basic mcq mechanical engineering mcq for competitive exam mechanical engineering mcq download mechanical engineering drawing mcq mechanical engineering drawing mcq questions mechanical engineering drawing mcq pdf mechanical engineering mcq pdf download mechanical engineering mcq free download diploma mechanical engineering mcq mechanical engineering mcq with answers pdf free download mechanical engineering mcq ebook free download mechanical engineering mcqs for nts mechanical engineering mcq pdf free download mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain free download fundamental of mechanical engineering mcq fe basic mechanical engineering mcq pdf mechanical engineering general mcqs mechanical engineering interview questions mcq mcq in mechanical engineering mcq in mechanical engineering pdf mechanical engineering mcq by rk jain pdf mechanical engineering mcqs nts nptel mechanical engineering mcq mechanical engineering mcq online mechanical engineering objective mcq basics of mechanical engineering mcq pdf of mechanical engineering mcq elements of mechanical engineering mcq with answers mechanical engineering mcq practice basic mechanical engineering mcq pdf mechanical engineering mcqs question paper gate mcq for mechanical engineering pdf basic mechanical engineering mcq questions mcqs related to mechanical engineering mechanical engineering mcqs mechanical engineering mcqs pdf mechanical engineering mcqs book by khurmi mechanical engineering mcqs books mechanical engineering mcqs book pdf basic mechanical engineering mcqs mechanical engineering mcq test mechanical engineering mcq with answers electrical engineering mcq book electrical engineering mcq with answers electrical engineering mcq questions electrical engineering mcq app electrical engineering mcq question answer electrical engineering mcq online electrical engineering mcqs pdf electrical engineering mcq quiz electrical engineering mcq books pdf electrical engineering mcqs by handa pdf electrical engineering mcq electrical engineering mcq question electrical engineering mcq pdf electrical engineering mcq questions pdf electrical engineering mcq question answer pdf electrical engineering mcq with answer electrical engineering mcq by a.hand basic electrical engineering mcq with answer electrical and electronics engineering mcq question answer electrical and electronics engineering mcq question answer pdf electrical and electronics engineering mcq electrical and electronics engineering mcq pdf electrical engineering mcq book by handa electrical engineering mcq blogspot electrical engineering mcqs by handa pdf free download electrical engineering mcqs by m handa pdf electrical engineering mcqs book download electrical engineering mcqs book by handa pdf electrical engineering mcq for competitive exam gate mcq electrical engineering combo set 4 volumes electrical engineering mcq download electrical engineering mcq pdf download electrical engineering mcqs pdf free download diploma electrical engineering mcq basic electrical engineering mcq pdf download electrical engineering mcq with explanation elements of electrical engineering mcq pdf electrical engineering mcqs for nts electrical engineering mcqs for nts pdf electrical engineering mcqs for job electrical engineering fundamentals mcqs electrical engineering mcq books free download electrical engineering mcqs pdf free electrical engineering mcqs test for nts basic electrical engineering fe mcq fundamentals of electrical engineering mcqs fundamentals of electrical engineering mcqs pdf basics of electrical engineering mcqs elements of electrical engineering mcq basics of electrical engineering mcq pdf fundamentals of electrical engineering mcqs with answers general electrical engineering mcq gate mcq electrical engineering by rk kanodia pdf gate mcq electrical engineering by rk kanodia gate mcq electrical engineering gate mcq electrical engineering pdf electrical engineering mcqs by handa electrical engineering mcqs by handa free download electrical engineering mcqs by m handa pdf download electrical engineering mcq indiabix electrical engineering mcq in hindi electrical engineering mcq in pdf electrical engineering interview questions mcq mcq in electrical engineering electrical engineering diploma level mcq electrical engineering materials mcq electrical engineering mcqs by m handa electrical engineering mcqs by vk mehta electrical engineering mcqs nts electrical engineering mcqs online test electrical engineering objective mcq fundamental of electrical engineering mcq electrical engineering objective questions mcq fundamental of electrical engineering mcq pdf mcq on electrical engineering with answers electrical engineering mcq pdf in hindi electrical engineering power mcqs basic electrical engineering mcq pdf with answers electrical engineering solved mcqs pdf nts electrical engineering mcqs pdf basic electrical engineering mcq questions electrical engineering related mcqs electrical engineering mcqs electrical engineering mcqs book electrical engineering mcqs book pdf electrical engineering mcq test electrical engineering mcq test online transmission and distribution electrical engineering mcq electrical engineering mcqs in urdu gate mcq for electrical engineering vol 1 pdf gate mcq for electrical engineering vol-4 gate mcq for electrical engineering vol 1 free download gate mcq for electrical engineering vol-2 electrical engineering mcq with solution basic electrical engineering mcqs with answers pdf www.electrical engineering mcq civil engineering mcq pdf civil engineering mcq pdf download civil engineering mcq books civil engineering mcq with answers civil engineering mcq app civil engineering mcq indiabix civil engineering mcq test civil engineering mcq in hindi civil engineering mcq books pdf download civil engineering mcqs book free download civil engineering mcq civil engineering mcq questions civil engineering mcq by gupta and gupta civil engineering mcq answers civil engineering mcq application civil engineering mcq with answers pdf civil engineering mcq questions and answers pdf civil engineering mcq question and answer civil engineering mcq gupta and gupta civil engineering mcq with and civil engineering mcq by gupta and gupta pdf basic civil engineering mcq with answers pdf civil engineering mcq book civil engineering mcqs by r agor civil engineering basics mcq basic civil engineering mcq pdf basic civil engineering mcq questions civil engineering mcq collection civil engineering mcq download civil engineering drawing mcq questions civil engineering diploma mcq civil engineering drawing mcq civil engineering mcqs free download civil engineering mcqs pdf free download diploma civil engineering mcq question civil engineering mcq ebook civil engineering mcq exam elements of civil engineering mcq pdf elements of civil engineering mcq with answers elements of civil engineering mcq civil engineering mcq for je civil engineering mcq for competitive exam civil engineering mcqs for nts civil engineering mcqs for test civil engineering- mcqs for ies gate psus civil engineering mcqs for ppsc mcq for civil engineering civil engineering mcq in gujarati general civil engineering mcqs diploma in civil engineering mcq mcq in civil engineering latest civil engineering mcq civil engineering mcq mock test civil engineering materials mcq civil engineering mcq on soil mechanics civil engineering mcqs nts sub engineer civil mcqs nts civil engineering mcq online basics of civil engineering mcq mcq on civil engineering pdf mcq on civil engineering drawing elements of civil engineering mcqs with answers civil engineering mcq pdf free download civil engineering mcq book pdf civil engineering drawing mcq pdf civil engineering mcq question paper civil engineering mcq question answer pdf civil engineering mcq questions and answers civil engineering mcq type question civil engineering mcqs civil engineering mcqs with answers pdf civil engineering mcqs book civil engineering mcqs book free download pdf civil engineering mcqs for kppsc civil engineering mcqs indiabix sub engineer civil mcqs test top civil engineering mcq civil engineering mcq with explanation civil engineering mcq questions with answers pdf basic civil engineering mcq with answers civil engineering mcq questions with answer dae civil engineering mcqs with answers fitter mcq book fitter mcq hindi fitter mcq pdf fitter mcq online fitter mcq questions fitter mcq questions and answers iti fitter mcq question iti fitter mcq pdf fitter theory mcq fitter trade theory mcq fitter mcq fitter mcq question fitter mcq with answers iti fitter mcq mcq for fitter iti fitter mcq book mcq on fitter mcq fitter trade 3rd sem fitter trade mcq

0 notes

educatorsplus001 · 2 years

Text

Educators Plus

The present post describes important topics to study for UGC Net Education, PGT Education, UGC Net Paper 1, NTA Net Paper 1, NTA Net Paper 2, and other assistant professor exams in Education Subject. Unit 9: Educational Management, Administration and Leadership, Change Management: Meaning, Need for Planned change, Three-Step-Model of Change (Unfreezing, Moving, Refreezing), The Japanese Models of Change: Just-in-Time, Poka yoke, Cost of Quality: Appraisal Costs, Failure costs and Preventable costs, Cost Benefit Analysis, for more detailed discussion on these topics Subscribe Educators Plus.

#ugc net education #ugc net education paper 2 #ugc net education paper 2 mcq #ugc net education preparation #nta net education paper 2 #nta net education #pgt education #ugc net paper 1 #ugc net paper 1 preparation #nta net paper 1

1 note · View note

lazykoalacollectionblog · 8 years

Text

MCQ Questions Based On Paper1 CBSE UGC NET EXAM DEC 2008 [Solved]

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/cbse-ugc-net-solved-paper-1-dec-2008/

MCQ Questions Based On Paper1 CBSE UGC NET EXAM DEC 2008 [Solved]

medianet_width = "336"; medianet_height = "280"; medianet_crid = "163710263"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

MCQ Previous Papers CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 Dec 2008

Please find below 60 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude Question Based on CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 Dec 2008 UGC NET exam. Answer of All those has been provided below the question.

**We have tried to compile the best answer, however, if you find any answer in incorrect , please feel free to comment we will be more than happy to modify same.

Questions along with Answers Below – Explanations are always welcome

1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher’s success depends on : (A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others (B) His professional training and creativity (C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God (D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students

See Answer

(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others

2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most : (A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude (B) A loving teacher (C) A teacher who is disciplined (D) A teacher who often amuses his students

See Answer

(B) A loving teacher

3. A teacher’s most important challenge is : (A) To make students do their home work (B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable (C) To maintain discipline in the class room (D) To prepare the question paper

See Answer

(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable

4. Value-education stands for : (A) making a student healthy (B) making a student to get a job (C) inculcation of virtues (D) all-round development of personality

See Answer

5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would : (A) pull up the student then and there (B) talk to the student after the class (C) ask the student to leave the class (D) ignore the student

See Answer

(B)talk to the student after the class

6. The research is always – (A) verifying the old knowledge (B) exploring new knowledge (C) filling the gap between knowledge (D) all of these

See Answer

(D) all of these

7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and more clear ideas about the problem is: (A) Applied research (B) Action research (C) Experimental research (D) None of these

See Answer

8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling method is: (A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling (C) Convenient Sampling (D) Lottery Method

See Answer

(B) Stratified Sampling

9. The process not needed in experimental research is : (A) Observation (B) Manipulation and replication (C) Controlling (D) Reference collection

See Answer

(A) Observation

10. A research problem is not feasible only when : (A) it is researchable (B) it is new and adds something to knowledge (C) it consists of independent and dependent variables (D) it has utility and relevance

See Answer

(C)it consists of independent and dependent variables

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According to a United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-kilometer deep blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and other particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already struggling to cope with a drought, the implication of this are devastating and further crop failure will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will have adverse social and economic consequences and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate India has always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll of the assembly line without proper pollution control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple technologies, which could make a vital difference to people’s lives and the environment. However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act, skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is set for the usual battle between the developing world and the West, particularly the Unites States of America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly deny its own dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas. Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries, who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with the West, the USA should take a look at the environmental profigacy, which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush’s policies are not exactly beneficial, not even to America’s interests. We realize that we are all in this together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.

11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to : (A) Failure of Monsoon (B) Poverty and Inequality (C) Slowdown in Industrial Production (D) Mention of Clean Technology

See Answer

(D) Mention of Clean Technology

12. If the rate of premature death increases it will : (A) Exert added burden on the crumbling economy (B) Have adverse social and economic consequences (C) Make positive effect on our effort to control population (D) Have less job aspirants in the society

See Answer

13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not adequately concerned about : (A) Passenger safety on the roads (B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner (C) Pollution control system in the vehicle (D) Rising cost of the two wheelers

See Answer

(B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner

14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the Kyoto meet? (A) United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A. (B) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A. (C) Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment degradation. (D) U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet

See Answer

(D)U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet

15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South Asia ? (A) Social and economic inequality (B) Crumbling health care system (C) Inadequate pollution control system (D) Radically changing monsoon pattern

See Answer

(D)Radically changing monsoon pattern

16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of : (A) Local audience (B) Education (C) Entertainment (D) News

See Answer

(A) Local audience

17. Orcut is a part of: (A) Intra personal Communication (B) Mass Communication (C) Group Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

See Answer

(D) Interpersonal Communication

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List – II (Artists) (Art) (a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute (b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song (c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting (d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat Natyam Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

See Answer

(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

19. Which is not correct in latest communication award ? (A) Salman Rushdie – Booker’s Prize – July 20, 2008 (B) Dilip Sanghavi – Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008 (C) Tapan Sinha – Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008 (D) Gautam Ghosh – Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008

See Answer

(D) Gautam Ghosh – Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008

20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against : (A) Unauthorized attacks (B) Virus attacks (C) Data-driven attacks (D) Fire-attacks

See Answer

(A) Unauthorized attacks

21. Insert the missing number in the following : 2/3 , 4/7, ? , 11/21, 16/31 (A) 10/8 (B) 6/10 (C) 5/10 (D) 7/13

See Answer

(D) 7/13

22. In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would DISCLOSE be written in that code? (A) IDSCOLSE (B) IDCSOLES (C) IDSCOLES (D) IDSCLOSE

See Answer

(A) IDSCOLSE

23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set : AST : BRU : : NQV : ? (A) ORW (B) MPU (C) MRW (D) OPW

See Answer

(D) OPW

24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall ? (A) 2,9,16,23,30 (B) 3,10,17,24 (C) 4,11,18,25 (D) 1,8,15,22,29

medianet_width = "600"; medianet_height = "250"; medianet_crid = "387741659"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

See Answer

(B) 3,10,17,24

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence : 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165 (A) 130 (B) 142 (C) 153 (D) 165

See Answer

(D) 165

26. There are five books A,B,C,D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E is below A and B is below E. Which is at the bottom ? (A) E (B) B (C) A (D) C

See Answer

(B) B

27. Logical reasoning is based on: (A) Truth of involved propositions (B) Valid relation among the involved propositions (C) Employment of symbolic language (D) Employment of ordinary language

See Answer

(B)Valid relation among the involved propositions

28. Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms but different in quality are: (A) Contradictory (B) Contrary (C) Subaltern (D) Identical

See Answer

29. The premises of a valid deductive argument: (A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion (B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion (C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion (D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion

See Answer

(D)Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion

30. Syllogistic reasoning is: (A) Deductive (B) Inductive (C) Experimental (D) Hypothetical

See Answer

(A) Deductive

Question Nos. 31 to 35 NOT FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED CANDIDATES

Study the following Venn diagram and answer questions nos. 31 to 33. Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES are intersecting. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g and h. Which part best represents the statements in questions 31 to 33 ? 31. Some Graduates are Government employees but not as Clerks. (A) h (B) g (C) f (D) e

See Answer

32. Clerks who are graduates as well as government employees : (A) e (B) f (C) g (D) h

See Answer

(D) h

33. Some graduates are Clerks but not Government employees. (A) f (B) g (C) h (D) e

See Answer

(D) e

Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 34 to 35: 34. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006. (A) ab (B) ce (C) cd (D) ef

See Answer

(B) ce

35. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007. (A) bdf (B) acf (C) bed (D) ace

See Answer

(A) bdf

36. The accounting software ‘Tally’ was developed by : (A) HCL (B) TCS (C) Infosys (D) Wipro

See Answer

(B) TCS

37. Errors in computer programmes are called : (A) Follies (B) Mistakes (C) Bugs (D) Spam

See Answer

38. HTML is basically used to design: (A) Web-page (B) Web-site (C) Graphics (D) Tables and Frames

See Answer

(A) Web-page

39. ‘Micro Processing’is made for: (A) Computer (B) Digital System (C) Calculator (D) Electronic Goods

See Answer

(B) Digital System

40. Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation is called : (A) Multiprogramme (B) Multifacet (C) Multimedia (D) Multiprocess

See Answer

41. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes is incorrect ? (A) Plastic- 9-12% (B) Metals- 1-2% (C) Ceramic- 8-10% (D) Biodegradable- 35-40%

See Answer

Plastic- 9-12%

42. Fresh water achieves its greatest density at : (A) -4° C (B) 0 C (C) 4° C (D) -2.5° C

See Answer

43. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes ? (A) Focus (B) Epicenter (C) Seismograph (D) Swells

See Answer

(D) Swells

44. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region : (A) Equatorial region (B) Temperate region (C) Monsoon region (D) Mediterranean region

See Answer

(B) Temperate region

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I List – II (National Parks) (States) (a) Periyar (i) Orissa (b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala (c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan (d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

See Answer

(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

46. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is : (A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony (B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics, administration, industry and commerce (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

See Answer

47. The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to : (A) Delhi University (B) a Deemed University (C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU (D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

See Answer

(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below : List-I List-II (Institutions) (Locations) (a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla (b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal (c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad (d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

See Answer

(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

49. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by : (A) Election Commission of India (B) State Election Commission (C) District Collector and District Magistrate (D) Concerned Returning Officer

See Answer

(B) State Election Commission

50. Which opinion is not correct? (A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of India (B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body (C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trade marks are the subject of concurrent list (D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to research in social sciences

See Answer

medianet_width = "336"; medianet_height = "280"; medianet_crid = "163710263"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

#Dec 2008 #ugc net paper 1 solved #ugc net previous year question papers solved paper 1

0 notes

lazykoalacollectionblog · 7 years

Text

MCQ Higher Education System Questions Paper1| Updated

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/higher-education-system-questions-paper1/

MCQ Higher Education System Questions Paper1| Updated

medianet_width = "336"; medianet_height = "280"; medianet_crid = "163710263"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM: GOVERNANCE, POLITY, AND ADMINISTRATION

MCQ on Solved Paper UGC NET EXAM 2006 -2018

July 2018

India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after : (a) The United States of America (b) Australia (c) China (d) United Kingdom (U.K.) Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only (3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: 2

Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in : (1) State and Central Universities (2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs (3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities (4) IITs and IISc

Answer: 3

Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select : (a) the Central Information Commissioner (b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner (c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission (d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only (3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 2

Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ? (a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women. (b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women. (c) It is an accounting exercise. (d) It is another budgeting innovation. Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (b) and (d) only (2) (a) and (d) only (3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only

Answer: 1

Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ? (a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants (b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules (c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens (d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) only (3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: 1

November 2017

Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India ? (a) Access (b) Equity (c) Quality and Excellence (d) Relevance (e) Value based education (f) Compulsory and free education Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (a), (b) and (e) only (2) (a), (b), (e) and (f) (3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3 Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ? (1) Miranda House, Delhi (2) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi (3) Fergusson College, Pune (4) Maharaja’s College, Mysore

Answer: 1

Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University in India in Feb. 2017 ? (1) Jawaharlal Nehru University (2) Banaras Hindu University (3) Tezpur University (4) University of Hyderabad

Answer: 1

Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution ? (1) Judge of a High Court (2) Governor of a State (3) Chief Election Commissioner (4) Comptroller and Auditor – General

Answer: 2

Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’ ? (a) Misuse of official position (b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms (c) Non-action when action is required (d) Harm to public good Select the correct answer from the code given below : (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 4

January 2017

Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education ? (a) Exposure to global curriculum (b) Promotion of elitism in education (c) Commodification of higher education (d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities ? (a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities. (b) They can design their own syllabus and course work. (c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees. (d) They can grant degrees. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on (1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society. (2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group. (3) Concern for human values. (4) Religious and moral practices and instructions

Answer: 3

Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency. (b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States. (c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent. (d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a) andü (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State ? (a) Dissolution of the State Assembly. (b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State. (c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government. (d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a) andü (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

Answer: 1

Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour ? (a) Governor of a State (b) Attorney General of India (c) Judges of the High Court (d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (1) (a) only (2) (c) only (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships ? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer. (i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails. (ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning. (iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place. (iv) There can be no learning without teaching. (v) A teacher teaches but learns also. (vi) Real learning implies rote learning. Codes : (1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

July 2016

1. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ? (a) Contributing to national development. (b) Fostering global competencies among the students. (c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers. (d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (1) (b),(c)and(d) 2) (a),(b)and(c) (3) (a),(c)and(d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Answer: 2

2. The best way for providing value education is through? (1) discussions on scriptural texts (2) lectures/discourses on values (3) seminars / symposia on values 4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values Answer: 4 3. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by 1) The Supreme Court of India (2) The High Court (3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both (4) The President of India Answer: 1 4. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ? (a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government (b) Parliament is Supreme. (c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a),(b),(c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) 4) (c)only Answer: 4 5. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ? (a) To respect the National Flag. (b) To protect and improve the natural environment. (c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education/to his/her child. (d) To protect monuments and places of national importance. Select the correct answer from the codes given: (1) (a),(b)and(c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (a),(c)and(d) (4) (a), (b),(c) and (d) Answer: 1 6. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog? (a) It is a constitutional body. (b) It is a statutory body. (c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. (d) It is a think-tank. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a)and(d) (2) (b)and(d) (3) (c)and(d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) Answer: 3 7. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set ~ II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code: Set-I Set-II (Levels of Cognitive interchange) (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive Interchange) a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point. b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations. c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information. iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed. Codes: a b c (1) ii iv i (2) iii iv ii 3) ii i iv (4) i ii ii Answer: 3 8. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below : (i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject. (ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends. (iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject. (iv) Student’s language background. (v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code. (vi) Motivational-orientation of the students. Codes: (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi) (3) (ii),(iii),(iv)and(v) (4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) Answer: 2

DECEMBER 2015

1. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhivan (RUSA) ? (a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions. (b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty. (c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges. (d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) Answer : 2 2. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are : (a) Religion (b) Sex (c) Place of birth (d) Nationality Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Answer : 2 3. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ? (a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha. (b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission. (c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed. (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b); (c) and (d) Answer : 1 4. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in : (1) the Union List 2) the State List (3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers 5. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is : (1) 4 years (2) 5 years (3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier (4) not fixed Answer : 4 6. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ? (1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal Answer : 1

JUNE 2015

medianet_width = "600"; medianet_height = "250"; medianet_crid = "387741659"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

1. The session of the parliament is summoned by : (1) The President (2) The Prime Minister (3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Answer : 1 2. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on : (1) 21st April2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July Answer : 1 3. The South Asia University is situated in the city of : (1) Colombo (2) Dhaka(3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

Answer : 3 4. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ? (a) Promotion of research and development in higher education (b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning (c) Capacity building of teachers (d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) Answer : 2

5. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about: (1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent

Answer : 3

6. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was : (1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43 Answer : 4

DECEMBER 2016

1. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of (A) Bihar B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi Answer : 2 2. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956 ? 1. A university established by an Act of Parliament. 2. A university established by an Act of Legislature. 3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority. 4. An institution which is a deemed to be university. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3 (C) 1.2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer : 1 3. Which of the following are the tools of good governance ? 1. Social Audit 2. Separation of Powers 3. Citizen’s Charter 4. Right to Information Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2. 3 and 4 (C) l and 4 (D) 1,2. 3 and 4 Answer : 4 4. Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in (A) Right to Freedom (B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (C) Right to Equality (D) Right against Exploitation Answer : 2 5. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building Educational Planning ? (A) NCERT (B) UGC (C) NAAC (D) NUEPA Answer : 1 Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ? 1. Summoning 2. Adjournment – sine die 3. Prorogation 4. Dissolution Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1.2 and 3 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4 Answer : 3 The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed (A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 4 months (D) 100 days Answer : 2

JUNE 2014

1. Which of the following are Central Universities ? 1. Pondicherry University 2. Vishwa Bharati 3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 4. Kurukshetra University Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes : (A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2 and 4 Answer : 1 2. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below : i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country. ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world. iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu. iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda. Codes: (A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii (C) ii and iii (D) i and iv Answer : 4 3. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission ? (A) Chairman (B)Deputy Chairman (C) Minister of State for Planning (D) Member Secretary Answer : 2 4. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the (A) Union List (B) State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary Powers Answer : 3 Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii). Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal. Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy. (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions. Codes: (A) Only argument (i) is strong. (B) Only argument (ii) is strong. (C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong. Answer : 1 5. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ? (A) Assam University (B) Delhi University (C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University Answer : 2 6. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ? 1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament. 2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University. 3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University. 4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Codes : (A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,3 and 4 (C) 1,2 and3 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4 Answer : 3 7. The e-content generation for under–graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to (A) INFLIBNET B) Consortium for Educational Communication (C) National Knowledge Commission (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

DECEMBER 2013

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013? (A) Distance Education Council (DEC) (B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) (C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) (D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) Answer : 1 2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council? 1. It is an autonomous institution. 2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education. 3. It is located in Delhi. 4. It has regional offices. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes : (A) l and 3 (B) l and 2 (C) l,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4 Answer : 1 3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its (A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction (C) Original Jurisdiction (D)Writ Jurisdiction Answer : 3 4. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. There are seven Union Territories in India. 2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies 3. One Union Territory has a High Court. 4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer : 4 5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission? 1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body. 2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India. 3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/- 4. It can punish an errant officer. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes: (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1,2 and 4 (C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 Answer : 3 6. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States? (A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS) (B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) (C) CNN and IBN (D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu Answer : 1

JUNE 2013

1. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010 – 11 was beyond the percentage Of seats reserved ? (A) OBC students (B) SC students (C) ST students (D) Woman students Answer : 1 2. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)? (A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament. (B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education. (C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government. (D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities Answer : 4 3. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system? Arguments: (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government. (II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.(A) Only argument (I) is strong. (B) Only argument (II) is strong; (C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong. Answer : 3 4. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections? Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics. (II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents. (A) Only argument (I) is strong. (B) Only argument (II) is strong. (C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong. Answer : 1 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India? 1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India. 2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. 3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry. 4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes : (A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4 Answer : 4 6. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to (A) The President (B) The Vice-President (C) The Prime Minister (D) The Cabinet Ministers Answer : 3

DECEMBER 2012

1. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index ? (A) Literacy Rate (B) Gross Enrolment (C) Sex Ratio (D) Life Expectancy Answer : 3 2. India has the highest number of students in colleges after (A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. (C) Australia (D) Canada Answer : 2 3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India ? 1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India. 2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country. 3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 4. He has a fixed tenure. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) l and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only Answer : 1 4. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ? 1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim 3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) l and 2 (D) 1,2 and 3 Answer : 3 5. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency ? 1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished. 2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States. 3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced. 4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) l and2 (D) 2 and 3 Answer : 4 6. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I List -II (a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals (b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY) (c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP) (d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Answer : 1

JUNE 2012

1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at (A) Dharmshala (B) Shimla (C) Solan (D) Chandigarh Answer : 2 2. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education. (A) 04 (B) 05 (C) 06 (D) 08 Answer : 1 3. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ? (A) Freedom of Speech (B) Right to Equality (C) Right to Freedom of Religion (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies Answer : 4 4. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ? (A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings (C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation (D) Sir Charles Metcalfe Answer : 1 5. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper. 3. Respect for the Government. 4. To protect Wildlife. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2 Answer : 2 6. The President of India takes oath (A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India. (B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India. (C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country. (D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country Answer : 4

DECEMBER 2011

1. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is (A) the moral values (B) the social values (C) the political values (D) the economic values Answer : 1 2. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India. (A) 10 (B) 07(C) 08 (D) 09 Answer : 2 3. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of (A) The President of India (B) Finance Minister of India (C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (D) Finance Secretary of Government of India Answer : 4 4. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I List – II (Commissions and Committees) (Year) (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (i) 2005 (b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962 (c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966 (d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission (iv) 1953 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Answer : 2 5. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by (A) The State Election Commission of respective States (B) The Law Ministry of Government of India (C) The Election Commission of India (D) Election Department of the State Governments Answer : 3 6. The members of Gram Sabha are (A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas (B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker (C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas (D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat Answer : 4

JUNE 2011

1. The first Open University in India was set up in the State (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu Answer : 1 2. Most of the Universities in India are funded by (A) the Central Government (B) the State Governments (C) the University Grants Commission (D) Private bodies and Individuals Answer : 3 3. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India? (A) NCTE (B) MCI (C) AICTE (D) CSIR Answer : 3 4. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice. (A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts. (B) Justice delayed is justice denied. (C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen (D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given. Answer : 4 5. The President of India is (A) the Head of State (B) the Head of Government (C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government (D) None of the above Answer : 1 6. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India? (A) Chief Election Commissioner (B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (D) Governor of a State Answer : 4

DECEMBER 2010

1. India’s first Defence University is in the State of (A) Haryana B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab Answer : 1 2. Most of the Universities in India (A) conduct teaching and research only (B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations (C) conduct teaching/research and examinations (D) promote research only Answer : 3 3. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body ? (A) Election Commission (B) Finance Commission (C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission Answer : 4 4. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Indian Parliament is supreme. (B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review. (C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States. (D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President. Answer : 2 5. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy ? (A) Written Constitution (B) No State religion (C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions (D)Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament Answer : 4 6. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India ? (A) Chief Minister of a State (B) A member of the State Public Service Commission (C) Advocate-General (D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University Answer : 2

JUNE 2010

1. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of (A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts. (B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach. (C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision. (D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned. Answer : 2 2. Which option is not correct ? (A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list. (B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976. (C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920. (D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th Constitutional Amendment Answer : 1 3. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ? (A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year. (B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year. (C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad. (D) It is being celebrated since 2008 Answer : 1 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List – I List – II (Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions) (a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals (b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India (c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level (d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Answer : 2 5. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to (A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees. (B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education. (C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC. (D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council. Answer : 3

DECEMBER 2009

1. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to (A) create more teaching jobs (B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education (C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions (D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas Answer : 2 2. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in (A) English only (B) Hindi only (C) English and Hindi both (D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution Answer : 3 3. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric ? (A) Seminar (B) Workshop (C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion Answer : 4 4. The Parliament in India is composed of (A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats Answer : 3 5. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes (A) 50% of formal system (B) 25% of formal system (C) 10% of the formal system (D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education Answer : 2 Assertion 6. (A) : The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers. Reason (R) : University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is correct and (R) is false. (D) (A) is false and (R) is correct. Answer : 1

JUNE 2009

1. The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled on : (A) Education and National Development (B) Learning to be adventure (C) Diversification of Education (D) Education and socialization in democracy Answer : 1 2. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University ? (A) Delhi University (B) Bangalore University (C) Madras University (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University Answer : 4 3. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as “Code of Administrators” ? (A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV Answer : 4 4. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament ? (A) Article 371 A (B) Article 371 B (C) Article 371 C (D) Article 263 Answer : 1 5. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance ? (A) Right to information (B) Citizens’ Charter (C) Social Auditing ( D) Judicial Activism Answer : 4

DECEMBER 2008

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List-I List – II (National Parks) (States) (a) Periyar (i) Orissa (b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala (c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan (d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Answer : 1 2. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is : (A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony (B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics, administration, industry and commerce (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Answer : 3 3. The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to : (A) Delhi University (B) a Deemed University (C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU (D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture Answer : 4 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below : List-I List-II (Institutions) (Locations) (a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla (b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal (c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad (d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) Answer : 4 5. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by : (A) Election Commission of India (B) State Election Commission (C) District Collector and District Magistrate (D) Concerned Returning Officer Answer : 2 6. Which opinion is not correct? (A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of India (B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body (C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trade marks are the subject of concurrent list (D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to research in social sciences Answer : 3

JUNE 2008

1. NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of : (A) ICSSR (B) CSIR (C) AICTE (D) UGC Answer : 4 2. National Council for Women’s Education was established in : (A) 1958 (B) 1976 (C) 1989 (D) 2000 Answer : 1 3. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi ? (A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations (B) Indian Council of Scientific Research (C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies Answer : 4 4. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in : (A) Administration (B) Policy-making (C) Finance (D) Curriculum development Answer : 4 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

List-I (Institutions) List-II (Locations) (a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai (b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda (c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur (d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (B) (i) (ii) (ui) (iv) (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Answer : 1

DECEMBER 2007

1. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as : (A) SATEDU (B) INSAT – B (C) EDUSAT (D) INSAT-C Answer : 3 2. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as : (A) GyanDarshan(B) Cyan Vani (C) DoorDarshan (D) Prasar Bharati Answer : 1 3. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in: (A) Sevagram (B) New Delhi (C) Wardha (D) Ahmedabad Answer : 3 4. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II (Institutes) (Locations) (a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages (b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad (c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi (d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) Answer : 1 5. The aim of vocationalization of education is : (A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge (B) converting liberal education into vocational education (C) giving more importance to vocational than general education (D) making liberal education job-oriented Answer : 4

JUNE 2007

1. Value education makes a student : (A) Good citizen (B) Successful businessman (C) Popular teacher (D) Efficient manager Answer : 1 2. Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as : (A) Inflibnet (B) Libinfnet (C) Internet (D) HTML Answer : 1 3. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is : (A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad (B) I.G.N.O.U. (C) University of Pune (D) Annamalai University Answer : 2 4. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year: (A) 1980 (B) 1948 (C) 1950 (D) 1956 Answer : 4 5.Universities having central campus for imparting education are called : (A) Central Universities (B) Deemed Universities (C) Residential Universities (D) Open Universities Answer : 1

DECEMBER 2006

1. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of : (A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission (B) Mudaliar Commission (C) Sargent Commission (D) Kothari Commission Answer : 1 2. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking ? (A) Article 19 (B) Article 29 (C) Article 30 (D) Article 31 Answer : 3 3. Match List – I (Institutions) with List – II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below : List – I (Institutions) List – II (Functions) (a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget (b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget (c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget (d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure (v) Justification of Income Code : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (B) (ii) (iv)(i) (iii) (C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v) Answer : 2 4. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by : (A) Indian Institute of Public Administration (B) Administrative Staff College of India (C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration (D) Centre for Advanced Studies Answer : 3 5. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by : (A) Election Commission of India (B) Joint Committee of Parliament (C) Supreme Court of India (D) Central Election Tribunal Answer : 3

JUNE 2006

1. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India ? (A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi (B) Mythic Society, Bangalore (C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi (D) India International Centre, New Delhi Answer : 3 2. Assertion (A) : Aerosols have potential for modifying climate Reason (R) : Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Answer : 1 ’SITE’ stands for: (A)System for International technology and Engineering (B)Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (C)South Indian Trade Estate (D)State Institute of Technology and Engineering Answer : 2

3. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for ‘Conducting Research at Antarctic ? (A) Dakshin Gangotri (B)Yamunotri (C)Uttari Gangotri (D)None of the above Answer : 1 4. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes : (A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy (B)Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education (C)Department of Women and Child Development (D)All the above Answer : 4 5. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list : (A) With the prior permission of the President. (B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably. (C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures. (D) At the request of two or more States. Answer : 4

0 notes

lazykoalacollectionblog · 6 years

Text

MCQ Questions Based On Paper1 CBSE UGC NET EXAM July 2018 [Solved]

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/cbse-ugc-net-solved-paper-1-july-2018/

MCQ Questions Based On Paper1 CBSE UGC NET EXAM July 2018 [Solved]

MCQ Previous Papers CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 July 2018

Please find below 50 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude Question Based on CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 July 2018 UGC NET exam. Answer of All those has been provided below the question.

**We have tried to compile the best answer, however, if you find any answer in incorrect , please feel free to comment we will be more than happy to modify same.

Questions along with Answers Below – Explanations are always welcome

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

Teaching and learning are integrally related.

There is no difference between teaching and training.

Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

All good teaching is formal in nature.

A teacher is a senior person.

Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(a), (b) and (d)

(b), (c) and (e)

(a), (c) and (f)

(d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: 1

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Set – I (Method of teaching)

(a) Lecturing

(b) Discussion in groups

(d) Programmed Instructional procedure

Set – II (Basic requirements for success/effectiveness)

(i) Small step presentation with feedback provided

(ii) Production of large number of ideas

(iii) Content delivery in a lucid language

(iv) Use of teaching-aids

(v) Theme based interaction among participants

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) i (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i) 4 (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: 3

From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: 4

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

6. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types)

(a) Fundamental research

(b) Applied research

(d) Evaluative research

Set – II (Characteristics)

(i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions

(iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) ii (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer: 1

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: 4

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: 3

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: 4

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 3

12. More productive employment demands:

(1) Pervasive use of technology

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations

(4) Large industries

Answer: 1

13. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: 2

14. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

(1) Unbridled technological growth

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sideling environmental issues

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

Answer: 4

15. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Aspiration to become a major economics player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

Answer: 4

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) Selective expectation of performance

(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) Selective attention

(4) Selective morality

Answer: 1

17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4

18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 4

19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive.

Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 3

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?

(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: 3

21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29,________, … is

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: 3

22. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) ZKU

Answer: 3

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: 4

24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: 3

25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: 4

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.

(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological

(3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: 3

27. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: 1

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: 4

29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: 3

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: 3

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 31 – 35 based on the data contained in the table.

Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice Year Production

(in million kg)

Exports

(in million kg)

Per Capita Consumption (in kg) 2012 186.5 114 36.25 2013 202 114 35.2 2014 238 130 38.7 2015 221 116 40.5 2016 215 88 42 Yearwise Details for DI

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) / (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production – Exports.

31. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

Answer: 2

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

(1) 2.64

(2) 2.72

(3) 2.79

(4) 2.85

Answer: 3

33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

Answer: 1

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

Answer: 4

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 – 2016?

(1) 104

(2) 102.1

(3) 108

(4) 100.1

Answer: 4

36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE?

P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.

Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through a common cabling system.

(1) P Only

(2) Q Only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: 2

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models.

Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

Answer: 4

38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message?

Mail- To CC and BCC for ICT

To… ram@test. com Cc… raj@test. com; ravi@test. com Bcc… swami@test. com; rama@test. com

(1) ram@test. com

(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com

(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

Answer: 2

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte (b) byte (c) Megabyte (d) Terabyte (e) Gigabyte (f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

Answer: 3

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE?

P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.

R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q only

(4) P and R only

Answer: 2

41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) wasteland development

(d) brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 4

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

(1) Earthquakes

(2) Landsides

(3) Hurricanes

(4) Droughts

Answer: 4

43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: 1

44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

Answer: 1

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off

(4) Thermal power plants

Answer: 2

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: 4

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

Answer: 4

48. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) the central information Commissioner

(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner

(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: 2

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: 1

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: 4

0 notes

lazykoalacollectionblog · 6 years

Text

Top 10 Free Best Resources to Crack NET Exam | Must Follow

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/resources-to-crack-net-exam/

Top 10 Free Best Resources to Crack NET Exam | Must Follow

Resources to Crack NET Exam

Table of Contents

Resources to Crack NET Exam

#1 Which Books to Follow –

Top 10 Recommended UGC NET BOOKS for Paper 1 [Updated]

#2 Solving the Previous Year Solved Papers –

5 Reasons Why Practice of UGC NET Previous Year Papers is a must?

#3 You Tube Channels to follow-

#4 Which Online Mock Test to join for NET EXAM-

NTA UGC NET EXAM Online Test | Mock Tests for NET Exam 2019

#5 Telegram & Whats-App Channels-

#6 Online Study Materials & Coaching-

#7 Online Study on unacademy

#8 Free Course Materials & Study Notes

#9 Free Mobile Application to be Downloaded

#10 Social Media Channels, Groups to follow

When you start preparing for the UGC NET exam first time there are lot many questions in your mind…most of them related in the terms of Study Material, Recourse, solved papers, Best books, Handwritten Notes, Free Online Mock Test, Previous Year Solved papers etc.

You look out for every information you require to Crack NET Exam !

Not only this we have also seen many Facebook groups are flooded with promotion of private Whats App Group (Monthly paid) for preparation and people ask about are they useful ?

Then comes lot many YouTube channels promotion where they cut copy paste and create videos for their promotions…and end with selling solved papers question answers which is freely available on many blogs and Official Site…

Recently launched unacademy platform has handful educators who teach & guide for UGC NET Exam are they good to be followed !

So now it’s more trivial to gauge the content you read for exam and become dependent on those for your examination preparation!

I am not saying all the available content is not good but careful choice of selection of resources are need of hour

You need to be extra diligent while selecting the course content you read or follow the YouTube channel…

There is no dearth of good resources …thanks to all those bloggers and educators who are helping the student community by providing the best contents free for pursuing your career goal and ambition…

In this blog post I have covered 10 Best Resources for NTA NET Exam that you must follow to Crack NET exam with flying colors!

I have covered every thing you need for paper 1 preparation ranging from best book to buy, YouTube channels to follow, free mock test portal to practice question, solved papers, social media channels, Telegram, What’s app group … and many more …

So let’s gets started …

#1 Which Books to Follow –

Frankly speaking there is no book in the market which covers everything you need to read for paper 1 preparation. Every book has their own merits and demerits in terms of syllabus cover and quality content.

Some of them have good theory but no ample amount of MCQ to solve …

Few are good in certain topics like Research and Teaching aptitude but other topics are not covered well…

So Remember!

There is no single book/source available which can cover all 50 questions. You to cover paper 1 contents from multiple sources. You can read review of all available books here –

Top 10 Recommended UGC NET BOOKS for Paper 1 [Updated]

We Recommend you to at least follow two books-

Truman’s Paper 1 Book-

UGC NET Guide by KVS Madan

Based on the reviews received from various students we see the above two books are better than any other available. Truman’s is all time favorite for students of NET exams for years however in recent few years KVS Madan has gain the momentum as it contains better content and updated study materials.

However, both the books don’t contain last ten year solved paper so additionally you can look out for solved paper book or follow some blogs which provides solved papers.

You also need to be careful for accuracy of Answers as different author has provided different answer to same question so …Better Check Yourself!!!!

NET exam is conducted in 100+ subject and covering the details of books on each subject is beyond the scope of this article and we are not master of all the subjects so …better you check !

#2 Solving the Previous Year Solved Papers –

As said earlier theory books available in the market doesn’t contain complete solved papers of last year…So you need to dependent on other source to solve old Question paper.

Many teachers suggests that solving 10 years question paper increases your chances by 20 %….

5 Reasons Why Practice of UGC NET Previous Year Papers is a must?

There are three ways you can do same –

Follow Official link to Download Question papers & Answer-key and practice them

Follow Blogs who provide last 10 year ugc net solved papers & solve them year wise. There are few blogs who has clubbed the question in terms of topic wise instead of Year wise. These are more help full as you can cross-check your preparation once you finished the topic to see how many previous years question you are able to solve.

Don’t like much of online reading or Internet is issue for you – go and grab offline printed books available in the market to solve last 10-year question papers.

#3 You Tube Channels to follow-

In the another blog-post I have covered the details around top 7 YouTube channels of UGC NET you must follow if you want to prepare while on the move.

You can download those important videos and review them later while travelling to work or home. By this way you can revise the content more than once and quickly grasp the content!

Beware! – there are many bloggers who create content just by copy pasting the content from here and there and give stunning name like ‘You won’t believe 25 Questions were asked from this PDF’ and they will end you in joining the course materials or coaching ….so better keep quality check what channel need to follow?

Here are few good channels you can join—

Examrace by Manishika Jain(Must Follow)

Kumar Bharat

Nav Classes (No free content –she joined unacedemy)

Arpita Karwa

Anurag Sharma –netcracker

Vineet Pandey

#4 Which Online Mock Test to join for NET EXAM-

Let me tell you a fact that it doesn’t matter if you have covered your syllabus 3 times or 5 times all your preparation will go in vein if you are not attempting to check and self-appraisal on what you have learned!

It requires assessments on various terms and key parameters –

How much time you are taking to solve entire paper? are you completing the test in given time bound?

How is your performance in comparison with other students? how is your score?

Which is your weaker topic? which need more focus in terms of giving more emphasis

Are you taking more time to solving reasoning, data-interpretation question?

Are you facing difficulties while solving the reading comprehension?

But problem remains same …. it’s really tough to find a perfect test series where you can practice the both papers. As the NET exam in conducted in more than 90+ subjects …not a single website or coaching Mock Test PORTAL covers all the subjects.

This simply means you can’t gauge your knowledge of both (Paper 1 & Paper 2) on same platform.

May be in future there may exists one platform but as of now it’s not …

So what you can do ….

I will suggest to join multiple online test portal.

For practice only you can register the NTA Agency TEST Platform but they are limited in number and you need to visit nearby center to participate in the test.

You can read more about how to register for NTA test Agency practice center here-How to register for NTA Test Practise Center(TPC)

NTA UGC NET EXAM Online Test | Mock Tests for NET Exam 2019

Finding test portal of Paper 1 is easy and there are many in the market.

Following is the list of portal.

Providing Agency Mode & Cost Link Highlight Team UGCNETPAPER1 Online + Free (Limited 10)+ Paid(100+)/Cost around 199 for complete Paper 1 Test series https://netexam.online/ All India Mock Test Series/ Your percentile in compression with other/Detailed explanations. Only focus on Paper 1. Eduncle Experts Online + Offline Mode + Few Free MQP /Mostly Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Keys https://www.eduncle.com/ 3000+ Question papers 3000+ Question papers

Faculty Support

Mock Test are available in digital format as well.

EXAMOMETER They Keep changing the details. https://www.examometer.com/ Questions in Hindi & English side by side. Great Relief for Hindi medium student. ToppersExam Mostly solved papers + few other Subjects /Online (Cost around 100 to 400 ) https://toppersexam.com/UGC-NET-SET-EXAMS.html Online Test Series/Many other exams test are also available

#5 Telegram & Whats-App Channels-

If you are looking for telegram channels & whats-app …i just wanted to make you aware of few instances that has happened to my students.

You might see multiple message of social media channel claiming that there are exactly 25+ question asked from PDF shared in group…join now to get sure short success.

Oh snap! Stay away from such social groups & teachers !

You will also see the post that successfully running 10 groups & this is your last chance to join this at 200 per month or one time 500…..my dear this is trap …no once can give you quality in such amount …

let me tell you why …did you check the latest books of UGC NET Exam …syllabus changes has been announced few months back …but still books were not updated with latest changes …

As NTA or NET has not given the scope of Question can be asked from and hence the reason you will always see surprise question from topic …

Covering the entire syllabus in 30 days is not possible …

Let me tell you another hard truth …most of them are run by people who has nothing to do with NET Exam or ‘Few Half-cooked Teachers’ to sell their cut copy pasted notes …so beware of those notes and taut …

‘Success has no easy short cut if that is the case that joining the whats-app group and following the question shared on telegram channel makes you fully prepared for Exam …every second candidate could have cleared the NET !’

I am not denying the fact that if you are part of any student group you get information quickly and can reach out to fellow candidates of your subject area for discussion …

they are not the actual author of those notes so they don’t know the accuracy and complete details on authenticity.

#6 Online Study Materials & Coaching-

Again…same problem with NET EXAM that the subject area is vast and there is no single platform which provides good online learning experience for all you subject …

You can easily find many coaching for famous subjects like ‘commerce’,’computers’,’management’…etc how ever it will be very difficult to get 050 INDIAN CULTURE other less popular subjects.

it also depends on the number of students appearing for that subject so the the coaching institute can invest money and time for rewarding business..

No one would give details on subject which are less popular so you need to be back on basic …

Means – Follow your post graduation notes and study materials …they will certainly help …

For popular subjects you can find few good institute –

(List based on students input-we have not reviewed their content and quality )

Eduuncle

netcrackers

humanitiespoint

adhyayanmantra

humanperitus

arpitakarwa – Recommended for UGC NET English Literature

(We are still reviewing the coaching names please feel free to reach me you need this to be updated )

#7 Online Study on unacademy

unacademy is famous now days as many educators started using unacademy to publish their content which they use to publish on youtube or other channels.

Here are list of few educators you can follow them to get latest updated.

https://unacademy.com/user/PreetiMandyal

https://unacademy.com/user/navclasses

https://unacademy.com/user/talvirdhiman-1378

https://unacademy.com/user/sandeep02aug

You can check the list of all educators https://unacademy.com/goal/nta-ugc-net/TEWDQ/educators

My personal views on unacademy is that the content provided on this platform is not detailed and many time we have seen that educators has used the content available in public domain and just provide voice over on the topic. NET Examination require clarity of concepts and videos covered on the portal certainly lacks in terms of depth of subject area.

You can use this as refresher course; but i would suggest to follow your books more rigorously than these budding educators on portal.

They are good in case if you wish to cover them quickly.

#8 Free Course Materials & Study Notes

NCERT Textbooks– While copies of these textbooks may be downloaded and used as textbooks or for reference, republication is strictly prohibited. Important for Paper 1 based topics.

IGNOU Study Material (eGyankosh)- You can download the mobile app of IGNOU to read the study materials on the go. You can read course content of bachelor & master degree of your subject choice.

Important Study Materials as part of Distant Education Initiative- pondiuni.edu.in dde website

National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) by IIT for electronic science & computer application subject.

The Department of Higher Education, MHRD, Must be followed for Paper 1 Topics

Important Free website to follow for paper 1 & NET Exam.

ugcnetpaper1.com – For Complete Guide on Paper 1

kumarbharat.com- Great Educator and Quality content. Although he publishes his content more on youtube.

www.examrace.com[ For Solved Paper & Reasoning Study Materials]

gradeup.co [ UGC NET Paper 1 Study Material]

avatto.com [MCQ Practice]

netexam.pmgurus.com [Solved Paper of Various Subjects]

http://cbseugcnetforum.in [One of Known Website for MCQ & Guide]

http://navclasses.blogspot.com [Free but not well structured; Content on unacedemy are in much better shape]

#9 Free Mobile Application to be Downloaded

There are many mobile application on google play store but we don’t see they gets updated with latest contents and most of them only contains the question paper provided by NET agency .

Based on content relevancy we recommend you to follow & try below NET Exam apps for your preparations.

UGC-NET Practice Tests

NetPrep Plus

Kumar Bharat Education

UGC NET PAPER1

Mission UGC NET Exam

NET-SET Study Point

#10 Social Media Channels, Groups to follow

Social media channels are flooded with groups on Facebook, Telegram and other social media networks. They are mostly subject specific and we are certainly not part of all of them to give you brief details on which needs to be followed . You can search them using the known educators name and you will find the group managed by them.

Make sure to join the active group where meaningful discussion happens ….

We also recommend you to follow our websites social channel.

Our Facebook Groups for NET exam to follow – https://www.facebook.com/paper1ugcnet/ [15000+ Subscribers]

Telegram – 4000+ Subscriber – https://t.me/ugcnetpaper1

Warning! Better check yourself !

Covering the entire planet is beyond scope of this article and we are not at-all associates with any third party links given such as coaching or youtube links.

We are not intended to promote any one here …but only to provide information to student which might be useful to them.

Although we take every possible precaution to ensure that the content on our website is as authentic and accurate as possible followed by the manual check, there still might have some human mistakes. And we certainly are not responsible for any losses caused because of the inefficient information on the website.

Here we are not responsible for any Inadvertent Error that may have crept in the information being published in this Website and for any loss to anybody or anything caused by any Shortcoming, Defect or Inaccuracy of the Information on this Website.

if you see any information/study material or notes which are incorrect feel free to reach us on [email protected] for modification required. We will be more than happy to update.

0 notes

lazykoalacollectionblog · 7 years

Text

MCQ ON COMMUNICATION

New Post has been published on https://ugcnetpaper1.com/mcq-on-communication/

MCQ ON COMMUNICATION

medianet_width = "336"; medianet_height = "280"; medianet_crid = "163710263"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

MCQ ON COMMUNICATION

(MCQ Based on Solved Paper NTA UGC NET EXAM 2006-2018)

Based on Juy 2018 Exam

Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of : (1) selective expectation of performance (2) selective affiliation to peer groups (3) selective attention (4) selective morality

Answer: (4)

Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later. Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning. Code : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability. Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process. Code : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (4)

Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process. Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process ? (a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas. (b) Communication is a learnt ability. (c) Communication is not a universal panacea. (d) Communication cannot break-down. (e) More communication means more effective learning by students. (f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students. Code : (1) (a), (c), (e) and (f) (2) (b), (d), (e) and (f) (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (4)

Based on November 2017 Exam

The classroom communication should essentially be : (1) Contrived

(2) Empathetic

(3) Abstract

(4) Non-descriptive

Answer: (2)

A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a : (1) Complex question (2) Non-sequitur (3) Repetitive phrase (4) Ice-breaker

Answer: (4)

In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by : (1) Establishing a viewpoint (2) Exposing the ignorance of students (3) Increasing the information load (4) Using high decibel audio tools

Answer: (1)

Based on January 2017 Exam

Effective communication pre-supposes (1) Non-alignment (2) Domination (3) Passivity (4) Understanding

Answer: (4)

When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in (1) indeterminate messages (2) verbal messages (3) non-verbal messages (4) aggressive messages

Answer: (3)

The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being (1) Sedentary (2) Staggered (3) Factual (4) Sectoral

Answer: (3)

Expressive communication is driven by (1) Passive aggression (2) Encoder’s personality characteristics (3) External clues (4) Encoder-decoder contract

Answer: (4)

Positive classroom communication leads to (1) Coercion (2) Submission (3) Confrontation (4) Persuasion

Answer: (4)

Classroom communication is the basis of (1) Social identity (2) External inanities (3) Biased passivity (4) Group aggression

Answer: (1)

Based on July 2016 Exam

Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ? (1) Horizonatal Communication (2) Vertical communication (3) Corporate communication (4) Cross communication

Answer: (1)

Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom. (1) Avoidance of proximity 2) Voice modulation (3) Repetitive pause (4) Fixed posture

Answer: (2)

What are the barriers to effective communication ? 1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation. (2) Dialogue, summary and self-review. (3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude. (4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer: (1)

The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of 1) Proximity, utility, loneliness (2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance (3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception (4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: (1)

As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom. (1) Use of peer command (2) Making aggressive statements 3) Adoption of well-established posture (4) Being authoritarian

Every communicator has to experience (1) Manipulated emotions 2) Anticipatory excitement (3) The issue of homophiles (4) Status dislocation

Answer: (2)

Based on DECEMBER 2015 Exam

The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are : (a) To gather information about student weaknc (b) To make teachers take teaching seriously. (c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of leaching. (d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only 3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only

Answer: (3)

Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as : (1) Systemisation (2) Problem – orientation (3) Idea protocol 4) Mind mapping

Answer: (4)

Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as : (1) Physical language (2) Personal language 3) Para language (4) Delivery language

Answer: (3)

Every type of communication is affected by its : (1) Reception (2) Transmission (3) Non-regulation 4) Context

Answer: (4)

Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as : (1) Verbal 2) Non-verbal (3) Impersonal (4) Irrational

Answer: (2)

Most often, the teacher – student communication is : (1) Spurious (2) Critical 3) Utilitarian (4) Confrontational

In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by : (1) the use of hyperbole (2) the change of voice level (3) the use of abstract concepts 4) eye contact

Based on JUNE 2015 EXAM

Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ? (a) Attitude surveys (b) Performance records (c) Students attendance (d) Selection of communication channel Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (2)

Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible. Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false 4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

Answer: (4)

Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ? (a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions. (b) Communication involves both information and understanding. (c) Communication is a continuous process. (d) Communication is a circular process. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) 4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

The term ‘grapevine’ is also known as : (1) Downward communication 2) Informal communication (3) Upward communication (4) Horizontal communication

Answer: (2)

Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ? (1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue (2) Participation of the audience 3) One-way transfer of information (4) Strategic use of grapevine

Answer: (3)

In communication, the language is : (1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal (3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

Answer: (1)

Based on DECEMBER 2014 EXAM

When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called (A) Training Program B) Seminar (C) Workshop (D) Symposium

Answer: (B)

Media is known as

(A) First Estate (C) Third Estate (B) Second Estate D) Fourth Estate Answer: (C)

The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called (A) Group Communication B) Mass Communication (C) Intrapersonal Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

Answer: (B)

A smart classroom is a teaching space which has (i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.

(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.

(iii) Document camera and specialized software

(iv) Projector and screen Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iv) only (C) (i). (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i).(ii),(iii)and(iv) Answer: (D)

The term ‘Yellow Journalism’ refers to (A) sensational news about terrorism and violence B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers. (C) sensational news about arts and culture (D) sensational news prints in yellow paper.

Answer: (B)

In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are really (A) Encoders (B) Decoders (C) Agitators (D) Propagators

Answer: (B)

The next term in the series : AB, ED, IH, NM, is A) TS (B) ST (C) TU (D) SU

Answer: (A)

Based on JUNE 2014 EXAM

In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is (A) noise (B) audience (C) criticality D) feedback

Answer: (D)

Break-down in verbal communication is described as (A) Short circuit (B) Contradiction (C) Unevenness D)Entropy

Answer: (C)

The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of (A) Technological theory (B) Dispersion theory (C) Minimal effects theory D)Information theory

Answer: (D)

Based on DECEMBER 2013 EXAM

Users who use media for their own ends are identified as (A) Passive audience B) Active audience (C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience

Answer: (B)

Classroom communication can be described as (A) Exploration (B) Institutionalisation (C) Unsignified D) Discourse

Answer: (D)

Ideological codes shape our collective (A) Productions B) Perceptions (C) Consumptions (D) Creations

In communication, myths but are have power (A) uncultural. (B) insignificant. C) imprecise. (D) unpreferred

Answer: (C)

The first multi- lingual news agency of India was (A) Samachar (B) API C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (C)

Organisational communication can also be equated with (A) intra-personal communication. (B) inter-personal communication. C) group communication. (D) mass communication.

Answer: (C)

Based on JUNE 2013 EXAM

In the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the chronological order ? (A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message (B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect (D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

Answer: (C)

Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as (A) Entertainment B) Interactive Communication (C) Development Communication (D) Communitarian

Answer: (B)

Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of (A) Infotainment B) Edutainment (C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment

Answer: (B)

________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student (A) Sympathy B) Empathy (C) Apathy (D) Antipathy

Answer: (B)

Based on DECEMBER 2012 EXAM

Classroom communication must be (A) Teacher centric B) Student centric (C) General centric (D) Textbook centric

Answer: (B)

The best method of teaching is to (A) impart information (B) ask students to read books (C) suggest good reference material D) initiate a discussion and participate in it

Interaction inside the classroom should generate (A) Argument (B) Information C) Ideas (D) Controversy

Answer: (C)

“Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that (A) punishment in the class should be banned. (B) corporal punishment is not acceptable. C) undesirable behaviour must be punished. (D) children should be beaten with rods.

Answer: (C)

The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as (A) Interpersonal (B) Mass communication C) Group communication (D) Face-to-face communication

Answer: (C)

Based on JUNE 2012 EXAM

Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication (A) Visual one way (B) Audio-Visual one way C) Audio-Visual two way (D) Visual two way

medianet_width = "600"; medianet_height = "250"; medianet_crid = "387741659"; medianet_versionId = "3111299";

Answer: (C)

MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at (A) Lucknow B) Bhopal (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

Answer: (B)

In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed? (A) NTCS B) PAL(C) NTSE (D) SECAM

Answer: (B)

The term ‘DAVP’ stands for (A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity (B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity (C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

Answer: (D)

The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for A) Total Rating Points (B) Time Rating Points (C) Thematic Rating Points (D) Television Rating Points

Answer: (A)

Based on DECEMBER 2011 EXAM

Photo bleeding means (A) Photo cropping (B) Photo placement (C) Photo cutting D) Photo colour adjustment

Answer: (D)

While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by (A) Audience B) Communicator (C) Satellite (D) Media

Answer: (B)

In which language the newspapers have highest circulation ? (A) English B) Hindi(C) Bengali (D) Tamil

Aspect ratio of TV Screen is A) 4 : 3(B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 4

Answer: (A)

Communication with oneself is known as (A) Organisational Communication (B) Grapewine Communication (C) Interpersonal Communication D) Intrapersonal Communication

Answer: (D)

The term ‘SITE’ stands for (A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment (B) Satellite International Television Experiment C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

Answer: (C)

Based on JUNE 2011 EXAM

Public communication tends to occur within a more (A) complex structure (B) political structure (C) convenient structure D) formal structure

Answer: (D)

Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as (A) channelisation (B) mediation C) encoding (D) decoding

Effective communication needs a supportive (A) economic environment (B) political environment C) social environment (D) multi-cultural environment

Answer: (C)

A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s (A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status D) coding ability

Answer: (D)

When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become (A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences D) convictions

Answer: (D)

In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s (A) competence (B) pre-disposition C) receptivity(D) ethnicity

Answer: (C)

Based on DECEMBER 2010 EXAM

Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as A) Networked media

(B) Connective media

(D) Multimedia

Answer: (A)

The information function of mass communication is described as (A) diffusion (B) publicity C) surveillance(D) diversion

Answer: (C)

An example of asynchronous medium is (A) Radio (B) Television (C) Film D) Newspaper

Answer: (D)

In communication, connotative words are (A) explicit (B) abstract (C) simple D) cultural

A message beneath a message is labelled as (A) embedded text (B) internal text (C) inter-text D) sub-text

Answer: (D)

In analog mass communication, stories are A) static(B) dynamic (C) interactive (D) exploratory

Answer: (A)

Based on JUNE 2010 EXAM

In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is A) audience attitude (B) audience knowledge (C) audience education (D) audience income

Answer: (A)

Post-modernism is associated with (A) newspapers (B) magazines (C) radio D) television

Answer: (D)

Didactic communication is (A) intra-personal B) inter-personal (C) organisational (D) relational

Answer: (B)

In communication, the language is (A) the non-verbal code (B) the verbal code (C) the symbolic code (D) the iconic code

Answer: (B)

Identify the correct sequence of the following : (A) Source, channel, message, receiver (B) Source, receiver, channel, message (C) Source, message, receiver, channel D) Source, message, channel, receiver

Answer: (D)

Based on DECEMBER 2009 EXAM

The chronological order of non-verbal communication is A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours (B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours (C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols (D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs

Answer: (A)

Which of the following statements is not connected with communication ? (A) Medium is the message. (B) The world is an electronic cocoon. (C) Information is power. D) Telepathy is technological.

Answer: (D)

Communication becomes circular when A) the decoder becomes an encoder (B) the feedback is absent (C) the source is credible (D) the channel is clear

Answer: (A)

Based on JUNE 2009 Exam

Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world ? (A) TPS (B) Telepresence C) Video conference(D) Video teletext

Answer: (C)

Which is not 24 hours news channel ? (A) NDTV24x7 (B) ZEE News (C) Aajtak D) Lok Sabha channel

The main objective of F.M. station in radio is : (A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction (C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment (D) Entertainment only

In communication chatting in internet is : (A) Verbal communication (B) Non verbal communication C) Parallel communication (D) Grapevine communication

Answer: (C)

Based on DECEMBER 2008 EXAM

Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of : A) Local audience (B) Education (C) Entertainment (D) News

Answer: (A)

Orcut is a part of: (A) Intra personal Communication (B) Mass Communication (C) Group Communication D) Interpersonal Communication

Answer: (D)

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List – II (Artists) (Art) (a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute (b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song (c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting (d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat Natyam Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (A)

Which is not correct in latest communication award ? (A) Salman Rushdie – Booker’s Prize – July 20, 2008 (B) Dilip Sanghavi – Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008 (C) Tapan Sinha – Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008 D) Gautam Ghosh – Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008

Answer: (D)

Based on JUNE 2008 EXAM

Communication with oneself is known as : (A) Group communication (B) Grapevine communication (C) Interpersonal communication D) Intrapersonal communication

Answer: (D)

Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India ? (A) NTSE B) PAL (C) SECAM (D) NTCS

Answer: (B)

All India Radio before 1936 was known as : (A) Indian Radio Broadcasting (B) Broadcasting Service of India C) Indian Broadcasting Service (D) All India Broadcasting Service

Answer: (C)

The biggest news agency of India is : A) PTI (B) UNI Answer: (A) (C) NANAP (D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (B)

Based on DECEMBER 2007 Exam

The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as : (A) SATEDU (B) INSAT – B C) EDUSAT(D) INSAT-C

Answer: (C)

Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as : A) GyanDarshan (B) Cyan Vani (C) DoorDarshan (D) Prasar Bharati

Answer: (A)

The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in: (A) Sevagram (B) New Delhi C) Wardha (D) Ahmedabad

Answer: (C)

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List-I List-II (Institutes) (Locations) (a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages (b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad (c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi (d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (A)

The aim of vocationalization of education is : (A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge (B) converting liberal education into vocational education (C) giving more importance to vocational than general education D) making liberal education job-oriented

Answer: (D)

Based on JUNE 2007 Exam

Press Council of India is located at : (A) Chennai (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata D) Delhi

Answer: (D)

Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as : (A) Photo cutting (B) Photo bleeding C) Photo cropping (D) Photo adjustment

Answer: (C)

Feed-back of a message comes from: (A) Satellite (B) Media C) Audience (D) Communicator

Answer: (C)

Collection of information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as: (A) Feed-back (B) Feed-forward (C) Research study D) Opinion poll

Answer: (D)

The aspect ratio of TV screen is: A) 4:3 (B) 4:2 (C) 3:5 (D) 2:3

Answer: (A)

Based on DECEMBER 2006 Exam

Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication? (A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room. (B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange. (C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother. (D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.

Answer: (A)

Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India ? (A) Zee News (B) NDTV 24×7 C) CNBC (D) India News

Answer: (C)

Consider the following statements in communication : (i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India. (ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India. (iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation. (iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iv) only (D) (iii) only

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (A) N. Ram : The Hindu B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News (C) Pranay Roy : NDTV 24×7 (D) Prabhu Chawla : Aaj taak

Answer: (B)

“Because you deserve to know” is the punchline used by : (A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu (C) Indian Express D) Hindustan Times

Based on JUNE 2006 Exam

The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as : A) content supply(B) surveillance (C) gratification (D) correlation

The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as: A) cybernetics(B) reverse communication (C) selectivity study (D) response analysis

Answer: (A)

Networked media exist in inter-connected: (A) social environments (B) economic environments (C) political environments D) technological environments

Answer: (D)

The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as: (A) online communication (B) integrated media (C) digital combine D) convergence

Answer: (D)

A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as: (A) man-machine speak (B) binary chat (C) digital talk D) interactivity

Answer: (D)

This comprehensive MCQ is specially developed for the candidates of CBSE UGC NET 2017 Exam (For Compulsory Paper-I) Teaching and Research Aptitude for the purpose of practice of questions based on the pattern of the examination. please feel free to reach us incase you need more info or comment to highlight any issues with above question set.

0 notes