#mcq on forensic with answers

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Multiple Choice Questions on Forensic Medicine

1. The visual disturbances seen in methyl alcohol poisoning include all of the following, except? A) Concentric diminution of visual fields for color and form B) Pinpoint pupils C) Photophobia and blurred vision D) Sudden failure of vision

Continue reading Multiple Choice Questions on Forensic Medicine

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NMC NEET Exam Date 2024-25, Syllabus, and Question Insights.

Aspiring medical students in India eagerly await the NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) each year. This highly competitive examination serves as the gateway to admission into medical and dental undergraduate and postgraduate courses in prestigious institutions across the country. In this comprehensive guide, we will delve into the NEET 2024 exam date, syllabus, and question paper insights, providing you with all the information you need to master this crucial examination.

NEET 2024-25 Exam Date

The NEET 2024 exam date is one of the most crucial pieces of information that aspiring medical students need to keep in mind while preparing for the examination. The National Testing Agency (NTA), the governing body responsible for conducting NEET, typically announces the exam date several months in advance. It is essential for candidates to stay updated with the latest announcements to ensure they are well-prepared and can plan their study schedules effectively.

Understanding the NEET 2024-25 Syllabus

A thorough understanding of the NEET nta neet syllabus 2024 syllabus is vital for success in the examination. The NTA releases a detailed syllabus that covers the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology). Candidates must familiarize themselves with the topics and subtopics mentioned in the syllabus to ensure they have comprehensive knowledge of the subjects. The syllabus acts as a roadmap, helping candidates prioritize their study materials and allocate time accordingly.

Examination

NEET 2024

Mode Of Exam

Offline Mode (Pen and Paper-based)

Duration of the Exam

3 hours 20 minutes

Subjects

Physics, Chemistry, Biology(Botany and Zoology)

Total No. of Questions

180(45 of each subject)

Question Format

Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs)

Total marks

720 (180 marks for each section)

Marks Distribution

4 marks are awarded for each correct answer

-1 deducted for each wrong answer

Language of Exam

English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Marathi, Odisha, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR NEET 2024

A candidate must be an Indian National, Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Persons with Indian Origin (PIO), or Foreign Nationals to sit in the NEET UG 2024 examination.

He/ she must be 17 or above by the time of admission or before 31st December of the year they join the MBBS course.

Those who are attempting the Class XII examination in 2024 can provisionally take the NEET 2024 entrance test.

Candidates need to pass in Physics, Biology, and Chemistry with a minimum aggregate of 50%.

SECTION WISE NUMBER OF QUESTION

Physics-45

Chemistry-45

Biology (Botany and Zoology)-90

NEET EXAM DURATION

There is no change in the duration of the NEET 2024 examination. Candidates will have a total of 3 hours 20 minutes to perform in the NEET examination. In offline mode, the NEET UG exam will be held from 2.00 P.M to 5.20 P.M.

*Please note that no candidate will be allowed to sit in the NEET examination in case of late arrival at the exam center. Candidates must reach the NEET exam center 45 minutes before and the exam booklet is distributed 15 minutes before the exam commencement time.

Insights into NEET PG Syllabus

For those aspiring to pursue postgraduate medical courses, understanding the NEET PG syllabus is of utmost importance. The NEET PG syllabus covers a wide range of medical subjects, including Anatomy, Physiology, Biochemistry, Pathology, Pharmacology, Microbiology, Forensic Medicine, and more. It is essential for candidates to thoroughly study each subject and be well-versed in the respective topics to excel in the NEET PG examination.

neet exam 2022 question paper

Changes in NEET 2024 Exam Date

In recent years, in 2024 NEET exam date has witnessed some changes. It is crucial for aspirants to stay updated with any changes in the NEET 2024 exam date to avoid confusion and ensure they are well-prepared. The NTA, in collaboration with other authorities, strives to provide a smooth and efficient examination process, which may require occasional adjustments to the exam date. Aspiring medical students should regularly check for updates through official channels to avoid any last-minute surprises.

NEET PG 2024 Exam Date Updates

Similar to the NEET UG examination, the NEET PG 2024 exam date is subject to updates and changes. The NEET PG examination is conducted for admission into various postgraduate medical courses, and therefore, it is crucial for candidates to be aware of the latest updates regarding the exam date. Staying informed about any changes will allow aspirants to plan their preparation strategies effectively and avoid any unnecessary stress.

NEET 2024 Exam Syllabus Overview

The NEET 2024 exam syllabus serves as a comprehensive guide for candidates, outlining the topics and subtopics that need to be covered while preparing for the examination. The syllabus covers subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, and provides a detailed breakdown of the concepts and theories that candidates need to be familiar with. Understanding the syllabus thoroughly will enable aspirants to prioritize their study materials and allocate time efficiently.

NEET MDS 2024 Exam Date and Details

The NEET MDS (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Master of Dental Surgery) 2024 exam date plays a crucial role in the preparation process for dental aspirants. The NEET MDS examination is conducted for admission into various postgraduate dental courses. Aspiring dental students must stay updated with the exam date and any related details to ensure they are well-prepared and can perform their best on the day of the examination.

NEET UG 2024 Exam Date and Information

The NEET UG 2024 exam date is eagerly awaited by medical aspirants seeking admission into undergraduate courses. The NEET UG examination is a highly competitive test that evaluates the knowledge and aptitude of candidates in the fields of Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. Staying informed about the exam date and any other relevant information is crucial for aspirants to plan their study schedules effectively and maximize their chances of success.

Detailed Analysis of NEET 2024 Exam Syllabus

A detailed analysis of the NEET 2024 exam syllabus is essential for aspirants to understand the depth and breadth of the subjects they need to cover. The syllabus provides a comprehensive overview of the topics and concepts that candidates must study. By conducting a thorough analysis, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, enabling them to focus on the areas that require more attention and practice.

NEET PG Exam Date 2024 and Latest Updates

The NEET PG exam date for 2024 is a crucial piece of information for candidates aspiring to pursue postgraduate medical courses. Staying updated with the latest updates regarding the exam date is essential to ensure candidates can plan their preparation effectively. The NEET PG examination is highly competitive, and being aware of the exam date and any changes or updates will help candidates stay on track with their study schedules and perform their best on the day of the examination.

NEET 2024 Exam Date and Important Dates

In addition to the NEET 2024 exam date, there are several other important dates that candidates need to keep in mind. These dates include the release of the application form, the last date for submission of the form, the availability of admit cards, the declaration of results, and more. It is crucial for aspirants to mark these dates on their calendars and stay updated with any changes or announcements to avoid missing any important deadlines.

Key Highlights of NEET 2024 Syllabus

The NEET 2024 syllabus encompasses a wide range of topics and concepts that candidates need to cover. Some key highlights of the syllabus include the inclusion of topics from the CBSE curriculum, a focus on conceptual understanding rather than rote learning, and an emphasis on the application of knowledge in solving real-world problems. Understanding these key highlights will enable candidates to approach their preparation with a clear strategy and a comprehensive understanding of what is expected from them in the examination.

NEET 2024 Syllabus PDF by NTA

The NTA releases the NEET 2024 syllabus in a PDF format, making it easily accessible to all candidates. The syllabus PDF provides a detailed breakdown of the topics and subtopics that candidates need to cover, along with the weightage assigned to each subject. Aspirants can download the syllabus PDF from the official NTA website and use it as a reference throughout their preparation journey.

NMC's NEET UG 2024 Syllabus

With the establishment of the National Medical Commission (NMC), there have been some changes in the NEET UG 2024 syllabus. The NMC is responsible for creating and maintaining the syllabus for undergraduate medical courses. Aspirants should refer to the updated NMC syllabus to ensure they are covering all the necessary topics and subtopics required for the NEET UG examination.

NMC's NEET UG 2024 Syllabus Changes and Updates

Candidates preparing for the NEET UG 2024 examination should be aware of any changes and updates made by the NMC to the syllabus. Staying informed about these changes will enable aspirants to align their preparation strategies accordingly and ensure they are well-prepared for the examination. Regularly checking the official NMC website and other reliable sources for updates is essential to stay ahead of any changes.

NEET Reduced Syllabus of NEET 2024 Overview

Due to the unprecedented circumstances caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, the NEET 2024 syllabus has undergone certain reductions. The reduced syllabus aims to ease the burden on students and allow them to focus on the most essential topics and concepts. Candidates should carefully review the reduced syllabus overview to understand which topics have been omitted or given less weightage and adjust their preparation accordingly.

NEET 2024 Syllabus PDF Download Guide

To facilitate easy access to the NEET 2024 syllabus, we have prepared a comprehensive PDF download guide. This guide provides step-by-step instructions on how to download the syllabus PDF from the official NTA website. Aspirants can refer to this guide to ensure they have the syllabus readily available for their study and revision purposes.

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Important Topics of FMT in MBBS

Forensic Medicine and Toxicology subject is included in the third prof of the MBBS curriculum. The main objective of teaching forensic medicine to undergraduate students is to create a doctor who is knowledgeable about medico-legal duty while practicing medicine. You will also be able to make observations and draw conclusions using logical inquiries into criminal situations and related medicolegal issues in the proper direction. You learn about applying law to medical practice, and adherence to medical ethics regulations.

MBBS Prof Exam Pattern

According to the CBME curriculum, the MBBS prof exam of the Forensic Medicine and Toxicology subject comprises one theory exam of 100 marks, and the practical examination (Practical/Clinical + Viva) of 100 marks. The theoretical exam has a variety of question types, such as structured essays (long answer questions, or LAQ), short response questions, and objective questions (MCQs and IBQs).

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NEET PG 2021 Syllabus, Application,Cut-Off

https://www.eduethic.com/ NEET- What is the full form of NEET PG? NEET PG stands for NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST FOR POSTGRADUATE. It is a national-level entrance exam which is organized by (NBE) NATIONAL BOARD OF EXAMINATION. It is organized every year by NBE. Candidates can do this after completing their MBBS and BDS course. NEET PG 2021 exam hold on 10 January, but it has been postponed for now. NBE will release the new date of the exam soon. It will be released on its official website.

Syllabus of NEET PG 2021

The syllabus of NEET PG 2021 is given below;

PART — 1

Anatomy

Physiology

Biochemistry

PART — 2

Pathology

Pharmacology

Microbiology

Forensic Medicine

Social and Preventive Medicine

PART — 3

General medicine

General Surgery

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Pediatrics

ENT

Ophthalmology

NEET PG 2021 Exam pattern

NEET PG 2021 syllabus pattern and marking scheme are very important for candidates to the preparation for the exam. This examination follows the negative marking system candidate can not give random answers they have to be very careful during tick the correct answer. While solving the questions candidate needs to be calm and relax. The exam pattern is given below;

Mode — Online/ Computer-based Mode

Number of Questions — 300 MCQs

Language — English

Duration of exam — 3 Hours 30 Min.

Marking — +4

Negative Marking — -1

Exam date of NEET PG 2021

The exam date of NEET PG 2021 hold on January 10, but it has been postponed for some time. NBE will release the new exam date soon on its official website. Candidates can fill the application form online on the website. National Board of Examination (NBE) organized this exam every year for those who wish to become the doctor. The first NEET-PG 2021 was held on 10 January but due to some issue, it has been postponed. Now NBE is ready to release its new date soon on its official website. The candidate who is curious to apply in NEET PG 2021 can do that.

Documents for NEET PG 2021

https://eduethic.com/blog/NEET-PG-2021.html

A candidate who wants to fill the application form in NEET PG has to be sure that they have the required documents. While filling the application form they have their proper documents. Without their documents application form can not be valid. The documents which need the most are given below;

Marksheets of class 10th and 12th

Marksheet of MBBS

Internship completion certificate

A scanned file of signature and certificate

How to apply for NEET PG 2021

The application form will be available on the official website by the NBE. Candidates should have the all documents while filling up their application form. There are the following steps in which candidates can apply for NEET PG.

First go to NEET PG official website

Fill the registration form and receive the login credentials.

Fill the NEET PG application form

Upload your digital signature and photograph file

payment for the application form

Take a printout of the filled form for reference

APPLICATION FEE OF NEET PG 2021

Categories

FEES

General: 3750

OBC: 3750

PWD: 2750

SC: 2750

ST: 2750

NOTE- Only online payment will be accepted.

Cut off NEET PG 2021

The cut-off NEET PG 2021 will release before some weeks of examination by the NBE. Candidates can check on its official website. The average cut-off might be for general categories are 50%, for general PH 45%, for SC/ST/OBC/ will be 40% percentile.

[monica2016]

RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment 2020-21

In this blog we will cover assistant professor vacancies in Rajasthan including its syllabus , exam dates , exam pattern , books , notes , how to apply  and special tips by toppers about how to crack this exam .

RPSC Rajasthan has issued the notification for recruitment of assistant professor vacancy in Rajasthan for 82 vacant posts in ABST i.e Accounts and business statistics.The exams for proposed recruitment of abst assistant professor was to be held in April 2021 but now the exams are postponed and exams are proposed to be held in September 2021 and scheduled dates are from 24th September onwards. RPSC conducts these exams so if you are looking for teaching profession after post-graduation , you can prepare for this exam and for Rajasthan lecturer vacancy you need to clear UGC NET exam/ State SLAT exam .

we are providing complete Video lectures, Short Notes , 5000+ MCQs and Practice Mock tests of professional knowledge part ,for paper 1 and paper 2 of RPSC Assistant professor ABST exams, which is most important has weightage of 150 marks out of 200 Marks written exam.

Key Highlights of RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment 2020-21

Eligibility for Rajasthan university recruitment of assistant professor

For assistant professor vacancies, Post-Graduation with NET/SLAT is required in relevant subject for which you are applying .

For ABST Subject or Commerce candidates who are looking for assistant professor exam should have following educational qualifications-

Post-graduation in commerce with 55%  or equivalent and

NET/ SLAT or similar qualification ,or

Candidates who is holding PHD as per UGC

Exam pattern of assistant professor vacancies

There will be two stages of exam

Stage 1.  Written exam – MCQ based – 200 Marks

Stage 2. Interview – 24 Marks

Stage 1 of written MCQ based exam will have Three (3) Papers as under exam for assistant professor

Paper 1– Financial Accounting. Corporate accounting, Management accounting and cost accounting (Total 150 Questions for 75 Marks)

Paper 2- Audit , tax , business statistics (Total 150 Questions for 75 Marks)

Paper 3- Rajasthan GK (Total 100 Questions for 50 Marks)

Detailed syllabus of ABST Assistant professor is given at end of this blog for refence

Negative marking in Rajasthan lecturer vacancy

1/3rd penalty for each wrong answer will be deducted.

Exam and centres of assistant professor abst exam

It will be notified by RPSC Rajasthan very soon along with the admit cards .

Job profile of assistant professor in Rajasthan/workings In Rajasthan government as assistant professor Job.

Job of Assistant professor is most prestigious and as well very easy workings, as a professor you need to take only 3-4 lectures daily and along will that number of holidays are also good

RPSC Assistant professor ABST 2020-21 Vacancy and news regarding Number of expected vacancies

The present vacancy of assistant professor vacancy in Rajasthan is for total of 900+ posts for all subjects and number of vacancies for ABST is 82 , which is a very good number . further its is also expected that in 2022 Rajasthan government will issue notification for assistant professor exam, as soon as the rpsc exam time table is released on www rpsc gov in recruitment notification, we will notify it here.

RPSC recruitment of assistant professor exam date

for 2021 vacancy of assistant professor notification, exam dates proposed is 24th September 2021 onwards by rpsc. For any further updates about rpsc lecturer exam date keep checking this portal or you can also check latest updates at www rpsc govt in

Rpsc assistant professor salary

Salary of rpsc assistant professor is very good in comparison to other teaching jobs. with grade pay of 6000/- , rpsc assistant professor selected candidates get total salary of 80000+ after completion of probation period of two years .

How to apply for assistant professor

In order to apply for assistant professor exam, you need to follow the below given instructions

Step 1- Visit SSO Portal of Rajasthan Government and register / login to your sso id for applying rpsc assistant professor exam

Step 2 – go to recruitment portal on SSO and then you will be re-directed to new page where you will see assistant professor vacancies

Step 3- Click on Junior accountant and fill in details asked and save them.

Step 4 – submit the form of rpsc assistant professor exam and process for online fees payment

Step 5 – pay fees for assistant professor vacancies exam form

Note- take print out of Application form of assistant professor vacancies

Or alternatively you can also apply through an e-Mitra

Admit Card of RPSC assistant professor vacancy in rajasthan

Admit cards will be released very soon and well before exams and the admit cards will be available for download at official website of RPSC i.e www rpsc gov

Answer key of ABST assistant professor Rajasthan  

Rpsc will release the answer key for rpsc professor exam after the exam is over and before the release of result and cut off.

Result of RPSC Assistant professor ABST

To be declared after 2-3 months of exam

Cut off of RPSC Assistant professor

It will be released soon after exams are held on official website of RPSC , we will intimate about dates as soon as it is available

Books & Notes for all subjects of Junior Accountant Exam

On this portal you will get complete course for Assistant professor ABST or assistant professor commerce best books and short notes and MCQ and mock tests are available on oneexam , you can checkout these contents as these are all prepared by India’s Top Faculties including CA , university professor and Toppers of Last exam . Hundreds of students have trusted over our specially designed material for this exam.

Coaching for RPSC Junior Accountant

At OneExam.in we have the best course designed in such a way that you can get maximum marks in your commerce part. Watch our free demo videos over YouTube and then trust .we assure you that Nothing better then this you have ever seen for each and every single concepts and topics we have best contents with short Notes and revision charts .

Follow us for latest news of assistant professor exam and RPSC assistant professor notifications

The detailed syllabus is as under university assistant professor exam or RPSC ABST assistant professor exam –

The syllabus of RPSC Assistant professor ABST Recruitment (rpsc assistant professor) will be as under –

Paper 1 (150 questions) (each 0.5 marks)

A-        Financial Accounting

Introduction, meaning of Book-Keeping, Accounting and Accountancy, Distinction between Book-Keeping and Accounting, Accounting Process, Objectives of Accounting, Various users of Accounting information, Limitations of Accounting, Accounting Terminologies, Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions. Accounting Standards (Indian Accounting Standards), International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), Recording of Transactions Secondary Books, Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors, Final Accounts with adjustment entries, Closing entries, Financial Statements. Bank Reconciliation Statement, Bills of Exchange, Partnership Accounts- Admission of a Partner, Retirement of

Partner, Death of a Partner, Piecemeal Distribution of Cash and Amalgamation of firms, Depreciation Accounting, Price Level Changes Accounting, Hire Purchase and Instalment Payment Methods, Voyage Accounts, Accounting from Incomplete Records, Accounting Methods for Non-Profit making organisations.

B –        Corporate Accounting

Introduction to Company Accounts, Kinds of Companies, Formation of Companies, Share Capital, Issue of Shares, Under Subscription and Over Subscription, Issue of shares at premium and discount, Buy-back of shares and Treasury stock, Accounting treatment and Ledger Preparation, Issue of Bonus and Right shares, Consolidation and split of shares, Redemption of Preference shares and Issue and Redemption of debentures, Preparation of final accounts with calculation of Managerial Remuneration, Disposal of Company profits and Distribution of Dividend, Accounts of Banking and Insurance Companies, Valuation of Goodwill, Valuation of shares, Amalgamation of Companies, Internal and External Reconstruction of companies (including scheme of Reconstruction) Accounts of Holding and subsidiary companies Liquidation of a Company, Double Account system (Accounting for public utilities companies Problems of merger and acquisition.

Accounting for agricultural forms, Government Accounting, corporate social Accounting Accounts of Solicitors, Accounts of Hospitals. Forensic Accounting, Accounting for tour and travel agencies, Basic financial and Accounting System for MFIS.

C –        Cost Accounting

Concept of Cost and Cost Control, Cost Accounting methods (Job costing, Batch costing, Contract costing or Terminal costing, process costing including inter process profit, Single output or unit costing, Operating costing Operation costing, Multiple or composite costing, Departmental costing and uniform costing), Non-Integrated and Integrated cost Accounting system. Marginal Costing and Break-Even Analysis, Decisions based on Marginal Costing techniques, Budgetary Control and Preparation of various types of Budgets, Standard Costing and Ascertainment of Material, Labour, Overhead and Sales Variances, Activity Based Costing. Transfer Pricing, Life Cycle Costing, Strategic Cost and Performance Evaluation, Mechanic Accounting and E.D.P, Productivity Accounting and Implication of Computers for Cost Control and Cost reduction, Programmes and Planning, Employee’s Participation in cost reduction programmes.

D – Management Accounting

Objectives and Scope of Management Accounting, Ratio Analysis, Preparation of Fund Flow Statement and Cash Flow Statement. Capital Structure- Theories and Decisions, Cost of Capital, Working Capital Management, Capital Budgeting and Expenditure Decisions, Dividend Decisions, Balance Score Card, Measurement and Performance – ROI, MVA, EVA and Risk Analysis.

Value added Accounting, Human Resource Accounting, Responsibility Accounting, Operating and Financial leverages, Trading on Equity, Lease Financing, Inventory management.

Note:- Pattern of Question Paper

Objective type paper

Maximum Marks : 75

Number of Questions : 150

Duration of Paper : Three Hours

All questions carry equal marks.

Medium of Competitive Exam : Bilingual in English & Hindi

There will be Negative Marking.

PAPER – II

A. Taxation:

Direct Tax

Income Tax Law and Rules with reference to assessment of Individuals, HUF, Firm, AOP and Companies, Assessment Procedure and types of Assessment, Advance payment of tax, Tax deduction at source, Refund of tax, Double taxation, Tax Avoidance and Tax Evasion. Introductory part of Tax Planning with special reference to salaried employees and individuals. Minimum Alternate Tax Net.

Indirect Tax

Custom duty – Role of custom in International Trade, Important Terms and definitions under the custom Act, 1962, Assessable value , Baggage, Bill of entry Dutiable goods, Duty Exporter, Foreign going Vessel, Aircraft goods, Import Manifest, Importer, prohibited goods, Shipping Bill, Stores, Bill of lading, Export manifest, Letter of credit, Kind of Duties, Prohibition of Export and Import of Goods and Provisions regarding notified and specified goods, Import of Goods- Free import and Restricted import, Types of Import- Import of cargo, Import of personal Baggage, Import of stores, Tax Liability and Valuation of goods, computation of custom duty. Appeals and revisions.

CGST/SGST

Important terms and definitions under Central Goods and Service Tax Act 2017 and State and Service Tax Act 2017. Basics of GST. Meaning and scope of Supply, Levy and collection of Tax. Time and value of supply of goods and/or Services, Input Tax Credit, Transitional Provisions, Registration under CGST/SGST Act. Filing of Returns and Assessment, Payment of Tax including payment of tax on reverse charge basis, Refund under the Act. Maintenance of Accounts and Records, Composition Scheme, Job work and its Procedure, Various Exemptions Under GST. Demand and recovery under GST. Miscellaneous provisions. IGST-Scope of IGST, important terms and definitions for determining the place of supply and place of supply of goods and services, Zero rated supply.

B. Auditing:

Meaning, Objectives and Types of Audit. Internal Control, Vouching and Verification of Assets and Liabilities. Assurance and Audit standards, Audit Programme, Working Papers, Documentation, Audit Reports Audit of Companies Appointment, Removal, Rights, Duties and Liabilities of Auditor. Audit of Banks, Insurance Companies, Charitable Trust and Educational Institutions, Management Audit, Efficiency Audit, Cost Audit, EDP Audit, Environmental Audit, Social Audit, Performance Audit, Tax Audit and Audit of Accounting Information System.

C. Business Statistics and Operation Research:

Introduction, Definition and Functions of Statistics, Measures of Central Tendency, Dispersion, Skewness, Moments, Kurtosis, Sheppard’s Correction and Conditions for applying it, Index Numbers, Analysis of Time Series, Interapolation and Extrapolation, Vital Statistics, Correlation and Regression Analysis, Multiple Regression, Association of Attributes, Statistical Decision Theory, Sampling, Test of Hypothesis, Sampling and Non-Sampling errors, Sampling distributions and Standard Error, Sampling Methods, Large and Small Sample Analysis, Sampling of Attributes and Variables, Test of Significance. Z-Test, T-Test, F-Test, Theoretical Frequency Distributions, Probability, Analysis of Variance and Design of Experiments. Linear Programming, Network Analysis-PERT and CPM, Game Theory, Replacement Theory. Statistical Quality control Discriminant Analysis.

Note:- Pattern of Question Paper

Objective type paper

Maximum Marks : 75

Number of Questions : 150

Duration of Paper : Three Hours

All questions carry equal marks.

Medium of Competitive Exam : Bilingual in English & Hindi

There will be Negative Marking

https://oneexam.in/rpsc-assistant-professor-abst-recruitment-2020-21/

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                                             MCQ of the day- 26september

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

1.   A 21 year old male gets drowned in a river and the autopsy surgeon finds out the following feature in his hands. Identify the phenomenon

a)      Rigor mortis

b)      Cadaveric spasm

c)      Cold stiffening

d)     Gas stiffening

ANS B Cadaveric spasm

-          Cadaveric spasm / Instantaneous rigor: group of muscles which were in contracted state at the time of death, continue to be in spasm after death thereby preserving the attitude of the person at the time of death; no stage of primary relaxation;

-          Predisposing factors – sudden death, emotional tension ( exhaustion, fear), physical activity at time of death

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.345

2.      A 47 year old male, resuscitated after an attempt for suicide by hanging, goes in for coma and dies after 10 days of treatment. Which of the following cannot be a cause delayed deaths in hanging?

a)      Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

b)      Cerebral softening

c)      Reflex vagal inhibition

d)     Aspiration pneumonia

ANS C Reflex vagal inhibition

·         Delayed deaths in hanging:

-          Aspiration pneumonia

-          Infections

-          Edema of lungs

-          Edema of larynx

-          Hypoxic encephalopathy

-          Infarction of brain

-          Brain abscess

-          Softening of brain

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.316

3.      A 34 year old female, wearing a chudidar, riding on her two wheeler, died after her dupatta was caught in her vehicle which strangled her neck. This kind of accidental strangulation is called as

a)      Isodora Duncan syndrome

b)      Kennedy phenomenon

c)      Broken heart syndrome

d)     Bobbit syndrome

CORRECT ANSWER: OPTION A ISODORA DUNCAN SYNDROME

Ref:                    

Textbook of FMT, Dr.Anil Aggarwal

Ref: Concise Textbook of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, R.K.Sharma, 2ndedition, page no: 88, 89

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, page no: 405.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Takotsubo_cardiomyopathy

·         ISODORA DUNCAN SYNDROME/ LONG SCARF SYNDROME - OPTION A - CORRECT

ü  Angela Isadora Duncan (May 26, 1877 or May 27, 1878– September 14, 1927) was an American and French dancer who performed to acclaim throughout Europe.

ü  Born in California, she lived in Western Europe and the Soviet Union from the age of 22 until her death at age 49 or 50, when her scarf became entangled in the wheels and axle of the car in which she was riding.

ü  Her silk scarf, draped around her neck, became entangled around the open-spoked wheels and rear axle, pulling her from the open car and breaking her neck.

·         Kennedy phenomenon - OPTION B - INCORRECT

ü  In a post-mortem of a gunshot injury case, the autopsy surgeon by opening the features of the gunshot entry wound directly, due to which the features of the gunshot entry wound are lost.

·         Broken heart syndrome - OPTION C - INCORRECT

ü  Takotsubo cardiomyopathy or Takotsubo syndrome (TTS), also known as stress cardiomyopathy, is a type of non-ischemic cardiomyopathy in which there is a sudden temporary weakening of the muscular portion of the heart.

ü  It usually appears after a significant stressor, either physical or emotional; when caused by the latter, the condition is sometimes called broken heart syndrome

·         Bobbit syndrome - OPTION D - INCORRECT

ü  Type of sexual perversion in which the female partner amputates the penis of male partner with a sharp cutting weapon

4.      The autopsy surgeon finds the knot on the right side of neck in the autopsy of a 34 year old male. To check for La facies sympathique

a)      Right eye remain open, Left pupil dilated

b)      Left eye remain open, Left pupil dilated

c)      Left eye remain open, Right pupil dilated

d)     Right eye remain open, Right pupil dilated

CORRECT ANSWER: OPTION D: RIGHT EYE REMAIN OPEN, RIGHT PUPIL DILATED

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, page no: 321

·         La facies sympathique: if ligature compresses cervical sympathetic ganglia, eye on same side open, pupils dilated

5.      In an autopsy of a 25 year old female, brought dead with history of complete hanging, last seen alive before 24 hours with probable long time suspension, the autopsy surgeon notes bleeding in the intervertebral discs in lumbar region. These are called as

a)      Paultauf’s haemorrhages

b)      Bayard spots

c)      Amussat sign

d)     Simon’s haemorrhage

CORRECT ANSWER: OPTION D: SIMON’S HEMORRHAGE

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, page no: 321

·         Tardieu spots/ Bayard spots: OPTION B (INCORRECT)

-          Petechial haemorrhages in asphyxial deaths seen over face, conjunctiva, epiglottis, lungs, heart, meninges, thymus

·         Paultaff’shemorrhages: OPTION A (INCORRECT)

-          Subplueral Petechial haemorrhages in lungs in casesof drowning

ü  Amussat sign - OPTION C – INCORRECT

-          Transverse carotid intimal tears in cases of hanging

ü  Simon’s haemorrhage - OPTION D – CORRECT

-          Bleeding in the intervertebral discs in lumbar region

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300+ TOP FORENSIC MEDICINE Objective Questions and Answers

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1.Law does not consider the following doctrine in a charge of criminal negligence a) Vicarious liability b) Contributory negligence c) Resipsa loquitur d) Novus actus interveniens Ans:b 2.The following may be the examples of privileged communication except: a) An impotent person marrying b) A syphilitic taking bath in a public pool c) Engine driver found to be color blind d) Pilot having hypermetropia Ans:a 3.Which of the following sections of IPC are concerned with dowry death? a) 300 b)302 c)304 d)304-A e)304-B Ans:e 4.A civil wrong is known as: a) Mutatis mutandis b) Pari passu c) Tort d) Ultra wires Ans:c 5.A person is declared dead if he is not found for a) 2 years b) 7 years c) 15 years d) 30 years Ans:b 6.Professional death sentence is a) Imprisonment for whole life b) Rigorous imprisonment c) Erasing the name from the panel of RMPs d) None Ans:c 7.Normal courtesy of one doctor towards another is according to a) Medical etiquette b) Medical ethics c) Both d) None Ans:c 8.Patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression Doctor should a) Operate without formal consent b) Take police consent c) Wait for relatives d) Take Ans:a 9.A doctor should not take fees for issuing certificate a) To a govt.employee b) Death certificate c) Poor patient d) Psychiatric patient Ans:b 10.McNaughten's rule: a) Section 84 b) Section 85 c) Section 86 d)Section87 Ans:a

FORENSIC MEDICINE MCQs 11.Disciplinary control over registered medical practitioners is under: a) Sate medical council b) Indian medical council c) Director of Medical and Health services d) Health secretary of state Government Ans:a 12. WTio can commute a death sentence: a)High court b) Supreme court c) President d) Any of the above Ans:d 13.Death sentence can be awarded by a)First class magistrate b) Second class magistrate c) Sessions court d) Chief judicial magistrate Ans:c 14. India, inquest is carried out by all except a)lice b) Coroner c) Doctor d) Magistrate Ans:c 15.Criminal responsibility in Indian constitution is included in IPC section: a)84 b)300 c)302 d)304 Ans:a 16.A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully cured. Doctor should a) Inform police b) Not required to inform c) Report to magistrate d) Call up girl friend and ask her to make up Ans:b 17.Who can be considered as an expert witness: a) Medical men b) Firearm expert c) Chemical examiner d)All Ans:d 18.The power of Amnesty for capital punishment is vested with a) The president b) Supreme court c) High Court d) The Governor Ans:a 19.A cognizable offence signifies: a) Imprisonment upto 2 yrs b) Imprisonment upto 3 yrs + Rs. 1000 fine c) Arrest without warrant d) Only fine upto Rs. 1000 Ans:c 20.Conduct money is paid to expert witness with summons from: a) Civil Court b)Criminal Court c) High Court d) Sub Magistrate Ans:a 21.Leading questions are permitted only in a) Examination in chief b) Cross examination c) Dying declaration d) Re- examination Ans:b 22.For exhumation the order should be passed by a) Chief judicial magistrate b) Executive magistrate c) Police officer d) Sessions judge Ans:a 23.Which of the following is true about Oath? a) Not Compulsory , b) Compulsory and binds witness for evidence given c)Holds witness responsible for consequences of evidence d)Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath Ans:b 24.In case of death in lock up, the inquest is held by: a) A police officer b) A Magistrate c) A panchayat officer d) District Attorney Ans:b 25.Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by doctor, staff or hospital is a) Therapeutic misadventure b) Vicarious liability c) Therapeutic privilege d) Diminished liability Ans:a 26.Medico legal autopsy required the permission of a) Relatives b) Medical Superintendent c) Police d) Magistrate Ans:c 27.An arrested person can request the magistrate for a medical examination of his body by a registered medical practitioner as per the following provision in the code of criminal procedure a) Section 53 b) Section 54 c) Section 56 d) Section 57 Ans:b 28.After post mortem exam body has to be handed over to a) Investigating police officer b) Relatives of victim c) Magistrate d) The civil authorities Ans:a 29.A quack gives a penicillin injection to a patient who dies due to it. Will the quack be relieved for his criminal responsibility by raising a plea of accident? a) Definitely b) Likely to c) Never d) Deserves to be acquitted on the strength of evidence Ans:c 30.The sentence awarded by a court may be enhanced by the: a) Magistrate court b) High court c) Higher court d) None of the above Ans:c 31.Negligence on the part of the father towards the son can be punished undersection a) 319 b)317 c)315 d)318 Ans:b 32.Which carries more weight in a court of law? a) Dying declaration b) Dying deposition c) Both carry the same weight d) Both are not significant Ans:b 33. Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because it is a) Made to a magistrate b) Oath is taken c) Made in presence of accused d) Cross examination is permitted Ans:d 34.Doctor is a) Expert witness b) Common witness c)Both d) None Ans:c 35.The common type of inquest in India is: a) Coroner's inquest b) Police inquest c) Judicial magistrates inquest d) Medical examiner's inquest Ans:b 36. The inquiry into the circumstances of death is called: a) Homicide enquiry report b) Inquest repot c) Open verdict d) Adjourned verdict Ans:b 37. For dowry death punishment is: a) 3 year imprisonment + Rs. 10,000/- b) 5 year imprisonment + Rs. 15,000/- c) 7 year imprisonment + Rs.20,000/- d) 2 year imprisonment + Rs. 15,000/- Ans:b 38.Criminal responsibility of a person of unsound mind in India is incorporated in the Indian penal code: a) Section 32 b) Section 84 c) Section 85 d) Section 88 Ans:b 39. An order for exhumation can be given by: a) District collector b) Additional district magistrate c) Sub collector d) Any of the above Ans:b 40. Perjury is a) Willful utterance of falsehood b) Grievous injury c) Contributory negligence d) Criminal negligence Ans:a 41. Subpoena is a kind of: a) Decomposed body tissue b) Designation c) Document d) Court tribunal Ans:c 42.Dying declaration can be received by: a) Medical officer b) Lawyer c) Police officer d) All Ans:d 43.Exhumation can be done in India a) After 7 years b) After 2 years c) After 10 years d) At any time Ans:d 44.Repeated advertisement in newspaper by a medical practitioner is an example of a) Infamous conduct b) Ethical negligence c) Criminal negligence d) Privileged Communication Ans:b 45.According to IPC section 320, grievous hurt is a) Permanent privation of one eye b) Permanent privation of one joint c) Emasculation d) All of the above Ans:d 46.Exhumation is usually done in the: a) Early Morning b) Evening d) Any time c) Night Ans:a 47.Section 302 of Indian penal code is for: a) Rape b) Murder c) Grievous hurt d) Attempt to commit suicide Ans:b 48.Coroner's court is present at: a) Bombay b) Delhi c) Madras d) Bangalore e) Chandigarh Ans:a 49.Dying deposition is recorded by: a) Doctor b) Magistrate c) Police officer d) Lawyer Ans:b 50.Summons are served a) With penalty in criminal cases only b) With penalty in civil cases only c) With penalty in all cases d) Without penalty in any type of case Ans:c FORENSIC MEDICINE Objective type Questions with Answers 51. Professional secrecy can be divulged: a) If the doctor feels so b) On demand by a court c) Both d) None Ans:b 52. Medical certificate is: a) Documentary evidence b) Oral evidence c) Hearsay evidence d) Parole Ans:a 53. In case of death in lock up, the inquest is held by: a) A police officer b) A magistrate c) A panchayat officer d) District attorney Ans:b 54. In esse of malpractice punishment is given by a) State medical council b) MCI c)IMA d) High court Ans:a 55.All the following are the conditions of defense available for a doctor against allegation of negligence except a) Medical maloccurrence b) No fee for treatment charged c) Therapeutic misadventure d) Res Judicata e) Error of judgment Ans:b 56. Medico legal autopsy requires the permission of a) Police b) Magistrate c) Relatives d) Medical superintendent Ans:a 57. Grievous hurt is punishable under section a) 320 b)354 c)321 d)402 Ans:a 58. Criminal negligence is punishable under: a) 306 IPC b) 376 IPC c)304-AJPC d)304-BIPC Ans:c 59.Second molar erupts at a) 6 years b) 12 years c) 18 to 22 years d) 25 to 28 years Ans:b 60.Identical twins may not have a) Same DNA finger print b) Same finger print pattern c) Same blood group d) Same HLA system Ans:b 61.What is'DNA'finger printing a)Identification of a person finger printing by using genetic engineering method b)A record of a persons genetic make up c)Identification of persons by genetic analysis d) None of the above Ans:c 62.Skull of a male differs from that of a female by all of the following except a) Capacity greater than 1500 c.c b) Muscular markings over occiput are less marked c) Orbits square d) Frontal eminence small Ans:b 63.Eruption of temporary teeth will be completed by: a) One to one and half years b) Two to two and half years c) Three to four years d) Four to five years Ans:b 64.The age of a 15 year old female is best determined by the radiograph of: a) Lower end of Radius and Ulna b) Upper end of Humerus c) Upper end of radius and ulna d) Xiphisternum Ans:c 65.First finger loop bureau was established in a) London b) Paris c) Calcutta d) Madras Ans:c 66.Closure of coronal sutures starts at the age of: a) 20 years b) 21 years c) 30-35 years d) 50-60 years Ans:c 67.Brachiocephaly is due to fusion of a) Saggital suture b) Coronal suture c) Parietal suture d) Lambdoid suture Ans:b 68.Cephalic index is useful in determining a) Age c) Race d) Stature Ans:c 69.Union of epiphysis at the age of 17 occurs in: a) Head of femur b) Head of humerus c) Lower end of femur d) All the above Ans:b 70. 100% sure differentiation of s is possible by pelvic assessment of all except a) Subpubic angle b) Obturator foramen c) Preauricular sulcus d) Greater sciatic notch Ans:d 71. Foetal parts can be detected by X-ray usually by: a) 8 weeks b) 12 weeks c) 14 weeks d) 16 weeks Ans:d 72. To determine the age of a 16 year old girl which of the following is to be radiographed? a) Wrist b) Knee c) Ankle d) Elbow Ans:d 73.A girl of 10 years will have permanent and temporary teeth: a) 8,12 b)8,16 c) 12,12 d) 16,8 Ans:d 74. Multiplying factor of estimating stature from femur (male) is: a) 3.6-8.8 b) 4.1-4.8 c) 4.9-5.6 d) 5.8-6.2 Ans:a 75.If angle of mandible is obtuse it means that the bone belongs to a) Adult male b) Adult female c) Young female child d) Elderly person Ans:d 76. Best method for identification of a person is by a) Scars b) Blood group c) DNA Analysis d) Finger prints Ans:d 77.Super imposition technique is used in: a) Skull b) Pelvis c) Femur d)Ribs Ans:a 78.Patella completely ossify by the age of: a) 6 years b) 10 years c) 14 years d) 21 years Ans:c 79.Human hair differs from animal hair by that a) Cuticle has scales b) Medulla is thick c) Medulla is broader than cortex d) Pigment is central Ans:a 80.A female pelvis differs from male pelvis by that: a) Obtuse subpubic angle b) Broad greater sciatic foramen c) Broad lesser sciatic foramen d) Prominent muscle markings Ans:d 81.The center of ossification appears in the lower end of femur by a) 36 weeks of intrauterine life b) 34 weeks of intrauterine life c) 32 weeks of intrauterine life d) 30 weeks of intrauterine life Ans:a 82.Female pelvis is differentiated from male pelvis by a) Iliac crest b) Preauricular sulcus well marked c) Preauricular sulcus less differentiated d) Pubic symphysis Ans:b 83.Absent fragmented medulla in hair is seen in all except a) Negroid b) Aryans c) Mongoloids d) Caucasians Ans:a 84.Pre-auricular sulcus is used for: a) Determination of race b) Determination of age c) Determination of s d) None of the above Ans:c 85. Pure Aryans have which type of skull: a) Measticephalic b) Bradycephalic c) Dolicocephalic d) None of the above Ans:c 86.Pearson's formula is used for: a) Cephalic index b) Stature c) Race d) Age Ans:b 87.Best specimen of bone for s determination is a) Femur b) Pelvis c) Skull d) Mandible Ans:b 89.Which of the following is best for establishing identity a) Anthropometry b) Dactylography c) Hair examination d) Blood Ans:b 89. The period of mixed dentition is between the ages of a) 2-5 years b) 6-11 years c) 12-14 years d) 15-17 years Ans:b 90. Multiplying factor for estimating stature from humerus is (males): a) 10-12 b)5-6 c)7-9 d)9-10 Ans:b 91. Estimation of age examination of teeth is by a) Pearson's method b) Gustafson's method c) Galton's method d) Bertillon's method Ans:b 92. Most reliable method of identification of a person is a) Gustafson method b) Galton method c) Anthropometry d) Scars Ans:b 93. A child at the age of 7 years has how many teeth: a) 16 b)20 c)24 d)28 Ans:c 94.The most reliable bones for the purpose of medullary index are the following except: a) Humerus b) Tibia c) Radius d) Sternum Ans:d 95.Ossification centre appearing just hefjpre birth is: a) Lower end of femur b) Lower end of tibia c) Upper end of humerus d) Scaphoid Ans:a 96.To make a positive identification with the help of a partial finger point, the points of similarity should be at least: a) 10 b) 12 c)16 d)20 Ans:c 97.Best method to determine age upto ,14 years is a) Ossification centres b) Dentition c) Anthropometry d)head circumference Ans:b 98.Best method for identification of human is a) Blood grouping b) Dactylography c) Anthropometry d)gustafson'sformula Ans:b 99.Lower end of the femur can help to determine the: a) Age b) Height c) Weight d)stature Ans:a 100. Most common type of finger print is a) Loop b) Arch c) Composite d)whorl Ans:a FORENSIC MEDICINE Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

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Edition : 1st Edition | | ISBN : 9780199553624

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Multiple Choice Questions on Forensic Physics

Continue reading Multiple Choice Questions on Forensic Physics

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Mastering BDS 4th Year Latest Edition ( Part 1 | Year-1 ) by Hemant Gupta 2020

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[techobservor]

UGC NET 2017 answer keys, OMR sheets live on cbsenet.nic.in

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released the answer keys for National Eligibility Test (UGC NET) 2017 on its official website cbsenet.nic.in. These exams were conducted on 22 January 2017. Twice every year, CBSE holds the NET exams for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for Assistant Professor and Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) for universities and colleges across India. UGC NET Exams were conducted for 83 subjects at 88 selected UGC NET examination centres across the country. As per the rule, while the candidates who qualify for the award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) are eligible to pursue research in the subject of their post-graduation or in a related subject and are eligible for being Assistant Professor. JRF qualified candidate also get admission directly for PhD. The non-JRF candidate are usually asked to appear in entrance exams for PhD admission. On the other hand, a candidate who only qualify for UGC NET exams but not for JRF, is eligible for being appointed as Assistant Professor in any university, college across India. As per the UGC NET 2017 exam pattern, the exam had three papers and it was compulsory for candidates to appear in all papers. The UGC NET 2017 paper I was of general nature intended to assess the teaching/research aptitude of the candidate. Paper II and III of UGC NET 2017 were subject specifics as selected by candidates for pursuing Assistant Professor and Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) programmes. CBSE says its role is only upto the conduct of NET Examination and declaration of result. The e-certificates to qualified candidate are issued by UGC- NET Bureau. How to download CBSE UGC Net 2017 Answer Keys, OMR Sheet: Go to the official website of the UGC NET exam (cbsenet.nic.in). 2. On the homepage, click on the answer keys link 3. Enter your application number and password in the fields provided. 4. Take print out of images of OMR sheets, recorded responses, answer keys and challenges submitted by them for future reference. Recently, CBSE has said that it is overburdened by different exams and asked the Union Human Resource Development Ministry to take away the UGC NET exam from them. But until the further orders, the exam will be conducted by the CBSE. According to media report, HRD Ministry is mulling to conduct CTET and UGCNET once a year. UGC NET Exam Pattern 2017 UGC NET Exam Duration Papers Exam Time UGC NET 2017 Paper I 09:30 am to 10:45 am UGC NET 2017 Paper II 11:15 am to 12:30 pm UGC NET 2017 Paper III 02:00 pm to 04:30 pm   UGC NET Paper I: This paper is of general nature intended to assess the teaching/research aptitude of the candidate. It is primarily design to test reasoning ability, comprehension, divergent thinking and general awareness of the candidate. The paper has 60 multiple choice questions of 2 marks each out of which the candidate are required to answer any 50. If the candidate attempted more than 50 questions, the first 50 questions attempted by the candidate are evaluated UGC NET Paper II: This paper has 50 objective type questions. The question are from the subject selected by the candidate. Each question carries 2 marks. Candidates have to attempt all questions. UGC NET Paper III: This paper consist of 75 objective type questions from the subject selected by the candidate. Each question carries 2 marks. Candidates have to attempt all questions. The UGC NET 2017 Paper II and Paper III are compulsory for candidates and cover entire syllabus including all electives, without options. Exam Mode Offline: Pen and Paper based exam. Candidates have to answer in the specially designed machine-gradable OMR sheet. Language of Paper English/Hindi: UGC NET 2017 question booklets have a bilingual paper i.e. English and Hindi Types of question (MCQ): The question are of multiple choices. Candidates have to choose correct response from the given options. Question of UGC NET 2017 are from the syllabus as prescribed by examination authority Number of questions: The Paper I and II of UGC NET 2017 have a total of 100 questions in each paper, while the paper III have 150 questions. Marking Scheme: Each question are of 2 marks Negative Marking: There is no negative marking for incorrect answer UGC NET 2017 Exam Pattern Paper Number of Question Duration Marks I 60 out of which 50 question to be attempted 01 hour & 15 minutes 100 II 50 questions all are compulsory 01 hour & 15 minutes 100 III 75 questions all are compulsory 02 hour & 30 minutes 150 UGC NET Subjects: The candidates can check UGC NET subjects and respective codes from the below table. UGC NET Subjects Code Subject 1 Economics 2 Political Science 3 Philosophy 4 Psychology 5 Sociology 6 History 7 Anthropology 8 Commerce 9 Education 10 Social Work 11 Defence and Strategic Studies 12 Home Science 14 Public Administration 15 Population Studies* 16 Hindustani Music (Vocal/Instrumental) 17 Management 18 Maithili 19 Bengali 20 Hindi 21 Kannada 22 Malayalam 23 Odia 24 Punjabi 25 Sanskrit 26 Tamil 27 Telugu 28 Urdu 29 Arabic 30 English 31 Linguistics 32 Chinese 33 Dogri 34 Nepali 35 Manipuri 36 Assamese 37 Gujarati 38 Marathi 39 French 40 Spanish 41 Russian 42 Persian 43 Rajasthani 44 German 45 Japanese 46 Adult Education/Continuing Education/Andragogy/Non Formal Education 47 Physical Education 49 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies 50 Indian Culture 55 Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management 58 Law 59 Library and Information Science 60 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies 62 Comparative Study of Religions 63 Mass Communication and Journalism 65 Dance 66 Museology & Conservation 67 Archaeology 68 Criminology 70 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature 71 Folk Literature 72 Comparative Literature 73 Sanskrit Traditional Subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotisha/Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/Mimamsa/Navya Nyaya/Sankhya Yoga/Tulanatmaka Darsana / Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhva Vedanta/ Dharma Sastra/ Sahitya/ Purana-itihasa/Agama/Advaita Vedanta) 74 Women Studies ** 79 Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture/Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art) 80 Geography 81 Social Medicine & Community Health 82 Forensic Science 83 Pali 84 Kashmiri 85 Konkani 87 Computer Science and Applications 88 Electronic Science 89 Environmental Sciences 90 International and Area Studies 91 Prakrit 92 Human Rights and Duties 93 Tourism Administration and Management 94 Bodo 95 Santali 96 Karnatik Music (Vocal Instrument, Percussion) 97 Rabindra Sangeet 98 Percussion Instruments 99 Drama/ Theatre 100 Yoga Click to Post

[koncptnext]

  MCQ of the day- 25september

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

MECHANICAL ASPHYXIA

1.     1. In a hotel room, a 55 year old man was found to be hanging in kneeling position with a bed sheet from window panel and the knot situated in sub mental position. The hanging can be classified as

a)      Typical, Complete

b)      Atypical, Partial

c)      Typical, Partial

d)     Atypical, Complete

ANS B Atypical, Partial

Types of hanging:

Ø  Based on degree of suspension:

•      Complete : body is fully suspended

•      Partial: some body part touching the ground; constricting force: weight of head

Ø  Based on position of knot:

•      Typical: knot on occiput

Atypical: other than occiput

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.315

2.      2.The body of a 45 year old man found in a tree hanging in a rope. The autopsy surgeon found the ligature material on the neck. Based on the following picture, what has to be done to the ligature material?

a)      Cut on the left side of the neck

b)      Loosen the knot and remove

c)      Cut the knot and remove

d)     Leave it along with the body

ANS. A. Cut on the left side of the neck

In hanging, Removal of noose from the neck is done by cutting the noose away from the knot and tying the ends with string or wire

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.317

3.     3. In autopsy of a 43 year old male individual, multiple crescentic abrasions on the neck with signs of asphyxia. The petechial haemorrhage (as shown in figure)occurring in asphyxia is

           a)      Tardieu spots

b)      Paultaff’s haemorrhage

c)      Koplik spots

d)     Roth spots

ANS A Tardieu spots

·         Tardieu spots:

-          Petechial haemorrhages in asphyxial deaths seen over face, conjunctiva, epiglottis, lungs, heart, meninges, thymus

·         Paultaff’shemorrhages:

-          Subplueral Petechial haemorrhages in lungs in casesof drowning

·         Koplik spots:

-          Prodromal viral enanthem of measles

-          Manifesting two to three days before the measles rash itself.

-          Clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa (opposite the upper 1st & 2nd molars)

-          Pathognomonic for measles.

·         Roth spots:

-          Retinal hemorrhages with white or pale centers

-          Resulting from bacterial endocarditis

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.330, 134

4.    4.  Read the following matches and choose the correct answer

1.      Smothering - obstruction within air passages

2.      Overlaying - compression of the chest

3.      Choking - obstruction of external air passages

4.      Gagging -  forcing the cloth into the mouth

A)    1, 2  are correct

B)    2, 3  are correct

C)    2, 4  are correct

D)    1, 4  are correct

ANS: C 2, 4 are correct

·         Smothering: caused by closing the external respiratory passages either by the hand or other means

·         Overlaying: due to compression of the chest so as to prevent breathing; usually occurs when the mother or other person shares a bed with an infant

·         Choking: caused by obstruction within the air passages usually between pharynx and bifurcation of trachea

·         Gagging: results from forcing a cloth into the mouth or the closure of mouth and nose by a cloth or similar material, which is tied around the head

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.337- 339

5.      Assertion (A): recent evidences indicate that diatom test is obsolete if drowned in regular usage water

Reason(R):  Diatoms from the alimentary canal may enter circulatory system and reach various organs

A)    Both A and R are correct; R is the correct reason of A

B)    Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct reason of A

C)    A is false, R is correct

D)    Both A and R are not correct

Ans: A Both A and R are correct; R is the correct reason of A

Diatoms are microscopic, unicellular algae with cell walls having silica, chlorophyll and diatomin, a brown pigment

Resist heat and acid

Control samples of about 2 litres of water should be obtained from the site of accident for comparison with that of diatom in bone marrow, liver, kidney, brain, etc.

Recent evidences indicate that diatom test is obsolete if drowned in regular usage water since diatoms from the alimentary canal may enter circulatory system and reach various organs and occasionally found in cases other than drowning too.

Ref: The Essentials of Forensic medicine and Toxicology, Dr.K.S.Narayana reddy and Dr.O.P.Murty, 34th edition, P.347- 349

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