#autonomic plexuses | Explore Tumblr Posts and Blogs

siva3155 · 5 years

Text

300+ TOP NEUROLOGY Objective Questions and Answers

NEUROLOGY Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment, and confusion is known as? A. Alzheimer disease B. cerebral palsy C. Tourette syndrome D. myasthenia gravis Ans:A 2. This sign/reflex is used to diagnose meningitis: A. Hormans B. Brudzinski C. anterior drawer D. startle Ans:B 3. Demyelination is defined as? A. loss of an axon in a neuron B. loss of dendrites in a neuron C. loss of protective sheath surrounding neurons D. loss of the connective tissue between neurons Ans:C 4. Serotonin and dopamine are? A. neurotransmitters B. components of CSF C. only found in patients with neurological disorders D. components of the myelin sheath Ans:A 5. A sulcus is also known as a? A. cortex B. fissure C. lobe D. medulla Ans: B 6. The cauda equina is located? A. at the beginning of the spinal cord above the atlas B. in the cerebellum C. between vertebrae D. at the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra Ans: D 7. Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing, and other vital functions? A. brainstem B. gray matter C. occipital lobe D. white matter Ans:A 8. A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a (an) ? A. glial cell B. epithelial cell C. neuron D. proton Ans: C 9. The term convulsion means a (an) ? A. injury resulting from a blow B. tremor C. violent involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations D. involuntary and quick repetitious spasms of a muscle Ans:A 10. Which of the following procedures is used to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid? A. myelography B. cerebral angioplasty C. lumbar puncture D. MRA Ans: C

NEUROLOGY MCQs 11. Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSS A nalysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow. B.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow. C.The patient presents with a history of progressive light hemiparesis. Skull films, EKG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRH will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow. D.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, ECG, and ESF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow. Ans: B 12. The term medulloblastoma refers to a (an) ? A. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum B. star-shaped tumor C. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord D. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere Ans: D 13. A chronic disease characterized by a loss of the myelin sheath, causing paresthesias, muscle weakness, and unsteady gait is called? A. multiple sclerosis B. cerebral palsy C. Huntington chorea D. narcolepsy Ans: A 14. A type of brain surgery that uses a system of three-dimensional coordinates to locate the operative site is called? A. densitometric B. microsurgery C. sterotactic D. laparoscopic Ans: C 15. The combining for radicul/o refers to a? A. nerve cell B. membrane C. nerve root D. sheath Ans: C 16. The term anencephalus means a (an) ? A. congenital absence of the brain and cranial space B. lack of memory C. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact D. loss of sensation Ans: B 17. Diminished sensitivity to stimulation is called? A. hypesthesia B. anesthesia C. bradykinesia D. hyperesthesia Ans: A 18. The term encephalocele refers to a (an) ? A. rapidly growing malignant tumor B. congenital hernia in which meninges protrude through an opening in the skull or spinal column C. abnormal smallness of the head D. protrusion of the brain through any opening in the skull Ans: D 19. The fluid-filled cavities in the brain containing CSF are called? A. plexuses B. sulci C. synapses D. ventricles Ans: D 20. The term hypesthesia refers to? A. sensation of numbness, tingling, prickling, etc. B. lessening of sensitivity to touch C. decreased sensitivity to pain D. consciousness Ans: B 21. Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movements and staggering walk, due to disorders in the cerebellum is called? A. anoxia B. dyslexia C. paraplegia D. ataxia Ans: D 22. Which of the following is the term for an abnormal accumulation of CSF fluid in the brain? A. Huntington disease B. hydrocephalus C. multiple sclerosis D. spina bifida Ans: B 23. The inability to use or understand spoken or written language because of a brain lesion is known as? A. anosmia B. aphasia C. dyslexia D. dysphagia Ans: B 24. Which of the following is transcribed correctly? A.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity. B.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity. C.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity. D.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity. Ans: C 25. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the nervous system? A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16 Ans: B 26. The equally divided halves of the brain are known as? A. cerebral gyri B. cerebral sulci C. cerebral cortex D. cerebral hemispheres Ans: D 27. The term anarthria refers to the? A. inability to read B. inability to remember C. inability to speak D. inability to speak remembered words properly Ans: C 28. The term dysmetria means? A. the inability to read despite normal vision B. the impairment of intellectual ability C. the inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity D. severe pain along the course of a nerve Ans: C 29. Tabes dorsalis is a term that means? A. terminal portion of the spinal cord and roots of spinal nerves below the first lubar nerve B. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS C. disease of CNS, usually caused by syphilis D. rare disease of nervous system; Guillain-Barre sundrome Ans: C 30. Retrogasserian neurotomy is a (an) ? A. interruption of a nerve fiber tract within the spinal cord for relief of pain B. dissection of the posterior root of the trigeminal ganglion C. excision of a nerve D. suture of a nerve Ans: B 31. The term meralgia paresthetica refers to? A. sensitivity to pain B. severe pain along the course of a nerve C. disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations in the thigh D. sharp pain along a nerve Ans: B 32. Which of the following is a column of nervous tissue extending from the medulla oblongata to the second lumbar vertebra? A. brain stem B. cauda equine C. nerve root D. spinal cord Ans: D 33. Which of the following is the largest part of the brain? A. pons B. cerebrum C. cerebellum D. basal ganglia Ans: B 34. The term agnosia refers to the (a) ? A. inability to read B. inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity C. severe sharp pain D. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact Ans: D 35. The brainstem consists of the? A. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord B. dura mater and the pia mater C. pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata D. thalamus and hypothalmamus Ans: C 36. The brain and the spinal cord make up the? A. autonomic nervous system B. brainstem C. cerebral cortex D. central nervous system Ans: D 37. Which of the following is characterized by a lack of muscular coordination caused by a loss of oxygen during pregnancy or the perinatal period? A. encephalopathy B. Bell palsy C. Cerebral palsy D. concussion Ans: C 38. The somatic nervous system A. is part of the central nervous system B. regulates voluntary motor control C. regulates involuntary motor control D. transmits impulses to the cerebrum Ans: B 39. The term parethesia refers to? A. severe pain along the course of a nerve B. the sensation of numbness, pricking, burning, crawling, or tingling C. a disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations D. impairment or lessening of sensitivity to touch Ans: B 40. Which of the following is caused by a thrombus which occludes an artery leading to or within the brain? A. aneurysm B. cerebrovascular accident C. cardiovascular accident D. ictal event Ans: B 41. The term astrocytoma refers to a (an) ? A. tumor composed of neuroglial cells (astrocytes) B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord C. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum D. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells Ans: A 42. The germ gliosis refers to? A. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS B. impairment of sensitivity to touch C. inflammation of the spinal cord D. to and fro movement of the eyeballs as seen in brain damage Ans: A 43. Which of the following terms is associated with degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia that leads to tremors, weakness of muscles, masklike facies, and slowness of movement? A. meningitis B. chorea C. Parkinson disease D. Tourette syndrome Ans: C 44. The term glioblastoma multiforme refers to a (an) ? A. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord C. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere D. inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and their membranes Ans: A 45. Babinski and Hoffman are tests to evaluate? A. response to pain B. motor coordination C. gait D. reflexes Ans: D 46. A pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella is most likely to cause: A. bilateral cecocentral scotomata B. B. bilateral lower field cut C. C. bitemporal hemianopia D. D. binasal hemianopia E. E. diplopia Ans: C 47. According to cumulative data from many sources: Is the Ketogenic Diet effective in making ALL patients seizure-free? A. Yes – All patients become seizure-free B. No: only half will become seizure-free C. No: a third of patients will become seizure-free D. It is not effective at all Ans: C 48. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet? A. True B. False Ans: B 49. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days. A. True B. False Ans: B 50. One can test for ketone bodies in the blood/urine to determine level of ketosis. A. True B. False Ans: A NEUROLOGY Objective type Questions with Answers 51. These are possible side effects while on the KD: A. Death B. Constipation C. Kidney Stones D. None, only medications have side effects E. a,b, and c Ans: E 52. Do NOT use KetoCal for patients with: A. Nasal congestion B. Blindness C. Lactose intolerance D. Hard to deal with parents Ans: C 53. KetoCal 4:1 formulation contains ___% fat? A. 97% B. 90% C. 87% D. 82% Ans: B 54. KetoCal 3:1 formulation contains ___% fat? A. 97% B. 90% C. 87% D. 82% Ans: C 55. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…? A. Patient age B. Patient’s protein needs C. KetoCal 3:1 lacks artificial flavoring D. All of the above Ans: D 56. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 3:1? A. Sucrose B. Corn Syrup solids C. Lactose D. Glucose Ans: C 57. What is the protein source in KetoCal formulas? A. Soy B. Cow's milk C. Amino Acids D. Soy & Milk Ans: B 58. Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) is a nutritionally complete ketogenic formula? A. True B. False Ans: B 59. KetoCal formulas contain ____% MCT? A. 30% B. 10% C. 5% D. None Ans: D 60. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30 kcals/oz? A. True B. False Ans: B 61. Which Nutricia product should NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet? A. Super Soluble Duocal B. Polycal C. Protifar D. Complete Amino Acid Mix Ans: A 62. Both KetoCal 3:1 and 4:1 are vanilla flavored? A. Yes B. No, Only 4:1 is flavored C. No, Only 3:1 is flavored D. Both are unflavored Ans: B 63. When preparing KetoCal, the amount of water added will change the ratio? A. True B. False Ans: B 64. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements A. True B. False Ans: B 65. Is it safe to cook with KetoCal? A. No – heating denature the formula B. Yes, except it cannot be frozen C. Yes Ans: C 66. Research has shown that the LCT (long chain triglycerides) diet is more effective than the MCT (medium chain triglycerides) in efficacy. A. True B. False Ans: B 67. _______ is a possible alternative dietary treatment for seizures which restricts CHOs (10-20g/day). This diet can induce ketosis, does not restrict protein, fluid or calories and does not require an admission or fast. A. MCT diet B. Low-glycemic index diet C. Modified Atkins Diet (MAD. Ans: C 68. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet A. True B. False Ans: B 69. What additional supplements are necessary when consuming KetoCal®? A. Multivitamin B. Calcium C. Carnitine D. None, it is nutritionally complete for most patients Ans: D 70. The purpose of adding modulars to KetoCal would be to change the ketogenic ratio A. True B. False Ans:A 71. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days. A. True B. False Ans: B 72. Nutricia provides the following formulations of KetoCal: A. 1:1 and 2:1 ratio B. 2:1 and 3:1 ratio C. 3:1 and 4:1 ratio Ans: C 73. The Ketogenic Diet is a diet low in fat and high in carbohydrate. A. True B. False Ans: B 74. When deciding to use a 3:1 or 4:1 ratio KetoCal, consider: A. the age of the patient B. the number of seizures C. the type of seizures D. the dietitian caring for the patient Ans: A 75. KetoCal formulas are indicated for… A. Intractable epilepsy B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency C. Glucose transporter type-1 deficiency D. All of the above Ans: D 76. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…? A. Patient age B. Patient’s protein needs C. Lacks artificial flavoring D. All of the above Ans: D 77. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 4:1? A. Sucrose B. Corn syrup solids C. Lactose D. Glucose Ans: B 78. KetoCal 3:1 has a mild vanilla flavor and is sweetened with aspartame. A. True B. False Ans: B 79. What is the suggested water temperature for mixing KetoCal formulas? A. 100° F B. 110°F - 120°F C. 113°F - 122°F D. 150°F Ans: C 80. What is the protein source in Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) ? A. Soy B. Cow’s milk C. Amino acids D. Soy and milk Ans: A 81. Does KetoCal have an infant indication? A. Yes B. No Ans: B 82. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30kcals/oz A. True B. False Ans: B 83. Which Nutricia product can NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet? A. Ducoal B. Polycal C. Protifar D. Complete Amino Acid Mix Ans: A 84. What is the hang time for KetoCal formula? A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 5 hours D. 24 hours Ans: B 85. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements A. True B. False Ans: B 86. upper motor neurons are central. true or false? A. true B. false Ans: A 87. lower motor neurons are central. true or false? A. true B. false Ans: B 88. After observing a pts normal gait, you can conclude that which of the following are intact? A. sensory B. motor C. vestibular function D. cerebellar E. all of the above Ans: E 89. What are the most important CN's to test for the neurological exam, because they are most commonly affected with hemispheric disease? A. III, IV, VI, X B. II, V, VII C. X, XI, XII D. II, IV, VII Ans: B 90. Pts with illness often have impaired orientation to: A. person B. place & time C. Person, place & time D. the future Ans: B 91. Psychiatric problems are more linked to person than time & place. true or false? A. true B. false Ans: A 92. Which of the following is NOT a form of mental status testing? A. telling the pt 3 words and then having them recall them later in the appt. B. asking the pt what time it is C. asking the pt to count backwards from 7 D. ask pt to roll head from right to left E. checking the pts speech for dysphonia Ans: D 93. What is dysphonia? A. inability to articulate B. inability to understand or properly speak C. inability to sound or hoarseness D. inability to say the alphabet backwards Ans: C 94. What is dysarthria? A. inability to articulate B. inability to sound or hoarseness C. inability to understand or properly speak D. inability to say the alphabet backwards Ans: B 95. What is dysphasia? A. inability to articulate B. inability to sound or hoarseness C. inability to understand or properly speak D. inability to say the alphabet backwards Ans: C 96. Using the motor scale of 1-5 to determine tone and strength, 1 represents: A. movement with gravity B. full strength C. feeble strength D. this scale is not used to determine tone and strength Ans: C 97. What is ataxia? A. shuffling the first few steps B. walking like scissors C. walking like there is something between legs D. dragging a leg or arm Ans: C 98. What is hemiparesis? A. shuffle for first few steps B. walking like scissors C. walking like there is something between legs D. dragging leg or arm Ans: D 99. With steppage, the individual lifts the foot higher in order to avoid tripping. true or false? A. true B. false Ans: A 100. Pt with Cerebral palsy walk like there is something in between their legs. true or false? A. true B. false Ans: B 101. You have the pt put their arms out in front of them, palms up, and close eyes. You notice on arm drifting. What is this test called? A. Rhomberg B. Pronator C. McMurray D. Osgood Schlatters Ans: B 102. As part of the neurological exam you have pt stand straight with eyes closed to examine their sway. What is this test called? A. Rhomberg B. Pronator C. McMurray D. Osgood Schlatter Ans: A 103. Which of the following is not an example of a deep tendon reflex? A. biceps B. gag C. brachioradialis D. achilles Ans: B 104. Which of the following is not an example of a superficial reflex? A. achilles B. corneal C. pupillary D. Babinski Ans: A 105. Testing a pts toe reflex to see if toes curl with the pressure of an object is called: A. Osgood Schlatters test B. McMurrays test C. Babinski's test D. Robininski's test Ans: C NEUROLOGY Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

0 notes

biomedicool · 7 years

Text

Regulation of Digestion

All aspects of the GI processes are controlled by neural, hormonal and paracrine controls, specific control systems include

Long & Short Reflexes

GI peptide reflexes

The autonomous function of the enteric nervous system (ENS)

Long Reflexes

Integrated within in the CNS

May originate in or outside of the GI tract

Feedforward & emotional reflexes are initiated and integrated entirely outside the GI tract

Called cephalic reflexes

Short Reflexes

Integrated in the enteric nervous system

Initiated by changes in pH, distension, osmolarity, products of digestion

Submucosal plexus contains the sensory neurons

Afferent information to ganglia

Efferent information to submucosal and myenteric plexuses for control of secretion, motility and growth

GI Peptide Reflexes

Peptides released by the GI tract may act:

as hormones

Secreted into the blood

Act on accessory organs, other parts of the GI tract or the brain

As paracrine signals

Secreted into the lumen or extracellular fluid

Lumenal signals bind to apical epithelial receptors

ECF signals act in the immediate vicinity of secretion

Effect:

Peptides alter secretion and motility

Alter behaviour related to eating

Enteric Nervous System

Allows for the autonomous behaviour of the digestive system

CNS control is not required for digestive functioning

Commonalities between ENS and CNS:

Intrinsic neurons – similar to interneurons of CNS

Extrinsic neurons – composed of autonomic neurons

Neurotransmitters and neuropeptides

Nonadrenergic and noncholinergic receptors - same as adrenergic and cholinergic in CNS

Glial support cells – similar to astrocytes in CNS

Diffusion barrier – cells around capillaries in the ganglia are tight, just as the capillaries in the brain, forming the BBB

ENS acts as its own integrating centre, just as the CNS does

Cephalic phase

Stimulus-CNS-Vagus nerve-ANSSalivary glands-salivary amylase & lingual lipase

Enteric Nervous system-increased gastric secretions and motility

Gastric phase

Stores food; digests into chyme

Protects (mucus and HCl)

Intestinal phase

Digestion of proteins, formation of chime in ileum

Controlled entry of chyme into ileum

Concentration of waste and digestion in colon

#Physiology #gi #gastrointestinal #notes #studyblr #medblr #medicine #science #biology #2

190 notes · View notes

blogginghere1 · 6 years

Text

What Are The Top Three Common Nervous System Disorders?

The primary nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord, the nerves carrying on with from them being regularly called the peripheral or cerebrospinal nerves. The nervous approach is an extraordinarily soft and frustrating set of nerves which unfold during the body and control all bodily and intellectual features.

The slightest disturbance within the finely-balanced conglomeration of nerves produces problems a few of which may also be specifically difficult to handle. The autonomic worried technique is headquartered within the neck, thorax, and the abdomen and acts independently of the mind and is attached with plexuses or nerve fibers.

The brain and nervous system is the main method that controls the complete other parts of the physique virtually. A health problem that affects this approach can influence the spinal wire, or brain or both.

Spinal Cord injury treatment

The spinal cord is in charge of the transmission of sensory reception from the peripheral fearful method. It is usually in charge of carrying the motor talents that controls the body's skeletal muscle mass, cardiac muscle mass, and other delicate muscles and glands.

Utterly 31 pairs of spinal nerves contain both sensory and motor axons. This spinal cord is blanketed and supported by way of the vertebrae. It efficaciously connects the peripheral nervous system to the brain and helps in higher coordination of the body.

The Brain:

The brain is the major center that approaches the entire abilities and indicators that it receives from the entertainment of the physique. It is blanketed through the skull.

Neurologist In India

Neurologists in India are specialists who're certified to diagnose and deal with illnesses of the peripherally concerned approach. One of the major most usual neurological illnesses includes: Alzheimer's - happens in the elderly, it entails reminiscence loss.

A migraine - extra typical in females, it refers again to the throbbing agony on the part of the mind; and Parkinson's - which refers to the trembling of hands and toes, as a rule, happens in humans over 50.

To Book an instant appointment online, Check Best Neurosurgeon in your nearby Cities :

#neurlogistinindia #neurology #askapollo #neurosurgeon #brainsurgen #neurotreatment

0 notes

itsmedicinesfakianakis · 7 years

Text

Non-CNS pathogenic origin of Parkinson’s disease

Abstract

The gut with its variety of microbiota may serve as an etiological origin of diseases. Gut microbes may also play a role in the pathogenesis of diseases beyond their simple nutritional maintenance and support. For example, gut protein aggregation, possibly aided by microbes as well as nasal influences, might be linked to disease that may move to the brain through the vagus nerve. To this end, Braak has offered a “dual-hit” hypothesis that proposes a novel etiology for Parkinson’s disease (PD). The hypothesis places the initial origin of the disease in the nose and the gastrointestinal tract (GI) after infection by an unknown pathogen that could aggregate in the gut and then eventually spread to the brain via the autonomic plexuses. Gut health functioning, therefore, may affect brain status and behavior. A protein known as alpha-synuclein accumulates in brains of people with Parkinson’s disease that is also present in the GI before the onset of motor symptoms. Therefore, the stomach, previously thought to be a stable mechanism throughout life, might explain some etiological origins of disease. Finally, the vagus nerve of the autonomic system that extends from the brain to the abdomen and exercises both sympathetic and parasympathetic roles might be associated with PD diagnosis along with Lewy body influences.

from # All Medicine by Alexandros G. Sfakianakis via alkiviadis.1961 on Inoreader http://ift.tt/2vwyaSY from OtoRhinoLaryngology - Alexandros G. Sfakianakis via Alexandros G.Sfakianakis on Inoreader http://ift.tt/2wWXkIo

0 notes

juliosmith-blog1 · 7 years

Text

GED 102 The Human Body unit 4 Examination

Follow Below Link to Download Tutorial

https://homeworklance.com/downloads/ged-102-the-human-body-unit-4-examination/

For More Information Visit Our Website ( https://homeworklance.com/ )

Email us At: [email protected] or [email protected]

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The three mucosa-covered projections into the nasal cavity that greatly increase surface area of

mucosa exposed to air are called ________.

a. tonsils

b. adenoids

c. conchae

d. paranasal sinuses

2. The posterior portion of the palate that is not supported by bone is called the ________.

a. soft palate

b. paranasal sinus

c. epiglottis

d. hard palate

3. From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ________.

a. oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

b. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

c laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

d. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

4. The ________ tonsil, or adenoid, is located high in the nasopharynx region.

a. lingual

b. laryngeal

c. pharyngeal

d. palatine

5. The ________ routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech.

a. tongue

b. pharynx

c. nasal conchae

d. larynx

6. The mucosa-lined windpipe that extends from the larynx to the level of the fifth thoracic

vertebra is called the ________.

a. trachea

b. oropharynx

c. main (primary) bronchus

d. nasopharynxUnit 4 Examination 172 GED 102 The Human Body

7. ________ lining the mucosa of the trachea beat continuously to propel contaminated mucus to

the throat.

a. Microvilli

b. Coarse hairs

c. Cilia

d. Flagella

8. The process of physically and chemically breaking food particles down is referred to as

________.

a. digestion

b. defecation

c. ingestion

d. absorption

9. The ________ runs from the pharynx through the diaphragm to the stomach.

a. trachea

b. esophagus

c. larynx

d. small intestine

10. The innermost layer of the alimentary canal is referred to as the ________.

a. serosa

b. submucosa

c. mucosa

d. muscularis externa

11. The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving the alimentary canal are the ________.

a. solar; sympathetic

b. submucosa; myenteric

c. autonomic; somatic

d. mucosa; submucosa

12. The ________ sphincter, or valve, controls food movement from the stomach into the small

intestine.

a. ileocecal

b. cardioesophageal

c. pyloric

d. analUnit 4 Examination 173 GED 102 The Human Body

13. Large wrinkle-like folds in the stomach lining, present when the stomach is empty, that allow

for expansion when the stomach is filling are called ________.

a. villi

b. haustra

c. microvilli

d. rugae

14. The medial indentation where the ureter, blood vessels, and nerves are connected to the kidney

is called the ________.

a. renal capsule

b. renal column

c. renal pyramid

d. renal hilum

15. There are three regions of the kidney; the outermost region is known as the ________.

a. renal medulla

b. renal cortex

c. renal pelvis

d. renal hilum

16. Renal (medullary) pyramids are separated by extensions of cortex-like tissue called the

________.

a. renal columns

b. renal pelvis

c. renal hilum

d. renal capsule

17. The blood vessel carrying blood from the aorta into the kidney is the ________.

a. hepatic artery

b. renal artery

c. renal vein

d. glomerulus

18. The functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine is the ________.

a. glomerulus

b. nephron

c. renal pyramid

d. renal pelvisUnit 4 Examination 174 GED 102 The Human Body

19. The blood vessel directly feeding the glomerulus with blood from the cortical radiate artery is

the ________.

a. peritubular capillary

b. efferent arteriole

c. renal vein

d. afferent arteriole

20. The gonads produce sex cells, also known as ________,

a. zygotes

b. interstitial cells

c. gametes

d. spermatids

21. Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules that are found within

each ________.

a. spermatic cord

b. testis

c. ductus (vas) deferens

d. epididymis

22. The glands that produce a thick, yellowish secretion which nourishes and activates sperm are

the ________.

a. bulbo-urethral glands

b. prostate

c. seminal glands (vesicles)

d. ejaculatory duct

23. The ________ gland surrounds the upper portion of the urethra just below the junction with the

urinary bladder.

a. ejaculatory

b. seminal

c. bulbo-urethral

d. prostateUnit 4 Examination 175 GED 102 The Human Body

24. The enlarged tip of the penis is called the ________.

a. glans penis

b. shaft

c. scrotum

d. prepuce (foreskin)

25. The male external genitalia include the ________ and the ________.

a. testes; ductus (vas) deferens

b. spermatic cord; glans penis

c. penis; scrotum

d. seminal glands (vesicles); ejaculatory duct

#GED 102 The Human Body unit 4 Examination

0 notes

hwcampus · 7 years

Text

New Post has been published on Online Professional Homework Help

New Post has been published on https://hwcampus.com/shop/bsc-2346-p-module-11-final-exam/

BSC 2346 A & P Module 11 Final Exam

Anatomy & Physiology 1 FINAL

A neurotransmitter bound to a postsynaptic neuron membrane will affect its permeability of certain ions that will either cause an increase OR decrease ability to initiate an action potential?

The central nervous system provides neural integration of efferent information transmitted from the autonomic nervous system?

The sense of taste depends upon the binding of food molecules dissolved in saliva onto sensory hair cells?

Which statement is NOT true regarding neurons?

The melanocytes are the most common cell in the epidermis and produce melanin?

What statement is true regarding the eye?

The nerve plexuses of the body allow for individual nerves to have axons from multiple nerve root levels?

What statement is NOT true regarding the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A tendon is a band of connective tissue that attaches and stabilizes one bone to another within a joint?

What is not a symptom of diabetes mellitus?

Which statement is correct regarding the dorsal horn of the spinal cord?

What statement is NOT true regarding the special senses?

Which eye condition best describes the vision impairment that occurs when individuals age and the lens becomes less flexibility which causes the refracted light to fall behind the retina?

What is NOT true of aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration?

This sensory region of the cerebrum is involved with the ability to understand written and spoken language?

What statement is NOT true regarding the endocrine system?

Grey matter of nerve tissue is a region or collection of nerve cell bodies whose main function is to transmit nerve impulses from one region of the nervous system to another?

The cerebellum is primarily involved with conscious thought and emotions?

This organelle is responsible for producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

Which statement is NOT true regarding the special senses?

The autonomic nervous system will innervate both internal organs and skeletal muscles?

22.

The spiral organ contains hair cells that form action potentials when stimulated to allow for the sense of smell to occur?

Peripheral neuropathy can cause damage to axons of peripheral nerves leading to dysfunction of the conduction of an action potential?

Which endocrine hormone, in higher quantities, can suppress the function of the immune system and decrease inflammation of the body?

Both aldosterone and antidiuretic hormones have indirect effects of increasing blood volume and blood pressure?

Which statement is true regarding the neuron synapse?

What statement is true regarding reflexes?

Damage to a lower motor neuron can cause a positive Babinski’s sign?

Which endocrine hormone influences the uterine contractions during pregnancy and stimulates breast milk ejection during breast-feeding?

Hyperthyroidism is commonly caused by insufficient amounts of the element iodine within the body? B) False

Which region of the brain stem is associated with nuclei centers that control various autonomic activities such as sneezing, coughing and respiration rate?

Which of the following is NOT necessary for muscle contraction to occur?

Which statement is true regarding action potentials?

Which type of neuroglia cell forms myelin sheaths on axons within the peripheral nervous system?

Which statement is NOT true regarding myelin sheaths?

One of the main functions of the gyri and sulci is to allow for increased surface area of the cerebral cortex?

Which endocrine hormone is involved with increasing the blood calcium levels of the body?

What sense organ allows for detection of the position of the head in the gravitational field?

The parasympathetic nervous system is a branch of the somatic efferent peripheral nervous system while the sympathetic is a branch of the viscera efferent peripheral nervous system?

Blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube can result in conductive hearing loss?

This endocrine hormone is stored in the posterior pituitary and increases the amount of water reabsorbed in the kidneys increasing blood pressure and blood volume?

What is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

What statement is NOT true of epiphyseal plates?

The spinal cord travels from the foramen magnum of the occipital bone down to the sacrum region?

What is NOT true of the ciliary body and ciliary processes of the eye?

Which cranial nerve is not involved in motor control of eye movement?

Addison’s disease is due to increased amounts of cortisol being secreted?

Which statement is NOT true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A dermatome is associated with a specific cranial nerve that innervates the body’s skin?

Which statement is NOT true regarding a spinal (peripheral) nerve?

This type of bone cell will breakdown the matrix of the bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream?

Which statement is NOT true of dendrites?

Which statement is NOT true regarding skeletal muscle tissue?

Which statement is true regarding the white matter of the spinal cord?

What statement is NOT true of otitis media?

Which statement is NOT true regarding the CNS?

What is NOT a symptom of hypothyroidism?

Which of the following is not an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Red bone marrow is only found in spongy bone and is involved in hemopoiesis?

Both the epidermis and dermis contain blood vessels?

0 notes